In Abruptio Placenta, the placenta ____________ from the uterine wall ____________. Correct
Answer: Separates, prematurely
Abruptio Placenta usually occurs in (prima/multi) gravida over the age of ____________.
Correct Answer: Multigravida, 35 (HTN, trauma, cocaine)
How is the bleeding of Abruptio Placenta different from that in Placenta Previa? Correct
Answer: Usually painful; bleeding is more voluminous in placenta previa
If you are the nurse starting the IV on the client with Abruptia Placenta, what guage needle
should you use? Correct Answer: 18 (in preparation to give blood if necessary)
How often should you measure the VS, vaginal bleeding, fetal HR during Abruptio Placenta?
Correct Answer: Q5-15 minutes for bleeding, maternal VS and continuous fetal monitoring
Deliver baby at earliest sign of fetal distress
How is an infant delivered when Abruptio Placenta is present? Correct Answer: Usually C-
section
Is there a higher or lower incidence of fetal death with Abruptio Placenta compared to Placenta
Previa? Correct Answer: Higher
In what trimester does Abruptio Placenta most commonly occur? Correct Answer: Third
At what age are accidental poisonings most common? Correct Answer: 2 years old
If a child swallows a potentially poisonous substance, what should be done first? Correct
Answer: Call for medical help
Should vomiting be induced after ingestion of gasoline? Correct Answer: No- not for gas or any
other petroleum products
When taking a child to the ER after accidental poisoning has occurred what must accompany the
child to the ER? Correct Answer: the suspected poison
An elderly client is a (high/low) risk for accidental poisoning? What about a school age child?
Correct Answer: high - due to poor eyesight, high
What types of chemicals cause burns to oral mucosa when ingested? Correct Answer: Lye,
caustic cleaners
,Children at highest risk for seizure activity after ingestion are those who have swallowed
_____________ and ______________. Correct Answer: drugs, insecticides
Can impaired skin integrity ever be an appropriate nursing diagnosis when poisoning has
occurred? Correct Answer: Yes, when lye or caustic agents have been ingested
What is the causative organism of acne? Correct Answer: P. acnes (propionibacterium acnes)
What structures are involved in acne vulgaris? Correct Answer: The sebaceous glands
Name 3 drugs given for acne? Correct Answer: Vitamin A, Antibiotics, Retinoids
Dietary indiscretions and uncleanliness are causes of acne? Correct Answer: False
What are the 3 causative factors in acne vulgaris? Correct Answer: Hereditary, Bacterial,
Hormonal
Uncleanliness is a cause of acne? Correct Answer: False
What is the most common retinoid given to people with acne? Correct Answer: Accutane
Accutane is an analog of which vitamin? Correct Answer: Vitamin A
What is the most common side effect of accutane? And what is most important in health teaching
in adminstration? Correct Answer: Inflammation of the lips; Causes birth defects
What is the antibiotic most commonly given to clients with acne? Correct Answer: Tetracycline
How long will it take for the person to see results when acne is being treated? Correct Answer: 4
to 6 weeks
Does stress make acne worse? Correct Answer: yes
How often should the client with acne wash his face each day? Correct Answer: Twice a day
What instructions do you give to a client taking tetracycline? Correct Answer: Take it on an
empty stomach and avoid the sunlight (photosensitivity)
What are comedones? Correct Answer: Blackheads and white heads
What virus causes AIDS? Correct Answer: HIV - Human immunodeficiency virus
The AIDS virus invades helper ____________. Correct Answer: T-lymphocytes (or CD4 cells)
AIDS is transmissible through what four routes? Correct Answer: blood
sexual contact
,breast feeding
across placenta in utero
HIV is present in all body fluids? Correct Answer: Yes, but it is not transmitted by all, only
blood, semen and breast milk
Name the 5 risk groups for AIDS Correct Answer: Homosexual/bisexual men
IV drug users
Hemophiliacs
Heterosexual partners of infected people
Newborn children of infected women
What is the first test for HIV antibodies? Correct Answer: ELISA
What test confirms the ELISA? Correct Answer: Western Blot
Which test is the best indicator of the PROGRESS of HIV disease? Correct Answer: CD4 count
A CD4 count of under __________ is associated with the onset of AIDS-related symptoms.
Correct Answer: 500
A CD4 count of under _______ is associated with the onset of OPPORTUNISTIC
INFECTIONS. Correct Answer: 200
Give 6 symptoms of HIV disease. Correct Answer: anorexia
fatigue
weakness
diarrhea
night sweats
fever
Which 2 classes of drugs are given in combination for HIV sero-positivity? Correct Answer:
NRTI's (Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptease Inhibitors) and PI's (Protease Inhibitors)
They prevent viral replication.
NRTI (nucleoside reverse transcriptease inhibitors) Correct Answer: An antiviral drug used
against HIV
Is incorporated into the DNA of the virus and stops the building process
Results in incomplete DNA that cannot create a new virus
Often used in combination with other drugs
PI's (Protease inhibitors) Correct Answer: Most potent of antiviral meds
, Inhibit cell protein synthesis that interferes with viral replication. Does not cure but slows
progression of AIDS. Prolongs life, used prophylactically and used in AIDS to decrease viral
load and opportunistic infections.
What do NRTI's and PI's do? Correct Answer: They prevent viral replication.
What does the physician hope to achieve with NRTI's and PI's for HIV? Correct Answer: A
delayed onset of AIDS for as long as possible (usually can delay onset for 10-15 years)
What is the most common NRTI used? Correct Answer: AZT (zidovudine)
What is the most challenging aspect of combination of drug therapy for HIV disease? Correct
Answer: The number of pills that must be taken in 24 hours can be overwhelming. The
frequency also makes it hard to remember-an alarm wristwatch is used.
Clients with AIDS (gain/lose) weight? Correct Answer: Lose weight
The typical pneumonia of AIDS is caused by ___________ ____________. Correct Answer:
Pneumocystic carinii
What type of oral/esophageal infections do AIDS patients get? Correct Answer: Candida
What is the #1 cancer that AIDS patients get? Correct Answer: Kaposi's sarcoma
Kaposi's sarcoma is a cancer of the ___________. Correct Answer: skin
T/F: AIDS patients get lymphomas? Correct Answer: True
What lab findings are present in AIDS? Correct Answer: Decreased RBC's, WBC's and platelets
If the AIDS patient HAS leukopenia they will be on _____________ ________________.
Correct Answer: Protective (reverse) Isolation
Define Leukopenia Correct Answer: Decrease in WBC, indicated viral infection
Without leukopenia the AIDS patient will be on ____________ precautions. Correct Answer:
Standard precautions or blood and body fluid precautions
When the AIDS patient has a low platelet count, what is indicated? Correct Answer: Bleeding
precautions; No IM's, no rectal temperatures, other bleeding precautions
Does AIDS require a single room? Correct Answer: Yes - if WBC counts are low
When do you need a gown with AIDS? Correct Answer: If you are going to get contaminated
with secretions