NR228 Exam 2 (Latest ) Nutrition, Health & Wellness - Chamberlain

NR228 Exam 2 (Latest ): Nutrition, Health & Wellness - Chamberlain NR228 Exam 2 (Latest ): Nutrition, Health & Wellness - Chamberlain Chapter 5 The nutrient that provides the densest energy source is a. fat. b. protein. c. alcohol. d. carbohydrate. A Sex hormones, bile, and vitamin D are formed in the body from a. sterols. b. triglycerides. c. phospholipids. d. chylomicrons. A If a patient receiving fat-free parenteral nutrition develops eczema, the patient may have a. vitamin C deficiency. b. essential fatty acid deficiency. c. protein-energy malnutrition. d. phospholipid and sterol deficiency. B Hydrogenation of vegetable oils their shelf life and makes them harmful to health. a. decreases; less b. increases; less c. decreases; more d. increases; more D A triglyceride is a compound composed of a. glycerol with two fatty acids attached. b. glycerol with three amino acids attached. c. glycerol with three fatty acids attached. d. organic molecules formed in triangular chains. C A polyunsaturated fatty acid is a fatty acid with bond(s) on the carbon chain. a. one double b. no double c. oxidized d. two or more double D If a client wants to lose 1 lb of body fat each week, they would need to make sure that their daily calorie intake was lower than their daily energy needs by kcals/day. a. 350 b. 500 c. 900 d. 3500 B In their natural form, most oils come from products and most solid fats come from products. a. natural; processed b. organic; refined c. animal; plant d. plant; animal D The number of double bonds present in the fatty acid chain determines the a. number of fatty acids attached to the glycerol molecule. b. number of glycerol molecules attached to the fatty acid. c. degree of saturation or unsaturation of a fatty acid. d. degree of saturation or unsaturation of the glycerol molecule. C By interfering with blood clotting, omega-3 fatty acids appear to lower the a. risk of hypertension. b. risk of heart disease. c. levels of serum triglyceride. d. levels of serum cholesterol. B Overall energy intake can be greatly affected by relatively small changes in intake of a. protein. b. carbohydrate. c. fat. d. alcohol. C The number of kcals provided by 23 g of fat is a. 92. b. 161. c. 207. d. 230. C If dietary analysis shows that fat provides 31% of an individual's energy intake, their fat intake would be considered to be a. below the recommended range. b. within the recommended range. c. above the recommended range. d. generally recognized as safe. B Meat, dairy products, and nuts are major sources of in the diet. a. fat b. fiber c. vitamins d. carbohydrate A Hydrogenation is the process by which a liquid oil is made solid and stable. a. less; more b. more; more c. less; less d. more; less B A client with coronary artery disease tells you that they always look for foods that are labeled "cholesterol free." Foods with this label may still promote heart disease if they are high in a. monounsaturated fat and cis fat. b. polyunsaturated fat and trans fat. c. saturated fat and trans fat. d. medium chain triglycerides and cis fat. C If a salad dressing is made with olive oil it would contain mostly fatty acids. a. trans b. saturated c. polyunsaturated d. monounsaturated D High levels of trans fatty acids are found in a. vegetable oils. b. coconut and palm oil. c. meats and dairy foods. d. vegetable oil shortening. D Antioxidants can be used to preserve fats without the addition of a. hydrogen. b. hydrogen and carbon. c. hydrogen and oxygen. d. hydrogen, water, and carbon. A A special property of phospholipids that makes them valuable in foods and in the body is that they a. carry fat-soluble vitamins. b. are useful as low-energy fat substitutes. c. are soluble in water and fat at the same time. d. function as natural antioxidants. C Most fat enters the lymphatic system after a. absorption. b. circulation. c. metabolism. d. hydrogenation. A If a client has a total blood cholesterol of 246 mg/dL and a low-density lipoprotein cholesterol level of 172 mg/dL, their blood cholesterol level would be considered to be a. low. b. desirable. c. borderline high. d. high. D High levels of low-density lipoproteins are associated with an increased risk of a. diabetes mellitus. b. high levels of HDL. c. coronary artery disease. d. high blood pressure and stroke. C The best way to decrease blood cholesterol level is to decrease dietary intake of a. cholesterol. b. saturated fat. c. monounsaturated fat. d. polyunsaturated fat. B The client most likely to benefit from use of medium chain triglycerides is one who a. has essential fatty acid deficiency. b. has malabsorption because of removal of part of their small intestine. c. needs to gain weight after surgery and chemotherapy to treat bowel cancer. d. has high serum total cholesterol and low-density lipoprotein cholesterol levels. B A good lunch choice for someone who wants to increase their intake of omega-3 fatty acids would be a. peanut butter and jelly sandwich. b. lentil soup. c. salad with olive oil dressing. d. tuna salad sandwich. D Emulsification occurs so that dietary fat can be by enzymes in the digestive tract. a. dissolved b. oxidized c. broken down d. hydrogenated C A substance that increases the solubility of fats to facilitate their digestion and absorption is a. bile. b. stomach acid. c. salivary lipase. d. glycerol. A Overly restricting the fat intake of infants may lead to failure to thrive. Infants depend on dietary fat and cholesterol for formation of a. energy stores and bones. b. brain and bones. c. brain and nerve tissue. d. energy stores and nerve tissue. C A client grew up on a farm and learned to prepare foods using butter and lard produced by the farm animals. She is now in her 60s and has just learned that she has coronary artery disease. To best meet her physical as well as psychologic needs, the health practitioner should a. suggest that she adopt a low-fat vegetarian dietary pattern. b. ask how she usually prepares foods and suggest ways to reduce the use of animal fat. c. advise her to eat more fruits and vegetables and to replace some of the animal fat with palm and coconut oil. d. advise her to avoid adding fat to foods and eat only very lean poultry and fish. B Chapter 6 Protein is needed by the body because it provides a. energy. b. peptides. c. fatty acids. d. amino acids. D The amount of protein that most Americans eat is a. less than we need. b. more than we need. c. about the amount we need. d. very different from day to day. B In addition to carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen, amino acids also contain a. nitrogen. b. potassium. c. iron. d. sodium. A Nine of the 20 amino acids are considered essential because they a. contain sulfur. b. are found only in animal proteins. c. cannot be manufactured by the body. d. are the only amino acids used to make body proteins. C Nonessential amino acids can be made by the liver using a. glucose and urea. b. other amino acids. c. fatty acids and glycerol. d. enzymes and hormones. B The secondary structure of proteins refers to the a. combination of polypeptide chains. b. sequence of amino acids in the chain. c. strong bonds between loops of the chain. d. straight, folded, or coiled shape of the amino acid chain. D A client may be in a danger of their body proteins becoming denatured if they have a a. drug overdose. b. very high fever. c. vitamin deficiency. d. high stress level. B The enzyme that begins digestion of protein in the stomach is a. pepsin. b. renin. c. trypsin. d. protease. A Loss of muscle tissue during recovery from a serious accident is an example of a. anabolism. b. catabolism. c. deamination. d. metabolism. B The vitamin that is essential for absorption of amino acids is a. vitamin B6. b. folate. c. vitamin A. d. vitamin E. A An example of a situation in which positive nitrogen balance occurs is a. aging. b. infection. c. starvation. d. pregnancy. D The main structural protein found in connective tissues, bone, and teeth is called a. fibrin. b. albumin. c. collagen. d. hemoglobin. C Proteins that are produced by the immune system in response to specific foreign viruses and bacteria are called a. hormones. b. antibodies. c. lipoproteins. d. enzymes. B An important role of proteins in the body includes a. temperature regulation. b. acid-base balance. c. conduction of nerve impulses. d. elimination of waste products. B The protein that carries oxygen in muscles is called a. ferritin. b. oxyglobin. c. myoglobin. d. hemoglobin. C Phenylketonuria is caused by a. excessive intake of phenylalanine. b. failure to break down excess phenylalanine. c. inadequate intake of phenylalanine during pregnancy. d. inability to digest proteins that contain phenylalanine. B An example of a food that contains complete protein is a. oatmeal. b. lentil soup. c. peanut butter. d. hard-boiled egg. D Incomplete protein a. has no nutritional value in the diet. b. is mostly found in foods of animal origin. c. has been denatured by contact with heat, acid, or alkali. d. contains inadequate amounts of one or more essential amino acids. D An example of a meal that contains complementary proteins is a. pasta and tomato sauce. b. split pea soup with crackers. c. oatmeal and buttered toast. d. fruit yogurt with strawberries. B A measurement of the quality of food protein based on the amount that is retained in the body after digestion, absorption, and excretion is a. biologic value. b. amino acid score. c. protein efficiency ratio. d. urinary urea excretion. A Men generally require more protein than women because they a. are more active. b. have more lean body mass. c. have a higher metabolic rate. d. use dietary protein less efficiently. B The protein needs of athletes are a. lower than those of nonathletes. b. the same as those of nonathletes. c. higher than those of nonathletes. d. currently being determined by researchers. C The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for protein for a healthy adult who weighs 60 kg is g/day. a. 36 b. 48 c. 60 d. 72 B A vegan diet contains a. plant foods only. b. mostly raw foods. c. plant foods plus eggs. d. plant foods plus fish. A Strict vegan diets may be associated with low intakes of a. vitamins A and D. b. vitamins B12 and D. c. folate and vitamin C. d. vitamin E and selenium. B A Jew who follows a strict kosher diet would not eat a. macaroni and cheese. b. a cheeseburger and fries. c. a bean and cheese burrito. d. roast beef with mashed potatoes. B An appropriate size serving of meat, poultry, or fish is about the size of a. your fist. b. a dollar bill. c. the palm of your hand. d. one fourth of a dinner plate. C Kwashiorkor is a type of malnutrition usually caused by a. intake of incomplete protein sources. b. excessive intakes of protein and fluid. c. inadequate intakes of protein and energy. d. inadequate protein intake with adequate energy intake. D Examples of individuals who may have an increased risk of malnutrition include a. inactive middle-aged men. b. sleep-deprived adolescents. c. children with chronic infections. d. breast-fed infants. C An example of the lifestyle habit of "chaining" is a. gradually reducing intake of sugar-sweetened beverages. b. eating a piece of fruit with a sandwich every lunchtime. c. keeping a record of all food and beverages eaten. d. involving all family members in choosing healthy foods. B Chapter 7 A secondary deficiency of a vitamin occurs when a. dietary intake of two or more vitamins is inadequate. b. absorption is inadequate or excessive amounts are excreted. c. dietary intake is less than the physiologic need of the individual. d. the vitamin deficiency is accompanied by protein-energy malnutrition. B An example of someone who has a relatively high risk for vitamin deficiencies is a(n) a. teenage competitive athlete. b. elderly man living independently. c. college-age girl living with roommates. d. newborn breastfed infant. B Deficiencies are likely to develop most rapidly with low intakes of vitamin a. A. b. C. c. D. d. E. B The best way to ensure intake of a variety of phytochemicals is to a. take a daily multivitamin supplement that includes phytochemicals. b. increase intake of soy-based foods, such as soy milk, tofu, and soy flour. c. choose whole grains and include at least five servings of fruits and vegetables daily. d. include at least three servings of dairy products daily and use a variety of herbs and spices. C The amount of thiamine that the body needs is related to a. dietary intake of protein. b. exposure of the skin to sunlight. c. the amount of energy expended. d. physiologic and emotional stress. C Deficiency of thiamine is characterized by a. muscle weakness, loss of coordination, and tachycardia. b. dermatitis, altered nerve function, and convulsions. c. skin rash, hair loss, loss of appetite, and depression. d. gingivitis, poor wound healing, and increased risk of infection. A The riboflavin in milk is protected by a. pasteurization. b. homogenization. c. storing milk under refrigeration. d. using nontransparent containers. D The most significant source of riboflavin in the United States is a. milk. b. eggs. c. meats. d. whole grains. A Historically, deficiency of niacin was sometimes misdiagnosed as a. alcoholism. b. mental illness. c. viral infection. d. iron deficiency anemia. B Niacin can be manufactured by the body from the amino acid a. alanine. b. arginine. c. tryptophan. d. phenylalanine. C Pyridoxine functions in the body as a coenzyme in metabolism of a. fat. b. protein. c. carbohydrate. d. energy. B A disorder in infants that is associated with inadequate intake of folate during pregnancy is a. spina bifida. b. cystic fibrosis. c. Down syndrome. d. macrocytic anemia. A Adequate intake of folic acid is especially important for a. competitive athletes. b. infants and young children. c. women of childbearing age. d. pregnant and lactating women. C An example of a high-folate meal is a. fish, French fries, and coleslaw. b. spinach salad with orange segments. c. oatmeal with brown sugar and raisins. d. pork chops with applesauce. B The type of anemia associated with folate deficiency is anemia. a. microcytic b. pernicious c. megaloblastic d. iron deficiency C The substance produced by the stomach that is necessary for absorption of cobalamin is a. intrinsic factor. b. pernicious factor. c. hydrochloric acid. d. pyridoxal phosphate. A Deficiency of vitamin B12 may cause damage to the a. skin. b. eyes. c. heart. d. nerves. D An example of a meal high in biotin is a a. cheese and tomato sandwich. b. roast beef and mustard sandwich. c. peanut butter and jelly sandwich. d. vegetarian sandwich with avocado and alfalfa sprouts. C Pantothenic acid is required for a. absorption of amino acids. b. conduction of nerve impulses. c. regulation of body temperature. d. metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and protein. D Some choline can be synthesized by the body from a. glycerol. b. cholesterol. c. tryptophan. d. methionine. D Vitamin C deficiency causes scurvy, which is characterized by a. weakening of connective tissues. b. diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia. c. degeneration of nerves and muscles. d. iron deficiency anemia and weight loss. A Lifestyle behaviors that increase vitamin C requirements include a. shift work. b. vegan diet. c. high fat intake. d. smoking cigarettes. D Vegetables are likely to be highest in vitamin C if they are a. boiled. b. canned. c. stir-fried. d. oven roasted. C Vitamin A may be obtained by the body from precursors called a. calciferols. b. carotenoids. c. rhodopsins. d. tocopherols. B An eye disorder associated with vitamin A deficiency is a. myopia. b. retinopathy. c. double vision. d. xerophthalmia. D Vitamins that function as antioxidants in the body include a. vitamins C and E. b. vitamins D and K. c. pyridoxine and biotin. d. folate and vitamin B12. A The Adequate Intake (AI) for vitamin D increases in older adults because a. their ability to absorb dietary vitamin D is diminished. b. conversion of vitamin D to its active forms is less efficient. c. their skin is less efficient in synthesizing vitamin D during sun exposure. d. they require more vitamin D than younger adults to maintain bone health. C Symptoms of vitamin D toxicity include a. lethargy and loss of coordination. b. rickets, osteomalacia, and osteoporosis. c. blistered skin, joint pain, and liver damage. d. high levels of calcium in the blood and urine. D Vitamin E requirements are related to intake of a. protein. b. vitamin C. c. polyunsaturated fats. d. monounsaturated fats. C An example of a meal high in vitamin K is a. grilled shrimp with rice and green beans. b. eggs, bacon, and hash browns. c. stir fried beef with broccoli. d. bacon, lettuce and tomato sandwich. C Long-term antibiotic use may be associated with vitamin K deficiency because antibiotics a. prevent absorption of vitamin K. b. kill gut bacteria that synthesize vitamin K. c. break down dietary vitamin K in the intestines. d. impair blood clotting and increase vitamin K requirements. B The first step to ensuring adequate intake of vitamins is to a. use a daily multivitamin supplement. b. increase fortification of key foods in the food supply. c. target specific supplements for specific subgroups of the population. d. ensure that the diet includes a variety of foods from all of the food groups. D Many Americans use vitamin supplements on a regular basis because a. supplements taste better than food. b. this practice is necessary for good health. c. it is cheaper than consuming an adequate diet. d. it is easier than making dietary and behavioral modifications. D Chapter 8 If a woman who drinks a cup of decaffeinated coffee in the morning, a cup of fruit juice with lunch, 6 cups of water throughout the day and a cup of tea at bedtime, her fluid intake would be considered a. dangerously low. b. below optimal. c. optimal. d. too high. C Hard water contains high levels of minerals such as a. iron and zinc. b. lead and sulfur. c. sodium and potassium. d. calcium and magnesium. D Interstitial fluid is the body fluid a. within the cells. b. outside the cells. c. between the cells. d. in the bloodstream. C Within the body, water helps to a. dissolve lipids. b. store excess energy. c. insulate nerve fibers. d. regulate body temperature. D Maintenance of physiologic equilibrium within the body is known as a. hemostasis. b. homeostasis. c. water balance. d. metabolic regulation. B The hormone that causes the body to decrease sodium excretion is called a. adrenaline. b. aldosterone. c. alanine. d. antidiuretic hormone (ADH). B The primary intracellular electrolyte is a. sodium. b. calcium. c. potassium. d. magnesium. C In an older adult who is usually very alert, disorientation may be a sign of a. iron deficiency. b. malnutrition. c. edema. d. dehydration. D Edema may be caused by inadequate intake of a. protein. b. sodium. c. chloride. d. potassium. A The term bioavailability means the a. total amount of a mineral in a food. b. ratio of free to bound mineral in a food. c. amount of a mineral that is excreted by the body. d. amount of a mineral that can be absorbed by the body from a food. D Daily dietary calcium intake affects a. body temperature. b. muscular strength. c. bone calcium levels. d. blood calcium levels. C Beverages that contain substances that decrease absorption of calcium include a. tea. b. milk. c. orange juice. d. bottled water. A Lifestyle changes that may help prevent development of osteoporosis include a. reducing intake of animal protein. b. eating a piece of fruit with lunch every day. c. taking a daily multivitamin supplement. d. taking a 30 minute walk most days. D An example of a food high in phosphorus is a. rice. b. carrot. c. cheese. d. banana. C A good source of calcium for someone who follows a strict vegetarian (vegan) diet would be a. coconut milk. b. a bean burrito. c. skim milk. d. pasta salad. B Magnesium deficiency may occur in association with a. lactation. b. type 1 diabetes. c. excessive vomiting and diarrhea. d. dehydration attributable to heat exposure. C Of the following, the food choice that contains the least sodium is a. cornbread. b. corn tortilla. c. corn on the cob. d. buttered popcorn. C A sodium intake of 2100 mg daily of a healthy adult would be considered a. below the Adequate Intake (AI). b. within the recommended range. c. below the maximum recommended level. d. above the maximum recommended level. C Signs of potassium deficiency include a. excessive thirst and urination. b. muscle weakness and confusion. c. shortness of breath and dizziness. d. twitching of muscles and convulsions. B Foods that contain chloride usually also contain a. sodium. b. calcium. c. potassium. d. magnesium. A Young women require more dietary iron than young men a. because they absorb iron less efficiently. b. to compensate for their lower muscle mass. c. to replace blood losses during menstruation. d. because they recycle hemoglobin more rapidly. C The form of dietary iron that is absorbed most easily is a. heme iron. b. nonheme iron. c. free iron. d. supplemental iron. A The effects of iron deficiency are caused by a. increased blood pressure. b. increased risk of blood clotting. c. decreased ability of the blood to transport oxygen. d. decreased numbers of muscle fibers and brain cells. C Hemosiderosis, storage of too much iron in the body, is most likely to occur in a. a man who drinks 5 or more alcoholic beverages every night. b. an adolescent who drinks 4 or more soft drinks daily. c. a toddler who prefers drinking milk to eating meals. d. a pregnant woman who takes iron supplements. A In countries where the staple food source is unleavened bread made from whole grains, zinc deficiency may be prevented by a. eating refined grains. b. making breads with yeast. c. eating fortified grains. d. soaking grains before making bread. B The main source of iodine in the United States is a. seafood. b. dairy products. c. fortified table salt. d. residues of cleaning products. C Deficiency of iodine reduces thyroxine production, which causes a. microcytic anemia. b. fever and dehydration. c. delayed wound healing. d. lethargy and weight gain. D Dietary fluoride is important to a. decrease staining of teeth. b. decrease sensitivity of teeth. c. stimulate production of saliva. d. increase the strength of tooth enamel. D In the United States, low intake of selenium may be associated with increased risk of a. cancer. b. osteoporosis. c. hypertension. d. type 2 diabetes. A Wilson's disease is an inherited disorder that causes excessive accumulation of a. iron. b. zinc. c. copper. d. chromium. C A good dietary source of chromium is a. pasta. b. grapes. c. oatmeal. d. cauliflower. C Apart from lowering dietary sodium intake, dietary changes that may help decrease high blood pressure include a. decreasing intake of dairy products. b. increasing intake of vegetable protein. c. increasing intake of calcium and magnesium. d. replacing saturated fats with polyunsaturated fats. C A wife who blames her high blood pressure on her husband's preference for salty foods is an example of a. denial. b. chaining. c. reframing. d. projection. D Chapter 10 1. An individual has a distorted body image when a. his or her body has abnormal proportions. b. his or her perception of his or her body differs from reality. c. he or she is dissatisfied with his or her personal appearance. d. he or she focuses on changing a specific body part. B 2. Cultural influences have had a greater influence on body perception during the past few decades because of the increase in a. mass media. b. food availability. c. medical services. d. health knowledge. A 3. A healthy and positive body image is associated with a. adoption of a range of healthy lifestyle behaviors. b. achievement of a healthy weight and body composition. c. freedom from prejudice against overweight and underweight individuals. d. realistic evaluation and acceptance of our positive and negative attributes. D 4. Body mass index (BMI) is a. the ratio of waist circumference to hip circumference. b. weight in kilograms divided by the square of height in meters. c. an indicator of personal satisfaction with current body weight. d. weight in kilograms divided by waist circumference in centimeters. B 5. Risk of mortality in adults is lowest for those with a body mass index that is between a. 15 and 20. b. 20 and 25. c. 25 and 30. d. 30 and 40. B 6. The increased risk of mortality in individuals with a very low body mass index is probably related to a. low levels of body fat. b. inadequate fat intake. c. low levels of lean body mass. d. failure to store energy from ingested food. C 7. Fat stored in the abdominal area is called fat. a. gynoid b. visceral c. essential d. subcutaneous B 8. Metabolic syndrome is associated with increased risk of a. diabetes mellitus. b. thyroid disorders. c. digestive disorders. d. leukemia and lymphoma. A 9. Obesity may be a contributing factor in development of a. osteoporosis. b. alcoholism. c. sleep apnea. d. multiple sclerosis. C 10. Adverse effects of obesity that are not life threatening but decrease quality of life include a. arthritis. b. heart disease. c. diabetes mellitus. d. high blood pressure. A 11. Restrained eating is defined as a. avoiding certain types of foods. b. limiting food intake to certain times of day. c. ceasing to eat when hunger has been satisfied. d. limiting food intake to less than natural appetite. D 12. If an individual says they have a desire for dessert after they have eaten a meal they are describing their a. thirst. b. satiety. c. hunger. d. appetite. D 13. For a man, a total body fat level of 18% is considered a. too low. b. healthy. c. too high. d. obese. B 14. If a health practitioner wants to assess whether an underweight woman is too thin, he or she may ask her a. if she has lost weight recently. b. if other family members are underweight. c. whether she has a normal appetite. d. whether she menstruates regularly. D 15. If a woman's waist measurement is 34 inches and her hip measurement is 40 inches, her waist-to-hip ratio would be considered to be a. associated with a high risk of chronic disease. b. unrelated to risk of chronic disease. c. associated with a low risk of chronic disease. d. associated with a high risk of acute disease. A 16. Compared to women, it appears to be easier for men to lose weight because a. men have more willpower than women. b. men tend to be more active than women. c. visceral fat is lost more easily than lower body fat. d. lower body fat is lost more easily than visceral fat. C 17. Excess fat is stored in our bodies as a. fatty acids in the liver. b. glycogen in the muscles. c. glycerol in cell cytoplasm. d. triglycerides in adipocytes. D 18. The increase in the number of adipocytes in the body during growth spurts is known as a. mutation. b. maturation. c. hyperplasia. d. hypertrophy. C 19. The best way to accurately measure body fat levels is to use a. body mass index (BMI). b. triceps skinfold thickness. c. underwater weighing (densitometry). d. bioelectric impedance analysis (BIA). C 20. To lose a pound of body fat in a week, daily energy expenditure would have to increase by about kcals. a. 350 b. 500 c. 700 d. 3500 B 21. The causes of obesity are largely a. genetic. b. cultural. c. multifactorial. d. environmental. C 22. According to set point theory, if weight or fatness falls below the level perceived to be appropriate by the body, the individual will a. experience a greater desire for high-fat foods. b. develop a new, lower set point for body weight. c. experience an overall increase in hunger drive. d. decrease his or her physical activity level until weight is regained. C 23. Factors that appear to help reduce the body's set point for body weight and body fatness include a. regular aerobic exercise. b. decreased protein intake. c. use of weight loss medications. d. use of specific vitamin supplements. A 24. A major problem associated with cycles of weight loss and weight gain is a. decreased ability to metabolize body fat. b. loss of sensitivity to physiologic hunger cues. c. a false sense of empowerment and control of body weight. d. hormonal imbalances triggered by changes in body fat levels. B 25. To maintain a healthy weight, the most important goals are related to changes in a. behaviors. b. food intake. c. physical activity. d. supplement use. A 26. The most important factor in setting behavioral goals is a. the client's willingness to exercise. b. individual habits and preferences. c. the amount of weight loss desired. d. the skill of the health practitioner. B 27. If a client wants to relearn to pay attention to hunger and satiety cues, they may find it helpful to a. keep a journal of perceived emotions. b. establish a regular pattern of meals. c. eat all their food at home. d. avoid eating until they are very hungry. A 28. The best way to maintain lean body mass is to a. avoid weight loss. b. exercise regularly. c. decrease dietary fat intake. d. ensure adequate protein intake. B 29. National programs that aim to reverse the trend of increasing body weight should focus on a. smoking cessation. b. maintenance of ideal body weight. c. monitoring annual weight changes. d. achievement of a healthier body weight. D 30. Our main attitude towards food should be one of a. self-control. b. necessity. c. enjoyment. d. healthy choices. C Chapter 11 1. Increased levels of progesterone in pregnancy cause relaxation of smooth muscle, which can cause a. nausea. b. headache. c. diarrhea. d. constipation. D 2. If a woman has had preeclampsia and hypertension in a previous pregnancy, during this pregnancy she should a. restrict her sodium intake. b. continue her regular sodium intake. c. restrict her protein intake. d. take iron and calcium supplements. B 3. An increase in oxygen needs during pregnancy results in increased a. stamina. b. blood pressure. c. bowel motility. d. basal metabolic rate (BMR). D 4. The increase in plasma volume during pregnancy may appear to cause a. lower plasma levels of sodium. b. higher plasma levels of sodium. c. lower blood levels of hemoglobin. d. higher blood levels of hemoglobin. C 5. Intrauterine growth retardation may be caused by a. poor weight gain during pregnancy. b. gestational diabetes during pregnancy. c. excessive weight gain during pregnancy. d. excessive use of vitamin and mineral supplements. A 6. For a woman with a healthy weight before pregnancy, gaining 25 to 35 pounds during pregnancy is considered to be a. too low for a healthy pregnancy. b. too high for a healthy pregnancy. c. the current recommended range for weight gain. d. the current range for weight gain for a woman experiencing gestational diabetes. C 7. A weight gain of 15 to 25 pounds during pregnancy is recommended for a. a teenage girl. b. an overweight woman. c. an underweight woman. d. all women regardless of weight. B 8. Weight gain during pregnancy is a variable that is highly correlated with a. zinc status. b. bone density. c. calcium status. d. infant birth weight. D 9. A woman needs to increase her kcal intake by about 300 kcals daily during a. all three trimesters of pregnancy. b. the first and second trimesters of pregnancy. c. the second and third trimesters of pregnancy. d. the 6 months before conception through the first trimester. C 10. A woman who is 4 months pregnant and has already gained 25 pounds should a. eat a low-calorie diet to help her lose the extra weight. b. modify her food intake if it is excessive but not attempt to lose weight. c. take a multivitamin/mineral supplement and consume 1200 kcal a day. d. work hard not to gain any more weight during the remainder of the pregnancy. B 11. To prevent neural tube defects, the U.S. Public Health Service and the American Academy of Pediatrics now recommend adequate intake of a. protein by women of childbearing age. b. protein by women in the first trimester of pregnancy. c. folic acid by women of childbearing age. d. folic acid by women in the first trimester of pregnancy. C 12. Vouchers for food are benefits of the a. La Leche League. b. United States Department of Agriculture Assistance Program. c. Special Supplemental Program for Women, Infants, and Children. d. U.S. Public Health Service and the American Academy of Pediatrics. C 13. The amount of iron needed during pregnancy is a. difficult to achieve without taking a supplement. b. easy to achieve with a well-balanced diet. c. the same as the amount needed by nonpregnant women. d. less than for nonpregnant women because there are no menstrual losses. A 14. Dietary calcium needs of pregnant women are a. higher than for nonpregnant women to form the fetal skeleton. b. higher than for nonpregnant women because intestinal absorption decreases. c. the same as for nonpregnant women because intestinal absorption increases. d. lower than for nonpregnant women because calcium metabolism is more efficient. C 15. Teratogens are a. additives that may adversely affect the course of a pregnancy. b. substances known to cause malformations in the unborn fetus. c. hormones known to cause malformations in the unborn fetus. d. carcinogens that may increase the risk of cancer in the fetus. B 16. To prevent fetal alcohol syndrome, alcohol should be a. avoided throughout pregnancy. b. avoided in the first trimester of pregnancy. c. limited throughout pregnancy. d. limited in the first trimester of pregnancy. A 17. A drug that appears to be safe when used in moderate amounts during pregnancy is a. alcohol. b. nicotine. c. isotretinoin. d. caffeine. D 18. Pregnant women who smoke have a high risk of giving birth to an infant with a. obesity. b. macrosomia. c. low birth weight. d. average birth weight. C 19. During pregnancy, women should a. not exercise at all. b. exercise for 15 minutes daily. c. avoid very strenuous exercise. d. take cool showers after exercise sessions. C 20. If a woman in her last trimester of pregnancy has marked edema, she may have a. heart failure. b. dehydration. c. preeclampsia. d. sodium overload. C 21. Recommendations for treatment of gestational diabetes include a. weight loss. b. dietary control. c. avoidance of sugar. d. oral diabetes medication. B 22. High bioavailability of nutrients and resistance to infection are a. known to decrease risk of allergies. b. two of the advantages of breastfeeding. c. two of the disadvantages of breastfeeding. d. advantages that formula preparations are able to mimic. B 23. Prolactin is the hormone that a. is responsible for milk let-down. b. is responsible for milk synthesis. c. prepares the body for pregnancy. d. is responsible for relaxing muscle tone during pregnancy. B 24. Nursing by the infant results in a. sustained milk production. b. increased body fat in the infant. c. increased body fat in the mother. d. increased digestibility of breast milk. A 25. Excess protein in an infant's diet is a problem because a. it causes edema. b. it increases renal solute load. c. it results in excessive caloric intake. d. the gastrointestinal (GI) tract is too immature to absorb it. B 26. Infants may need supplements of a. iron, fluoride, and vitamin D. b. calcium, magnesium, and vitamin D. c. iron, zinc, and vitamin E. d. calcium, fluoride, and vitamin E. A 27. Vitamin K is the -soluble vitamin routinely given to . a. water; new mothers b. fat; new mothers c. water; newborns d. fat; newborns D 28. Infants less than one year old should not be fed a. crackers. b. egg yolk. c. cow's milk. d. fruit juice. C 29. To prevent baby bottle tooth decay, infants should not be allowed to sleep with a bottle containing a. fruit juice. b. beverages sweetened with sugar. c. any liquid other than water. d. iron-fortified infant formula. C 30. Tube feeding is often required by babies born before 34 weeks of gestation because a. they are unable to chew. b. their taste buds are immature. c. they lack a coordinated suck-swallow reflex. d. they cannot digest breast milk or infant formula. C Chapter 12 1. In feeding children, adults are responsible for determining a. children's likes and dislikes. b. the amount of food consumed. c. the quantity and quality of foods prepared. d. the amount of time taken to consume foods. C 2. Children should be fed a. three times per day only. b. only when they request food. c. at about the same times each day. d. three meals and three snacks each day. C 3. The best way to encourage children to consume adequate nutrients with less than 30% of kcals from fat is to a. avoid fast food and fried foods. b. follow a vegan eating pattern. c. use low-fat foods and take a vitamin/mineral supplement. d. include plenty of fruits, vegetables, and whole grains. D ● 4. Children ages 1 to 3 years have an increasing sense of a. privacy. b. isolation. c. dependence. d. independence. D 5. If a 2-year-old is drinking 4 cups of milk daily, they are probably drinking a. too little milk to provide sufficient calcium for their growing skeleton. b. about the right amount of milk to meet their nutrient needs. c. about the right amount of milk provided they are at a healthy weight. d. too much milk, which may displace other important foods from their diet. D 6. Excessive juice intake may be a problem for young children because a. high potassium intakes may be harmful. b. it may displace more nutrient-dense foods. c. excessive fluid intake may cause kidney damage. d. fruit juice contains substances that may be addictive. B 7. Children ages 4 to 6 years are more likely to eat steamed green beans if they are presented a. as green bean casserole. b. highly seasoned. c. alone as a snack between meals. d. separated from other foods on the plate. D 8. If a child does not like a food when they try it for the first time a. their preference should be respected and they should not be encouraged to try it again. b. they should be offered a reward if they eat a reasonable amount of the food. c. they should be encouraged to eat at least five bites to see if their taste buds adjust. d. they should be offered the food at least 8 to 10 times before deciding whether they like it. D 9. It is important for parents to teach children to a. recognize internal hunger cues. b. recognize external hunger cues. c. eat the same amount of food each day. d. monitor their weight on a regular basis. A 10. The best way for a parent to encourage their toddler to eat a variety of foods is to a. offer rewards for trying new foods. b. make new foods look like favorite foods. c. allow free access to foods at all times. d. eat a variety of foods themselves. D 11. The child most likely to develop type 2 diabetes is the one who a. is obese. b. is malnourished. c. has multiple food allergies. d. lives in a low-income household. A 12. The National School Lunch Program provides a. free lunches for all schoolchildren. b. reduced-price lunches for all schoolchildren. c. lunches only for children from low-income families. d. lunches at varying costs depending on family income. D 13. An example of a breakfast that would meet the School Breakfast Program requirements would be a. scrambled egg, bacon, toast, and orange juice. b. cold breakfast cereal with milk, toast with honey. c. toast with peanut butter, banana, and milk. d. turkey sausage, hash browns, ketchup, and milk. C 14. To promote good eating habits in adolescents, adults should a. discuss the reasons for good food choices with adolescents. b. design daily menus and provide only the specific foods on the menu. c. create guidelines for dietary patterns and provide appropriate food choices. d. model good food behaviors and allow adolescents to make their own choices. C 15. Adolescent boys generally require more protein than adolescent girls because a. boys become taller than girls during adolescence. b. lean body mass increases more in boys than in girls during adolescence. c. hormonal differences allow adolescent girls to use protein more efficiently than adolescent boys. d. foods high in protein are also high in minerals, and boys have higher mineral needs than girls during adolescence. B 16. It is especially important to make sure that teenage girls obtain adequate calcium because a. calcium is lost from the body during menstruation. b. adolescent girls require more calcium than adolescent boys. c. lactose intolerance is especially common in adolescent girls. d. adolescent girls often have inadequate intakes of calcium-rich foods. D 17. The best way to reduce the risk of asphyxiation (choking) in toddlers is to make sure that they a. drink plenty of fluids with meals. b. avoid conversation during meals. c. sit down while eating and chew foods well. d. eat using utensils rather than with their fingers. C 18. Lead poisoning may be diagnosed at the same time as a. food allergies. b. anorexia nervosa. c. iron deficiency anemia. d. vitamin D and calcium deficiencies. C 19. Children become overweight because of a. sedentary lifestyles. b. excessive portion sizes. c. consumption of high-fat foods. d. a combination of several factors. D 20. Interventions for obese children should focus on a. gradual weight loss. b. low-fat food choices. c. healthy lifestyle behaviors. d. increased physical activity. C 21. An example of a child who is at high risk for iron-deficiency anemia is one a. who has allergies to milk and nuts. b. living in an African American low-income family. c. whose parents both work full time. d. who eats most of their food away from home. B 22. In children, the most common food allergens include a. wheat, barley, oats, and milk. b. peanuts, milk, eggs, and wheat. c. fish, shellfish, tree nuts, and peanuts. d. eggs, strawberries, oranges, and tree nuts. B 23. The most serious, potentially life-threatening reaction to a food allergen is a. dermatitis. b. anaphylaxis. c. syncope (fainting). d. gastrointestinal bleeding. B 24. A true food allergy involves the system. a. immune b. digestive c. respiratory d. cardiovascular A 25. Food allergies are treated by a. use of antihistamine medications. b. avoiding all sources of the offending food. c. taking supplemental digestive enzymes to break down the offending protein. d. gradual desensitization to the offending protein under medical supervision. B 26. A food that includes "sodium caseinate" and "lactalbumin" in the list of ingredients should be avoided by individuals with a(n) allergy. a. egg b. milk c. wheat d. peanut B 27. Eating disorders are generally caused by a. unresolved emotional conflicts. b. a desire to achieve a healthy weight. c. dietary restrictions imposed by families. d. a desire to achieve a high level of fitness. A 28. If a parent often finds empty food wrapper's in their teenage daughter's bedroom, if she spends several minutes in the bathroom right after every meal, and if she exercises for more than an hour every day, the parent may suspect a. bulimia nervosa. b. anorexia nervosa. c. binge-eating disorder. d. chronic dieting syndrome. A 29. For individuals with binge eating disorder, episodes of binge eating may be triggered by a. stressful events. b. nutrient deficiencies. c. periods of relaxation. d. unintended weight loss. A 30. An important part of nutrition intervention for clients with eating disorders includes a. eating all foods with other people present. b. separating food behaviors from emotional issues. c. limiting exercise to no more than 30 minutes daily. d. keeping a record of food and exercise habits. B