NREMT Cognitive Exam Prep | 310
Questions | 65 Pages | 100% Correct Answers
Where does the modern EMS system have its origin? Correct Answer: The modern EMS system
has its origins in funeral homes, which often operated ambulances. However, funeral home
operators were often serving competing business interests and patients received little trained care
until the hospital.
What is considered the "birth" of EMS? Correct Answer: In 1966, a paper titled "Accidental
Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society" is published by the National
Academy of Sciences. This paper is widely known in the EMS profession as the White Paper.
The White Paper is widely considered the birth of modern EMS. It spotlighted inadequacies of
prehospital care in the United States, particularly related to trauma.
Who developed the first EMT National Standard Curriculum? Correct Answer: Early in the
1970s, the US Department of Transportation developed the first EMT National Standard
Curriculum.
What are the levels of EMS training? Correct Answer: Emergency Medical Responder (EMR):
provides basic, immediate care including bleeding control, CPR, AED and emergency childbirth.
Emergency Medical Technician (EMT): includes all EMR skills, advanced oxygen and
ventilation skills, pulse oximetry, noninvasive blood pressure monitoring, and administration of
certain medications.
Advanced Emergency Medical Technician (AEMT): includes all EMT skills, advanced airway
devices, intravenous and intraosseous access, blood glucose monitoring, and administration of
additional medications.
Paramedic: includes all preceding training levels, advanced assessment and management skills,
various invasive skills, and extensive pharmacology interventions. This is the highest level of
prehospital care outlined in the National EMS Education Standards.
What are EMT roles and responsibilities? Correct Answer: Equipment preparedness
Emergency vehicle operations
Establish, maintain scene safety
Patient assessment and treatment
Lifting and moving
Strong verbal and written communication skills
Patient advocacy
Professional development
Quality improvement
Illness and injury prevention
Maintain certification/licensure
,What is the role of the medical director? Correct Answer: The medical director is a physician
responsible for providing medical oversight. The medical director oversees quality improvement.
What are the two types of medical direction? Correct Answer: Online medical direction: direct
contact between the physician and EMT via or radio.
Offline medical direction: written guidelines and protocols.
What is an EMT's first priority? Correct Answer: The EMT's first priority is always his or her
own safety. Scene safety is always the top priority!
The EMT's safety priorities after personal safety are for his/her partner(s), patients and
bystanders.
What are the types of stress? Correct Answer: Acute stress: an immediate physiological and
psychological reaction to a specific event.
Delayed stress: a stress reaction that develops after the stressful event. It does not interfere with
the EMT's ability to perform during the stressful event. PTSD is an example of delayed stress.
Cumulative stress: the result of exposure to stressful situations over a prolonged period of time.
What are the stages of grief? Correct Answer: Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance
How can you prevent the risk of infection? Correct Answer: Immediately report exposures to the
designated infection control officer.
Handwashing is the single most important way to prevent the spread of infection. Hand sanitizers
can be effective, but soap and water is preferred when available.
What are the two types of PPE? Correct Answer: Minimum PPE: gloves and eye protection
should be used during any patient contact situation.
Expanded PPE: use disposable gown and mask for significant contact with any body fluid--for
example, during childbirth. Use a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) mask o N-95 respirator
for suspected airborne disease exposure, such as tuberculosis.
What are emergency moves? Correct Answer: These are used when the scene is dangerous and
the patient must be moved before providing patient care. Types of emergency moves include the
armpit-forearm drag, shirt drag, and blanket drag.
What is an urgent move? Correct Answer: Used when the patient has potentially life-threatening
injuries or illness and must be moved quickly for evaluation and transport.
,Rapid extrication: an urgent move used for patients in a motor vehicle; it requires multiple
rescuers and a long backboard. The patient is rotated onto a backboard with manual cervical
spine precautions and removed from the vehicle.
What are non-urgent moves? Correct Answer: Used when there are no hazards and no life-
threatening conditions are apparent.
Types of non-urgent moves include direct ground lift, extremity lift, direct carry method, and
draw sheet method.
What is the log roll technique? Correct Answer: Commonly used to place a patient on a
backboard or assess the posterior.
Can be done while maintaining manual cervical spine precautions.
Should have at least three trained personnel. The person controlling manual cervical spine
protection should direct the log roll.
What are special considerations for bariatric patients? Correct Answer: Obese patients pose
additional challenges and risks to providers during lifting and movement.
Some EMS systems have special bariatric ambulances with specialized equipment, automated
lifting systems, and wider stretchers capable of a greater weight capacity.
What is supine hypotensive syndrome? Correct Answer: Patients in the later stages of pregnancy
should not be placed supine due to the risk of supine hypotensive syndrome. Place the pregnant
patient on her left side. If patient has potential cervical spine trauma, tilt backboard to the left
about 20 degrees.
When can patients be restrained? Correct Answer: In general, patients may be forcibly
restrained if they pose a significant, immediate threat to you, your partner, or others.
Restraining a patient against his will is a last resort.
Anticipate and plan. Request law enforcement assistance. Contact medical direction when
possible.
Guidelines for restraining a patient:
-Get additional help whenever possible; at least 4 people is recommended.
-Use the minimum amount of force necessary to protect yourself, the patient and others.
-Secure patient supine, with backboard if available. DO NOT secure the patient in a prone
position.
-Use soft, padded restraints.
-Monitor the patient's level of consciousness, airway, and distal circulation continuously.
-Thoroughly document the reason for restraining the patient, the method of restraint, the duration
of restraint, and frequent reassessment of the patient while restrained.
What is the use of force doctrine? Correct Answer: The EMT must act reasonably to prevent
harm to a patient being forcibly restrained. The use of force must be protective, not punitive.
What is scope of practice? Correct Answer: Scope of practice outlines the actions a provider is
legally allowed to perform based on his or her license or certification level.
, Scope of practice is tied to the licensure or certification, not the individual's knowledge or
experience.
Each state determines the scope of practice for its EMS providers.
What is standard of care? Correct Answer: Standard of care is the degree of care a reasonable
person with similar training would provide in a similar situation.
Standard of care requires EMTs to competently perform the indicated assessment and treatment
within their scope of practice.
What are sources that help establish standard of care? Correct Answer: National EMS Education
Standards
State protocols and guidelines
Medical direction
EMS agency's policies and procedures
Reputable textbooks
Care considered acceptable by similarly trained providers in the same community.
What is informed consent? Correct Answer: Informed consent is required from all patients who
are alert and competent.
-Patient must be informed of your carer plan and associated risks of accepting or refusing care
and transport.
-Patient must be informed of, and understand, all information that would impact a reasonable
person's decision to accept or refuse care and transport.
What is expressed consent? Correct Answer: Expressed consent also requires that the patient be
alert and competent to give expressed consent. Expressed consent can be given verbally or
nonverbally.
-Expressed consent is similar to informed consent, but not usually as in-depth as informed
consent.
-Expressed consent is often used to obtain consent for more basic assessments or procedures.
What is implied consent? Correct Answer: Implied consent allows assumption of consent for
emergency care from an unresponsive or incompetent patient.
-Patients might be incompetent for many reasons, such as alcohol, drugs, head injury, hypoxia,
hypoglycemia, or mental incompetency.
-Implied consent can be used to treat a patient who initially refused care but later loses
consciousness or becomes otherwise incapacitated.
What is minor consent? Correct Answer: Minors are not competent to accept or refuse care.
-Consent is required from a parent or legal guardian. Implied consent can be used when unable to
reach a parent or guardian and treatment is needed.
-Minor consent is not required for emancipated minors. Criteria for emancipation varies but
usually includes minors who are married or pregnant, already a parent, a member of the armed
forces, financially independent, or emancipated by the courts.
Questions | 65 Pages | 100% Correct Answers
Where does the modern EMS system have its origin? Correct Answer: The modern EMS system
has its origins in funeral homes, which often operated ambulances. However, funeral home
operators were often serving competing business interests and patients received little trained care
until the hospital.
What is considered the "birth" of EMS? Correct Answer: In 1966, a paper titled "Accidental
Death and Disability: The Neglected Disease of Modern Society" is published by the National
Academy of Sciences. This paper is widely known in the EMS profession as the White Paper.
The White Paper is widely considered the birth of modern EMS. It spotlighted inadequacies of
prehospital care in the United States, particularly related to trauma.
Who developed the first EMT National Standard Curriculum? Correct Answer: Early in the
1970s, the US Department of Transportation developed the first EMT National Standard
Curriculum.
What are the levels of EMS training? Correct Answer: Emergency Medical Responder (EMR):
provides basic, immediate care including bleeding control, CPR, AED and emergency childbirth.
Emergency Medical Technician (EMT): includes all EMR skills, advanced oxygen and
ventilation skills, pulse oximetry, noninvasive blood pressure monitoring, and administration of
certain medications.
Advanced Emergency Medical Technician (AEMT): includes all EMT skills, advanced airway
devices, intravenous and intraosseous access, blood glucose monitoring, and administration of
additional medications.
Paramedic: includes all preceding training levels, advanced assessment and management skills,
various invasive skills, and extensive pharmacology interventions. This is the highest level of
prehospital care outlined in the National EMS Education Standards.
What are EMT roles and responsibilities? Correct Answer: Equipment preparedness
Emergency vehicle operations
Establish, maintain scene safety
Patient assessment and treatment
Lifting and moving
Strong verbal and written communication skills
Patient advocacy
Professional development
Quality improvement
Illness and injury prevention
Maintain certification/licensure
,What is the role of the medical director? Correct Answer: The medical director is a physician
responsible for providing medical oversight. The medical director oversees quality improvement.
What are the two types of medical direction? Correct Answer: Online medical direction: direct
contact between the physician and EMT via or radio.
Offline medical direction: written guidelines and protocols.
What is an EMT's first priority? Correct Answer: The EMT's first priority is always his or her
own safety. Scene safety is always the top priority!
The EMT's safety priorities after personal safety are for his/her partner(s), patients and
bystanders.
What are the types of stress? Correct Answer: Acute stress: an immediate physiological and
psychological reaction to a specific event.
Delayed stress: a stress reaction that develops after the stressful event. It does not interfere with
the EMT's ability to perform during the stressful event. PTSD is an example of delayed stress.
Cumulative stress: the result of exposure to stressful situations over a prolonged period of time.
What are the stages of grief? Correct Answer: Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance
How can you prevent the risk of infection? Correct Answer: Immediately report exposures to the
designated infection control officer.
Handwashing is the single most important way to prevent the spread of infection. Hand sanitizers
can be effective, but soap and water is preferred when available.
What are the two types of PPE? Correct Answer: Minimum PPE: gloves and eye protection
should be used during any patient contact situation.
Expanded PPE: use disposable gown and mask for significant contact with any body fluid--for
example, during childbirth. Use a high-efficiency particulate air (HEPA) mask o N-95 respirator
for suspected airborne disease exposure, such as tuberculosis.
What are emergency moves? Correct Answer: These are used when the scene is dangerous and
the patient must be moved before providing patient care. Types of emergency moves include the
armpit-forearm drag, shirt drag, and blanket drag.
What is an urgent move? Correct Answer: Used when the patient has potentially life-threatening
injuries or illness and must be moved quickly for evaluation and transport.
,Rapid extrication: an urgent move used for patients in a motor vehicle; it requires multiple
rescuers and a long backboard. The patient is rotated onto a backboard with manual cervical
spine precautions and removed from the vehicle.
What are non-urgent moves? Correct Answer: Used when there are no hazards and no life-
threatening conditions are apparent.
Types of non-urgent moves include direct ground lift, extremity lift, direct carry method, and
draw sheet method.
What is the log roll technique? Correct Answer: Commonly used to place a patient on a
backboard or assess the posterior.
Can be done while maintaining manual cervical spine precautions.
Should have at least three trained personnel. The person controlling manual cervical spine
protection should direct the log roll.
What are special considerations for bariatric patients? Correct Answer: Obese patients pose
additional challenges and risks to providers during lifting and movement.
Some EMS systems have special bariatric ambulances with specialized equipment, automated
lifting systems, and wider stretchers capable of a greater weight capacity.
What is supine hypotensive syndrome? Correct Answer: Patients in the later stages of pregnancy
should not be placed supine due to the risk of supine hypotensive syndrome. Place the pregnant
patient on her left side. If patient has potential cervical spine trauma, tilt backboard to the left
about 20 degrees.
When can patients be restrained? Correct Answer: In general, patients may be forcibly
restrained if they pose a significant, immediate threat to you, your partner, or others.
Restraining a patient against his will is a last resort.
Anticipate and plan. Request law enforcement assistance. Contact medical direction when
possible.
Guidelines for restraining a patient:
-Get additional help whenever possible; at least 4 people is recommended.
-Use the minimum amount of force necessary to protect yourself, the patient and others.
-Secure patient supine, with backboard if available. DO NOT secure the patient in a prone
position.
-Use soft, padded restraints.
-Monitor the patient's level of consciousness, airway, and distal circulation continuously.
-Thoroughly document the reason for restraining the patient, the method of restraint, the duration
of restraint, and frequent reassessment of the patient while restrained.
What is the use of force doctrine? Correct Answer: The EMT must act reasonably to prevent
harm to a patient being forcibly restrained. The use of force must be protective, not punitive.
What is scope of practice? Correct Answer: Scope of practice outlines the actions a provider is
legally allowed to perform based on his or her license or certification level.
, Scope of practice is tied to the licensure or certification, not the individual's knowledge or
experience.
Each state determines the scope of practice for its EMS providers.
What is standard of care? Correct Answer: Standard of care is the degree of care a reasonable
person with similar training would provide in a similar situation.
Standard of care requires EMTs to competently perform the indicated assessment and treatment
within their scope of practice.
What are sources that help establish standard of care? Correct Answer: National EMS Education
Standards
State protocols and guidelines
Medical direction
EMS agency's policies and procedures
Reputable textbooks
Care considered acceptable by similarly trained providers in the same community.
What is informed consent? Correct Answer: Informed consent is required from all patients who
are alert and competent.
-Patient must be informed of your carer plan and associated risks of accepting or refusing care
and transport.
-Patient must be informed of, and understand, all information that would impact a reasonable
person's decision to accept or refuse care and transport.
What is expressed consent? Correct Answer: Expressed consent also requires that the patient be
alert and competent to give expressed consent. Expressed consent can be given verbally or
nonverbally.
-Expressed consent is similar to informed consent, but not usually as in-depth as informed
consent.
-Expressed consent is often used to obtain consent for more basic assessments or procedures.
What is implied consent? Correct Answer: Implied consent allows assumption of consent for
emergency care from an unresponsive or incompetent patient.
-Patients might be incompetent for many reasons, such as alcohol, drugs, head injury, hypoxia,
hypoglycemia, or mental incompetency.
-Implied consent can be used to treat a patient who initially refused care but later loses
consciousness or becomes otherwise incapacitated.
What is minor consent? Correct Answer: Minors are not competent to accept or refuse care.
-Consent is required from a parent or legal guardian. Implied consent can be used when unable to
reach a parent or guardian and treatment is needed.
-Minor consent is not required for emancipated minors. Criteria for emancipation varies but
usually includes minors who are married or pregnant, already a parent, a member of the armed
forces, financially independent, or emancipated by the courts.
