NUR2092 Health Assessment Final Exam

NUR2092 Health Assessment Final Exam NUR2092 Health Assessment Final Exam Activity of Daily Living Correct Answer: Tasks that are necessary for self-care, such as eating/feeding, bathing, grooming, toileting, walking, and transferring. Advanced Activities of Daily Living Correct Answer: Activities that an older adult performs as a family member or as a member of society or community, including occupational and recreational activities. Caregiver Assessment Correct Answer: Assessment of the health and well-being of an individual's caregiver. Caregiver Burden Correct Answer: The perceived strain by the person who cares for an older, chronically ill, or disabled person. Domains of Cognition Correct Answer: Domains included in mental status assessments, such as attention, memory, orientation, language, visuospatial skills, and higher cognitive functions. Environment Correct Answer: Assessment of an indovodual's home environment and community systems, including hazards at home. Functional Ability Correct Answer: The ability of a person to perform activities necessary to live in modern society; may include driving, using the telephone, or performing personal tasks such as baking or toileting. Functional Assessment Correct Answer: A systematic assessment that includes assessment of an individual's activities of daily living, instrumental activities of daily living, and mobility. Functional Status Correct Answer: A person's actual performance of activities and tasks associated with current life roles. Geriatric Assessment Correct Answer: Multidimensional assessment; physical examination and assessments of mental status, functional status, social and economical status, pain, and physical environment safety. Home Care Correct Answer: Supportive services provided in the home: skilled nursing care, primary care, therapy (physical, occupational, speech), social work, nutrition, case management, ADL assistance, durable medical equipment. Instrumental Activities of Daily Living Correct Answer: Functional abilities necessary for independent community living, such as, shopping, meal preparation, housekeeping, laundry, managing finances, taking medications, and using transportation. Katz Index of Independence in Activities of Daily Living Correct Answer: An instrument used to measure physical function in older adults and the chronically ill. Lawton Instrumental Activities of Daily Living Correct Answer: An instrument used to measure an individual's ability to perform instrumental activities of daily living; may assist in assessing one's ability to live independently. Physical Performance Measures Correct Answer: Tests that measure balance, gait, motor coordination, and endurance. Social Domain Correct Answer: The domain that focuses on an individual's relationships within family, social groups, and the community. Social Networks Correct Answer: Informal supports accessed by older adults, such as family members and close friends, neighbors, church societies, neighborhood groups, and senior centers. Spiritual Assessment Correct Answer: Assessment of the individual's spiritual health. An appropriate tool to assess an individual's instrumental activities of daily living is a tool by: Correct Answer: a. Katz b. Lawton *CORRECT ANSWER* c. Tinetti d. Norbeck Which statement is true regarding an individual's functional status? Correct Answer: a. Functional status refers to one's ability to care for another person. b. An older adult's functional status is usually static over time. c. An older adult's functional status may vary from independence to disability. *CORRECT ANSWER* d. Dementia is an example of functional status. An older person is experiencing an acute change in cognition. You recognize that this disorder is? Correct Answer: a. Alzheimer dementia b. Attention deficit disorder c. Depression d. Delirium *CORRECT ANSWER* Assessment of the social domain includes: Correct Answer: a. Family relationships *CORRECT ANSWER* b. Ability to cook meals c. Ability to balance the checkbook and pay bills d. Hazards found in the home You will use which technique when assessing an older individual who has cognitive impairment? Correct Answer: a. Ask open-ended questions b. Complete the entire assessment in one session c. Ask the family members for information instead of the older individual d. Ask simple questions that have yes or no answers. *CORRECT ANSWER* An older person needs to be assessed before going home as to whether he or she is able to go outside alone safely. Which test is best for this assessment? Correct Answer: a. Up and go test *CORRECT ANSWER* b. Performance of activities of daily living c. Older americans resources and services multidimensional functional assessment questionnaire d. Lawton IADL Instrument An older adult has had surgery for a fractured hip and has a history of dementia. You should keep in mind that older adults with cognitive impairment: Correct Answer: a. Experience less pain b. can provide a self-report of pain *CORRECT ANSWER8 c. Cannot be relied on to self-report pain d. Will not express pain sensations. An appropriate use of the caregiver strain index would be which situation? Correct Answer: a. A daughter who is taking her older father home to live with her b. An older patient who lives alone c. A wife who has cared for her husband for the past 4 years at home *CORRECT ANSWER* d. A son whose parents live in an assisted living facility Which is an example of a formal social support network for the aging adult? Correct Answer: a. A neighbor who drops by with newspapers and magazines on a regular basis b. An area church that offers a weekly activity an luncheon for seniors in the neighborhood c. A home health care agency that provides weekly blood pressure screenings at the church luncheon *CORRECT ANSWER* d. A senior citizen chess club whose members hold classes at the local boys club When completing a spiritual assessment you should? Correct Answer: a. Use yes and no questions as the foundation for future dialogue b. Use open-ended questions to help the patient understand potential coping mechanisms *CORRECT ANSWER* c. Try to complete this assessment as soon as possible after meeting the patient d. Wait until a member of the clergy can be involved in the assessment When you perform a functional assessment of an older patient, which is most appropriate? Correct Answer: a. Observe the patient's ability to perform the tasks *CORRECT ANSWER* b. Ask the patient's wife or husband how he or she does when performing tasks c. Review the medical record for information on the patient's abilities d. Ask the pastient's physician for information on the patient's ability The Lawton IADL instrument is described by which of the following? Correct Answer: a. The nurse uses direct observation to implement this tool b. It is designed as a self-report measure of performance rather than ability *CORRECT ANSWER* c. It is not useful in the acute hospital setting d. It is best used for those residing in an institutional setting An older adult's advanced activities of daily living would include: Correct Answer: a. Recreational activities *CORRECT ANSWER* b. Meal Preparation c. Balancing the checkbook d. Self-grooming activities When using the various instruments to assess an older person's activities of daily living, remember that a disadvantage of these instruments includes: Correct Answer: a. The reliability of the tools b. Self or proxy report of functional activities *CORRECT ANSWER* c. Lack of confidentiality during the assessment d. Insufficient detail about the deficiencies identified Acculturation Correct Answer: Process of social and psychological exchanges with encounters between persons of different cultures, resulting in changes in either group. Cultural and Linguistic Competence Correct Answer: A set of congruent behaviors, attitudes and policies that come together in a system among professionals that enables work in cross-cultural situations. Culture Correct Answer: The nonphysical attributes of a person-the thoughts, communications, actions, beliefs, values, and institutions of racial, ethnic, religious, or social groups. Cultural Care Correct Answer: Professional health care that is culturally sensitive, appropriate, and competent. Ethnicity Correct Answer: A social group within the social system that claims to possess variable traits such as common geographic origin, migratory status, and religion. Ethnocentrism Correct Answer: Tendency to view your own life as the most desirable, acceptable, or best and to act superior to another culture's way of life. Folk Healer Correct Answer: Lay healer in the person's culture apart from the biomedical or scientific health care system Health or Illness Correct Answer: the balance or imbalance of the person, both within one's being (physical, mental, and/or spiritual) and in the outside world (natural, communal, and/or metaphysical) Religion Correct Answer: The belief in a divine subhuman power or powers to be obeyed and worshiped as the creator and ruler of the universe and a system of beliefs, practices, and ethical values Socialization Correct Answer: The process of being raised within a culture and acquiring the characteristics of that group Spirituality Correct Answer: A person's personal effort to find purpose and meaning in life Title VI of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 Correct Answer: A federal law that mandates that when people with limited English proficiency (LEP) seek health care settings such as hospitals, nursing homes, clinics, daycare centers, and mental health centers, services cannot be denied to them Values Correct Answer: A desirable or undesirable state of affairs and a universal feature of all cultures Which statement best describes religion? Correct Answer: a. an organized system of beliefs concerning the cause, nature, and purpose of the universe *CORRECT ANSWER* b. Belief in a divine or superhuman to be obeyed and worshiped c. Affiliation with one of the 1200 recognized religions in the United states d. The following of established rituals, especially in conjunction with health seeking behaviors The major factor contributing to the need for cultural care nursing is? Correct Answer: a. an increasing birth rate b. limited access to health care services c. demographic change *CORRECT ANSWER* d. a decreasing rate of immigration The term culturally competent implies that the nurse: Correct Answer: a. is prepared in nursing b. possesses knowledge of the traditions of diverse peoples c. applies underlying knowledge to providing nursing care d. understands the cultural context of the patient's situation *CORRECT ANSWER* You are the triage nurse in the emergency department and perform the initial intake assessment on a patient who does not speak English. Based on your understanding of linguistic competence, which action would present as a barrier to effective communication? Correct Answer: a. maintaining a professional respectful demeanor b. allowing for additional time to complete the process c. providing the patient with a paper and pencil so he or she can write down the questions that you are going to ask *CORRECT ANSWER* d. seeing if there are any family members present who may assist with the interview process Which culture would describe illness as hot and cold imbalance? Correct Answer: a. Asian-American heritage b. African-American heritage c. Hispanic-American heritage *CORRECT ANSWER* d. American Indian heritage Of what does the patient believe the amulet is protective? Correct Answer: a. the evil eye *CORRECT ANSWER* b. being kidnapped c. exposure to bacterial infections d. an unexpected fall Which statement best illustrates the difference between religion and spirituality? Correct Answer: a. religion reflects an individual's reaction to life events whereas spirituality is based on whether the individual attends religious services b. religion is characterized by identification of a higher being shaping one's destiny while spirituality reflects the individual's perception of one's life having worth or meaning *CORRECT ANSWER* c. Religion is the expression of spiritual awakening whereas spirituality is based on belief in divine right d. religion is the active interpretation of one's spirituality The first step to cultural competency by a nurse is to: Correct Answer: understand your own heritage and its basis in cultural values Which statement is true in regard to pain? Correct Answer: The cultural background of the patient is important in a nurses's assessment of that patient's pain. Which factor is identified as a priority influence on a patient's health status? Correct Answer: Poverty Which statement is most appropriate to use when initiating an assessment of cultural beliefs with an older American Indian patient? Correct Answer: What cultural or spiritual beliefs are important to you. Which statement best describes ethnocentrism? Correct Answer: The tendency to view your own way of life as the most desirable. Which category is appropriate in a cultural assessment? Correct Answer: Health-related beliefs Which health belief practice is associated with patients who are of American Indian heritage? Correct Answer: Eating compatible foods in one's diet. Which statement best reflects the Magicoreligious causation of illness? Correct Answer: Belief in the struggle between good and evil is reflected in the regulation of health and illness. Auscultatory gap Correct Answer: A brief period when Korotkoff sounds disappear during auscultation of blood pressure; common with hypertension. Bradycardia Correct Answer: Heart rate fewer than 50 or 60 beats per minute in the adult (depending on agency). Sphygmomanometer Correct Answer: Instrument for measuring arterial blood pressure. Stroke Volume Correct Answer: Amount of blood pumped out of the heart with each heartbeat. Trachycardia Correct Answer: Heart rate greater than 95 beats per minute in the adult. The 4 areas to consider during the general survey include: Correct Answer: Physical appearance, body structure, mobility, and behavior. You are assessing a patient's gait. What do you expect to find? Correct Answer: Gait is as wide as the shoulder width. An 18-month old child is brought into the clinic for a health screening visit. To assess the height of the child: Correct Answer: Use a horizontal measuring board. Which changes in head circumference measurements in relation to chest measurements will occur from infancy through early childhood? Correct Answer: The newborn's head will be 2 cm larger than the chest circumference, but between 6 months and 2 years, they will be about the same. Which changes regarding height and weight occur during the 80's and 90's? Correct Answer: Both decrease. During an initial home visit, the patient's temperature is noted to be 97.4 degrees F. How would you interpret this? Correct Answer: It cannot be evaluated without knowledge of the person's age. Select the best description of an accurate assessment of a patient's pulse: Correct Answer: Begin counting with zero; count for 30 seconds. After assessing the patient's pulse, the practitioner determines it to be normal. This would be recorded: Correct Answer: 2+ Select the best description of an accurate assessment of a patient's respiration: Correct Answer: Count for 30 seconds after pulse assessment. Pulse pressure is described as? Correct Answer: The difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure. The examiner suspects a patient has coarctation of the aorta. Which assessment finding supports this suspicion? Correct Answer: The pressure is lower than in the arm. Mean arterial pressure is: Correct Answer: Diastolic pressure plus one third of the pulse pressure. Why is it important to match the appropriate size of blood pressure cuff to the person's arm and shape and not to the person's age? Correct Answer: Using a cuff that is too narrow will give a false reading. A patient is being seen in the clinic for complaints of fainting episodes that started last week. How should you proceed with the examination? Correct Answer: Record the blood pressure in the lying, sitting, and standing positions. The nurse is conduction a health fair for older adults. Which statement is true regarding vital sign measurements in aging adults? Correct Answer: An increased respiratory rate and a shallower inspiratory phase are possible findings. Android Obesity Correct Answer: Excess body fat that is placed predominantly within the abdomen and upper body, as opposed to the hips and thighs. Anthropometry Correct Answer: Measurement of the body (height, weight, circumferences, skin fold thickness). Body Mass Index BMI Correct Answer: Weight in kilograms divided by height in meters squared; value of 30 or more is indicative of obesity; value less that 18.5 is indicative of under nutrition. Diet History Correct Answer: A detailed record if dietary intake obtainable from 24 hour recalls, food frequency questionnaires, food diaries, and similar sources. Kwashiorkor Correct Answer: Primarily a protein deficiency characterized by edema, growth failure, and muscle wasting. Malnutrition Correct Answer: May mean any nutrition disorder but usually refers to long term nutritional inadequacies or excesses. Marasmic Kwashiorkor Correct Answer: Combination of chronic energy deficit and chronic or acute protein deficiency. Marasmus Correct Answer: Results from energy and protein deficiency, manifesting with significant loss of body weight, skeletal muscle, and adipose tissue mass, but with serum protein concentrations relatively intact. Nutritional Monitoring Correct Answer: Assessment of dietary or nutritional status at intermittent times with the aim of detecting changes in the dietary or nutritional status of a population. Nutrition Screening Correct Answer: a process used to identify individuals at nutritional risk or with nutritional problems. Obesity Correct Answer: Excessive accumulation of body fat; usually defined as 20% above desirable weight or body mass index of 30.0-39.9 Protein Calorie Malnutrition (PCM) Correct Answer: Inadequate consumption of protein and energy, resulting in gradual body wasting and increased susceptibility to infection. Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) Correct Answer: Levels of intake of essential nutrients considered to be adequate to meet the nutritional needs of almost all healthy persons. Sarcopenic Obesity Correct Answer: Combined loss of muscle mass with weight gain occurring in old age. Skinfold Thickness Correct Answer: Double fold of skin and underlying subcutaneoustissue that is measured with skinfold calipers at various body sites. Waist-to-hip Ratio (WHR) Correct Answer: Waist or abdominal circumference divided by the hip or gluteal circumference; method for assessing fat distribution. The balance between nutrition intake and nutrient requirements is described as: Correct Answer: Nutritional Status You are providing health promotion teaching for a newly pregnant woman, and recommend which of the following weight gain parameters for a healthy pregnancy? Correct Answer: The recommendation depends on the BMI of the mother at the start of the pregnancy. Which is a normal expected change with aging? Correct Answer: Decrease in height. You obtain which data when screening patients for nutritional status? Correct Answer: Weight and nutrition intake history. A 24-hour recall of dietary intake is used: Correct Answer: As a questionnaire or interview of everything eaten within the last 24 hours. Mary, a 15 year old, has come for a school physical. During the interview, you learn that menarche has not occurred. The BMI is 17.1. You suspect: Correct Answer: Nutritional deficiency Which older adult is at lowest risk for alteration in nutritional status? Correct Answer: 65 year old widower who visits a senior center with a meal program 5 days per week. The examiner is completing an initial assessment for a patient admitted to a long-term care facility. The patient is unable to stand for a measurement of height. To obtain this important anthropometric information, the examiner would? Correct Answer: Measure arm span. Which assessment finding indicates a patient at nutrition risk? Correct Answer: BMI = 19kg/m(2) Marasmus is often characterized by: Correct Answer: Low weight for height Which BMI category in adults is indicative of obesity? Correct Answer: 30.0-39.9 kg/m(2) Why should you ask about the use of medications when assessing a patient's nutritional status? Correct Answer: Many drugs can interact with nutrients and impair their digestion, absorption, metabolism, or uptake. Alopecia Correct Answer: Baldness; Hair loss. Annular Correct Answer: Circular shape to skin lesion Bulla Correct Answer: Elevated cavity containing free fluid larger than 1cm in diameter. Confluent Correct Answer: Skin lesions that run together. Crust Correct Answer: Thick, dried-out exudate left on skin when vesicles or pustules burst or dry up. Cyanosis Correct Answer: Dusky blue color to skin or mucous membranes as a result of increased amount of non oxygenated hemoglobin. Erosion Correct Answer: Scooped-out shallow depressions of skin. Erythema Correct Answer: Intense redness of the skin due to excess blood in dilated superficial capillaries, as in fever or inflammation. Excoriation Correct Answer: Self-inflicted abrasion on skin due to scratching. Fissure Correct Answer: Linear crack in skin extending into the dermis. Furuncle Correct Answer: Boil; suppurative inflammatory skin lesion due to infected hair follicle. Hemangioma Correct Answer: Skin lesion due to benign proliferation of blood vessels in the dermis. Iris Correct Answer: Target shape of skin lesion. Jaundice Correct Answer: Yellow color to skin, palate, and sclera due to excess bilirubin in the blood. Keloid Correct Answer: Hypertrophic scar, elevated beyond site of the original injury. Lichenification Correct Answer: Tightly packed set of papules that thickens skin; caused by prolonged intense scratching. Lipoma Correct Answer: Benign fatty tumor. Maceration Correct Answer: Softening of the tissue by soaking. Macule Correct Answer: Flat skin lesion with only a color change. Nevus Correct Answer: Mole; circumscribed skin lesion due to excess melanocytes. Pallor Correct Answer: Excessively pale, whitish pink color to lightly pigmented skin. Papule Correct Answer: Palpable skin lesion smaller than 1cm in diameter. Plaque Correct Answer: Skin lesion in which papules coalesce or come together. Pruritus Correct Answer: Itching. Purpura Correct Answer: Red-purple skin lesion due to blood in tissues from breaks in blood vessels. Pustule Correct Answer: Elevated cavity containing thick, turbid fluid. Scale Correct Answer: Compact desiccated flakes of skin from shedding of dead skin cells. Telangiectasia Correct Answer: Skin lesion due to permanently enlarged and dilated blood vessels that are visible. Ulcer Correct Answer: Sloughing of necrotic inflammatory tissue that causes a deep depression in skin, extending into dermis. Vesicle Correct Answer: Elevated cavity containing free fluid up to 1cm in diameter. Wheal Correct Answer: Raised red skin lesion due to interstitial fluid. Zosteriform Correct Answer: Linear shape of skin lesion along a nerve route. Select the best description of the secretion of the eccrine glands. Correct Answer: Dilute saline solution To assess for early jaundice, you will assess? Correct Answer: Sclera and hard palate. Checking for skin temperature is best accomplished by using? Correct Answer: Dorsal surface of hand Assessing a patient's skin turgor is done to assess which clinical finding? Correct Answer: Dehydration You note a lesion during a skin assessment. Which is the best way to document this finding? Correct Answer: Dark brown raised lesion, with irregular border, on dorsum of right foot, 3cm in size, with no drainage. You examine the nail beds of a patient. Which finding indicates a normal angle? Correct Answer: 160 degrees You are assessing capillary refill. The room is warm. Which finding would be considered normal? Correct Answer: 1 second. During a routine visit, M.B, age 78 asks about a small, round, flat, brown macules on the hands. What is your best response after assessing the areas? Correct Answer: These are the result of sun exposure and do not require treatment. An area of thin shiny skin with decreased visibility of normal skin markings is most likely: Correct Answer: Atrophy Flattening of the angle between the nail and bed is: Correct Answer: Described as clubbing A configuration of individual lesions arranged in circles or arcs, as occurs with ringworm, is described as a: Correct Answer: Annular lesion The "A" in the ABCDE rule for skin cancer stands for: Correct Answer: Asymmetry A risk factor for melanoma is? Correct Answer: Skin that freckles or burns before tanning Herpes zoster infection (shingles) is characterized by: Correct Answer: Lesion only on one side of the body; does not cross the midline. Basel cell layer Correct Answer: Epidermis Aids protection by cushioning Correct Answer: Subcutaneous layer Collagen Correct Answer: Dermis Adipose tissue Correct Answer: Subcutaneous tissue Uniformly thin Correct Answer: Epidermis Stratum corneum Correct Answer: Epidermis Elastic tissue Correct Answer: Dermis Absence of red-pink tones from the oxygenated hemoglobin in blood? Correct Answer: Pallor Intense redness of the skin due to excess blood in the dilated superficial capillaries: Correct Answer: Erythema Bluish mottled color that signifies decreased perfusion: Correct Answer: Cyanosis Increase in bilirubin in the blood causing a yellow color in the skin: Correct Answer: Jaundice Tiny, punctate red macules and papules on the cheeks, trunk, chest, back, and buttocks? Correct Answer: Erythema toxicum Lower half of body turns red, upper half blanches? Correct Answer: Harlequin Transient mottling on trunk and extremities? Correct Answer: Cutis marmorata Bluish color around the lips, hands, fingernails, feet, and toenails? Correct Answer: Acrocyanosis Large round or oval patch of light brown usually presented at birth? Correct Answer: Cafe au lait spot Yellowing of skin, sclera, and mucous membranes due to increased numbers of red blood cells hemolyzed after birth? Correct Answer: Physiologic jaundice Yellow-orange color in light skinned persons from large amounts of foods containing carotene? Correct Answer: Carotenemia Abduction Correct Answer: Moving a body part away from an axis or the midline Adduction Correct Answer: Moving a body part toward the center or toward the midline Ankylosis Correct Answer: Immobility, consolidation, and fixation of a joint because of disease, injury, or surgery; most often due to chronic rheumatoid arthritis Ataxia Correct Answer: Inability to perform coordinated movements Bursa Correct Answer: Enclosed sac filled with viscous fluid located in joint areas of potential friction Circumduction Correct Answer: Moving the arm in a circle around the shoulder. Crepitation Correct Answer: Dry crackling sound or sensation due to grating of the ends of damaged bone. Dorsal Correct Answer: Directed toward or located on the surface Dupuytren contracture Correct Answer: Flexion contracture of the fingers due to chronic hyperplasia of the palmar fascia Eversion Correct Answer: Moving the sole of the foot outward at the ankle Extension Correct Answer: Straightening a limb at a joint Flexion Correct Answer: Bending a limb at the joint Ganglion Correct Answer: Round, cystic, nontender nodule overlying a tendon sheath or joint capsule, usually on dorsum of wrist Hallux valgus Correct Answer: Lateral or outward deviation of the great toe Inversion Correct Answer: Moving of the sole of the foot inward at the ankle Kyphosis Correct Answer: Outward or convex curvature of the thoracic spine; hunchback Ligament Correct Answer: Fibrous band running directly from one bone to another bone that strengthens the joint Lordosis Correct Answer: Inward or concave curvature of the lumbar spine Nucleus pulposus Correct Answer: Center of the intervertebral disc Olecranon process Correct Answer: Bony projection of the ulna at the elbow Patella Correct Answer: Kneecap Plantar Correct Answer: Refers to the surface of the sole of the foot Pronation Correct Answer: Turning the forearm so that the palm side is down Protraction Correct Answer: Moving a body part forward and parallel to the ground Range of motion (ROM) Correct Answer: Extent of movement of a joint Retraction Correct Answer: Moving a body part backward and parallel to the ground Rheumatoid arthritis Correct Answer: Chronic systemic inflammatory disease of the joints and surrounding connective tissue Sciatics Correct Answer: Nerve pain along the course of the sciatic nerve that travels down from the back or thigh through the leg and into the foot Scoliosis Correct Answer: S-shaped curvature of the thoracic spine Supination Correct Answer: Turning the forearm so that the palm is up Talipes equinovarus Correct Answer: Congenital deformity of the foot in which it is planter flexed and inverted (clubfoot) Tendon Correct Answer: Strong fibrous cord that attaches a skeletal muscle to a bone Torticollis Correct Answer: Wryneck; contraction of the cervical neck muscles, producing torsion of the neck During the assessment of the spine, the patient would be asked to? Correct Answer: Flex, extend, abduct, and rotate Pronation and supination of the hand and forearm are the result of the articulation of the? Correct Answer: Radius and ulna Anterior and posterior stability are provided to the knee joint by the? Correct Answer: Anterior and posterior cruciate ligaments A 70 year old woman has come for a health examination. Which of the following is a common age related change in the curvature of the spinal column? Correct Answer: Kyphosis Examination of the shoulder includes 4 motions, they are? Correct Answer: Forward flexion, internal rotation, abduction, and external rotation. The bulge sign is a test for? Correct Answer: Swelling in the suprapatellar pouch The examiner measures a patient's legs for length discrepancy, which is a normal finding? Correct Answer: Within 1cm of each other A 2 year old child comes in the clinic for a health examination. A common finding for this age group is? Correct Answer: Lordosis A positive Phalen test and Tinel sign are found in a patient with? Correct Answer: Carpel Tunnel Syndrome When assessing an infant, the examiner completes the Ortolani maneuver by? Correct Answer: Gently lifting and abducting the infant's flexed knees while palpating the greater trochanter with the fingers Hematopoiesis takes place in which of the following? Correct Answer: Bone marrow Fibrous bands running directly from one bone to another that strengthen the joint and help prevent movement in undesirable directions are know as? Correct Answer: Ligaments Bending a limb at a joint Correct Answer: Flexion Straightening a limb or joint Correct Answer: Extension Moving a limb away from the midline of the body Correct Answer: Abduction Moving a limb toward the midline of the body Correct Answer: Adduction Turning the forearm so that the palm is down Correct Answer: Pronation Turning the forearm so that the palm is up Correct Answer: Supination Moving the arm in a circle around the shoulder Correct Answer: Circumduction Moving the sole of the foot inward at the ankle Correct Answer: Inversion Moving the sole of the foot outward at the ankle Correct Answer: Eversion Moving the head around a central axis Correct Answer: Rotation Moving a body part forward and parallel to the ground Correct Answer: Protraction Moving a body part backward and parallel to the ground Correct Answer: Retraction Raising a body part Correct Answer: Elevation Lowering a body part Correct Answer: Depression Alveoli Correct Answer: Functional units of the lung; the thin walled chambers surrounded by networks of capillaries that are the site of respiratory exchange of carbon dioxide and oxygen Angle of Louis Correct Answer: Manubriosternal angle, the articulation of the manubrium of the body of the sternum, continuous with the second rib Apnea Correct Answer: Cessation of breathing Asthma Correct Answer: An abnormal respiratory condition associated with allergic hypersensitivity to certain inhaled allergens, characterized by inflammation, bronchospasm, wheezing and dyspnea Atelectasis Correct Answer: An abnormal respiratory condition characterized by collapsed, shrunken, deflated sections of the alveoli Bradypnea Correct Answer: Slow breathing, fewer than 10 breaths per minute, regular rate Bronchiole Correct Answer: One of the smaller respiratory passageways into which the segmental bronchi divide