NURSING 112 Mother-Baby-final-(1)questions and Answers,100% CORRECT

NURSING 112 Mother-Baby-final-(1)questions and Answers Mother Baby A woman has a thick, white, lumpy, cottage cheese–like discharge, with patches on her labia and in her vagina. She complains of intense pruritus. The nurse practitioner would order which preparation for treatment? a. Fluconazole c. Clindamycin b. Tetracycline d. Acyclovir ANS: A On vaginal examination of a 30-year-old woman, the nurse documents the following findings: profuse, thin, grayish white vaginal discharge with a “fishy” odor; complaint of pruritus. On the basis of these findings, the nurse suspects that this woman has: a. Bacterial vaginosis (BV). c. Trichomoniasis. b. Candidiasis. d. Gonorrhea. ANS: A A patient has been prescribed adjuvant tamoxifen therapy. What common side effect might she experience? a. Nausea, hot flashes, and vaginal bleeding b. Vomiting, weight loss, and hair loss c. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea d. Hot flashes, weight gain, and headaches ANS: A A woman has a breast mass that is not well delineated and is nonpalpable, immobile, and nontender. This is most likely: a. Fibroadenoma. c. Intraductal papilloma. b. Lipoma. d. Mammary duct ectasia. ANS: C The nurse teaches a pregnant woman about the presumptive, probable, and positive signs of pregnancy. The woman demonstrates understanding of the nurse’s instructions if she states that a positive sign of pregnancy is: a. A positive pregnancy test. b. Fetal movement palpated by the nurse-midwife. c. Braxton Hicks contractions. d. Quickening. ANS: B During a client’s physical examination the nurse notes that the lower uterine segment is soft on palpation. The nurse would document this finding as: a. Hegar’s sign c. Chadwick’s sign b. McDonald’s sign d. Goodell’s sign ANS: A A woman is in her seventh month of pregnancy. She has been complaining of nasal congestion and occasional epistaxis. The nurse suspects that: a. This is a normal respiratory change in pregnancy caused by elevated levels of estrogen. b. This is an abnormal cardiovascular change, and the nosebleeds are an ominous sign. c. The woman is a victim of domestic violence and is being hit in the face by her partner. d. The woman has been using cocaine intranasally. ANS: A Risk factors tend to be interrelated and cumulative in their effect. While planning the care for a laboring client with diabetes mellitus, the nurse is aware that she is at a greater risk for: a. Oligohydramnios. c. Postterm pregnancy. b. Polyhydramnios. d. Chromosomal abnormalities. ANS: B Preconception counseling is critical to the outcome of diabetic pregnancies because poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy is associated with: a. Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia. b. Congenital anomalies in the fetus. c. Polyhydramnios. d. Hyperemesis gravidarum. ANS: B Screening at 24 weeks of gestation reveals that a pregnant woman has gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM). In planning her care, the nurse and the woman mutually agree that an expected outcome is to prevent injury to the fetus as a result of GDM. The nurse identifies that the fetus is at greatest risk for: a. Macrosomia. b. Congenital anomalies of the central nervous system. c. Preterm birth. d. Low birth weight. ANS: A You are preparing to teach an antepartum patient with gestational diabetes the correct method of administering an intermediate acting insulin (NPH) with a short acting insulin (regular). In the correct order from 1 through 6, match the step number with the action that you would take to teach the patient self-administration of this combination of insulin. a. Without adding air, withdraw the correct dose of NPH insulin. b. Gently rotate the insulin to mix it, and wipe the stopper. c. Inject air equal to the dose of NPH insulin into the vial, and remove the syringe. d. Inject air equal to the dose of regular insulin into the vial, and withdraw the medication. e. Check the insulin bottles for the expiration date. f. Wash hands. FEBDCA The labor of a pregnant woman with preeclampsia is going to be induced. Before initiating the Pitocin infusion, the nurse reviews the woman’s latest laboratory test findings, which reveal a platelet count of 90,000, an elevated aspartate transaminase (AST) level, and a falling hematocrit. The nurse notifies the physician because the laboratory results are indicative of: a. Eclampsia. b. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). c. HELLP syndrome. d. Idiopathic thrombocytopenia. ANS: C A pregnant woman has been receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion for treatment of severe preeclampsia for 24 hours. On assessment the nurse finds the following vital signs: temperature of 37.3° C, pulse rate of 88 beats/min, respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min, blood pressure (BP) of 148/90 mm Hg, absent deep tendon reflexes, and no ankle clonus. The client complains, “I’m so thirsty and warm.” The nurse: a. Calls for a stat magnesium sulfate level. b. Administers oxygen. c. Discontinues the magnesium sulfate infusion. d. Prepares to administer hydralazine. ANS: C A woman with severe preeclampsia has been receiving magnesium sulfate by intravenous infusion for 8 hours. The nurse assesses the woman and documents the following findings: temperature of 37.1° C, pulse rate of 96 beats/min, respiratory rate of 24 breaths/min, blood pressure (BP) of 155/112 mm Hg, 3+ deep tendon reflexes, and no ankle clonus. The nurse calls the physician, anticipating an order for: a. Hydralazine. c. Diazepam. b. Magnesium sulfate bolus. d. Calcium gluconate. ANS: A A woman at 39 weeks of gestation with a history of preeclampsia is admitted to the labor and birth unit. She suddenly experiences increased contraction frequency of every 1 to 2 minutes; dark red vaginal bleeding; and a tense, painful abdomen. The nurse suspects the onset of: a. Eclamptic seizure. c. Placenta previa. b. Rupture of the uterus. d. Placental abruption. ANS: D The patient that you are caring for has severe preeclampsia and is receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion. You become concerned after assessment when the woman exhibits: a. A sleepy, sedated affect. c. Deep tendon reflexes of 2. b. A respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min. d. Absent ankle clonus. ANS: B Nurses should be aware that HELLP syndrome: a. Is a mild form of preeclampsia. b. Can be diagnosed by a nurse alert to its symptoms. c. Is characterized by hemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets. d. Is associated with preterm labor but not perinatal mortality. ANS: C Magnesium sulfate is given to women with preeclampsia and eclampsia to: a. Improve patellar reflexes and increase respiratory efficiency. b. Shorten the duration of labor. c. Prevent and treat convulsions. d. Prevent a boggy uterus and lessen lochial flow. ANS: C A woman presents to the emergency department with complaints of bleeding and cramping. The initial nursing history is significant for a last menstrual period 6 weeks ago. On sterile speculum examination, the primary care provider finds that the cervix is closed. The anticipated plan of care for this woman would be based on a probable diagnosis of which type of spontaneous abortion? a. Incomplete c. Threatened b. Inevitable d. Septic ANS: C A 26-year-old pregnant woman, gravida 2, para 1-0-0-1 is 28 weeks pregnant when she experiences bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. On her arrival at the hospital, what would be an expected diagnostic procedure? a. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity b. Ultrasound for placental location c. Contraction stress test (CST) d. Internal fetal monitoring ANS: B Which maternal condition always necessitates delivery by cesarean section? a. Partial abruptio placentae c. Ectopic pregnancy b. Total placenta previa d. Eclampsia ANS: B A placenta previa in which the placental edge just reaches the internal os is more commonly known as: a. Total c. Complete b. Partial d. Marginal ANS: D What condition indicates concealed hemorrhage when the patient experiences an abruptio placentae? a. Decrease in abdominal pain c. Hard, boardlike abdomen b. Bradycardia d. Decrease in fundal height ANS: C What finding on a prenatal visit at 10 weeks could suggest a hydatidiform mole? a. Complaint of frequent mild nausea b. Blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg c. Fundal height measurement of 18 cm d. History of bright red spotting for 1 day, weeks ago ANS: C A 32-year-old primigravida is admitted with a diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. Nursing care is based on the knowledge that: a. Bed rest and analgesics are the recommended treatment. b. She will be unable to conceive in the future. c. A D&C will be performed to remove the products of conception. d. Hemorrhage is the major concern. ANS: D The nurse caring for a woman hospitalized for hyperemesis gravidarum should expect that initial treatment to involve: a. Corticosteroids to reduce inflammation. b. IV therapy to correct fluid and electrolyte imbalances. c. An antiemetic, such as pyridoxine, to control nausea and vomiting. d. Enteral nutrition to correct nutritional deficits. ANS: B The reported incidence of ectopic pregnancy in the United States has risen steadily over the past 2 decades. Causes include the increase in STDs accompanied by tubal infection and damage. The popularity of contraceptive devices such as the IUD has also increased the risk for ectopic pregnancy. The nurse who suspects that a patient has early signs of ectopic pregnancy should be observing her for symptoms such as (Select all that apply): a. Pelvic pain b. Abdominal pain c. Unanticipated heavy bleeding d. Vaginal spotting or light bleeding e. Missed period ANS: A, B, D, E A new mother asks the nurse when the “soft spot” on her son’s head will go away. The nurse’s answer is based on the knowledge that the anterior fontanel closes after birth by months. a. 2 c. 12 b. 8 d. 18 ANS: D The nurse has received report regarding her patient in labor. The woman’s last vaginal examination was recorded as 3 cm, 30%, and ?2-2. The nurse’s interpretation of this assessment is that: a. The cervix is effaced 3 cm, it is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. b. The cervix is 3 cm dilated, it is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm above the ischial spines. c. The cervix is effaced 3 cm, it is dilated 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines. d. The cervix is dilated 3 cm, it is effaced 30%, and the presenting part is 2 cm below the ischial spines. ANS: B To care for a laboring woman adequately, the nurse understands that the stage of labor varies the most in length? a. First c. Third b. Second d. Fourth ANS: A The factors that affect the process of labor and birth, known commonly as the five Ps, include all except: a. Passenger. c. Powers. b. Passageway. d. Pressure. ANS: D While providing care to a patient in active labor, the nurse should instruct the woman that: a. The supine position commonly used in the United States increases blood flow. b. The “all fours” position, on her hands and knees, is hard on her back. c. Frequent changes in position will help relieve her fatigue and increase her comfort. d. In a sitting or squatting position, her abdominal muscles will have to work harder. ANS: C In order to care for obstetric patients adequately, the nurse understands that labor contractions facilitate cervical dilation by: a. Contracting the lower uterine segment. b. Enlarging the internal size of the uterus. c. Promoting blood flow to the cervix. d. Pulling the cervix over the fetus and amniotic sac. ANS: D To teach patients about the process of labor adequately, the nurse knows that which event is the best indicator of true labor? a. Bloody show c. Fetal descent into the pelvic inlet b. Cervical dilation and effacement d. Uterine contractions every 7 minutes ANS: B A primigravida at 39 weeks of gestation is observed for 2 hours in the intrapartum unit. The fetal heart rate has been normal. Contractions are 5 to 9 minutes apart, 20 to 30 seconds in duration, and of mild intensity. Cervical dilation is 1 to 2 cm and uneffaced (unchanged from admission). Membranes are intact. The nurse should expect the woman to be: a. Admitted and prepared for a cesarean birth. b. Admitted for extended observation. c. Discharged home with a sedative. d. Discharged home to await the onset of true labor. ANS: D Which nursing assessment indicates that a woman who is in second-stage labor is almost ready to give birth? a. The fetal head is felt at 0 station during vaginal examination. b. Bloody mucus discharge increases. c. The vulva bulges and encircles the fetal head. d. The membranes rupture during a contraction. ANS: C Which factors influence cervical dilation (Select all that apply) ? a. Strong uterine contractions b. The force of the presenting fetal part against the cervix c. The size of the female pelvis d. The pressure applied by the amniotic sac e. Scarring of the cervix ANS: A, B, D, E A laboring woman received an opioid agonist (meperidine) intravenously 90 minutes before she gave birth. Which medication should be available to reduce the postnatal effects of Demerol on the neonate? a. Fentanyl (Sublimaze) c. Naloxone (Narcan) b. Promethazine (Phenergan) d. Nalbuphine (Nubain) ANS: C A woman in labor has just received an epidural block. The most important nursing intervention is to: a. Limit parenteral fluids. b. Monitor the fetus for possible tachycardia. c. Monitor the maternal blood pressure for possible hypotension. d. Monitor the maternal pulse for possible bradycardia. ANS: C A woman is experiencing back labor and complains of intense pain in her lower back. An effective relief measure would be to use: a. Counterpressure against the sacrum. b. Pant-blow (breaths and puffs) breathing techniques. c. Effleurage. d. Conscious relaxation or guided imagery. ANS: A A woman has requested an epidural for her pain. She is 5 cm dilated and 100% effaced. The baby is in a vertex position and is engaged. The nurse increases the woman’s intravenous fluid for a preprocedural bolus. She reviews her laboratory values and notes that the woman’s hemoglobin is 12 g/dL, hematocrit is 38%, platelets are 67,000, and white blood cells (WBCs) are 12,000/mm3. Which factor would contraindicate an epidural for the woman? a. She is too far dilated. c. She has thrombocytopenia. b. She is anemic. d. She is septic. ANS: C With regard to a pregnant woman’s anxiety and pain experience, nurses should be aware that: a. Even mild anxiety must be treated. b. Severe anxiety increases tension, which increases pain, which in turn increases fear and anxiety, and so on. c. Anxiety may increase the perception of pain, but it does not affect the mechanism of labor. d. Women who have had a painful labor will have learned from the experience and have less anxiety the second time because of increased familiarity. ANS: B To assist the woman after delivery of the infant, the nurse knows that the blood patch is used after spinal anesthesia to relieve: a. Hypotension. c. Neonatal respiratory depression. b. Headache. d. Loss of movement. ANS: B What three measures should the nurse implement to provide intrauterine resuscitation? Select the response that best indicates the priority of actions that should be taken. a. Call the provider, reposition the mother, and perform a vaginal examination. b. Reposition the mother, increase intravenous (IV) fluid, and provide oxygen via face mask. c. Administer oxygen to the mother, increase IV fluid, and notify the care provider. d. Perform a vaginal examination, reposition the mother, and provide oxygen via face mask. ANS: B A new client and her partner arrive on the labor, delivery, recovery, and postpartum unit for the birth of their first child. You apply the electronic fetal monitor (EFM) to the woman. Her partner asks you to explain what is printing on the graph, referring to the EFM strip. He wants to know what the baby’s heart rate should be. Your best response is: a. “Don’t worry about that machine; that’s my job.” b. “The top line graphs the baby’s heart rate. Generally the heart rate is between 110 and 160. The heart rate will fluctuate in response to what is happening during labor.” c. “The top line graphs the baby’s heart rate, and the bottom line lets me know how strong the contractions are.” d. “Your doctor will explain all of that later.” ANS: B What is an advantage of external electronic fetal monitoring? a. The ultrasound transducer can accurately measure short-term variability and beat- to-beat changes in the fetal heart rate. b. The tocotransducer can measure and record the frequency, regularity, intensity, and approximate duration of uterine contractions (UCs). c. The tocotransducer is especially valuable for measuring uterine activity during the first stage of labor. d. Once correctly applied by the nurse, the transducer need not be repositioned even when the woman changes positions. ANS: C The nurse caring for the woman in labor should understand that increased variability of the fetal heart rate may be caused by: a. Narcotics. c. Methamphetamines. b. Barbiturates. d. Tranquilizers. ANS: C Which maternal condition is considered a contraindication for the application of internal monitoring devices? a. Unruptured membranes c. External monitors in current use b. Cervix dilated to 4 cm d. Fetus with a known heart defect ANS: A The nurse knows that proper placement of the tocotransducer for electronic fetal monitoring is located: a. Over the uterine fundus. c. Inside the uterus. b. On the fetal scalp. d. Over the mother’s lower abdomen. ANS: A A tiered system of categorizing FHR has been recommended by regulatory agencies. Nurses, midwives, and physicians who care for women in labor must have a working knowledge of fetal monitoring standards and understand the significance of each category. These categories include (Select all that apply): a. Reassuring. b. Category I. c. Category II. d. Nonreassuring. e. Category III. ANS: B, C, E When planning care for a laboring woman whose membranes have ruptured, the nurse recognizes that the woman’s risk for has increased. a. Intrauterine infection c. Precipitous labor b. Hemorrhage d. Supine hypotension ANS: A When assessing a woman in the first stage of labor, the nurse recognizes that the most conclusive sign that uterine contractions are effective would be: a. Dilation of the cervix. c. Rupture of the amniotic membranes. b. Descent of the fetus. d. Increase in bloody show. ANS: A The nurse who performs vaginal examinations to assess a woman’s progress in labor should: a. Perform an examination at least once every hour during the active phase of labor. b. Perform the examination with the woman in the supine position. c. Wear two clean gloves for each examination. d. Discuss the findings with the woman and her partner. ANS: D *WEAR STERILE GLOVES* A multiparous woman has been in labor for 8 hours. Her membranes have just ruptured. The nurse’s initial response would be to: a. Prepare the woman for imminent birth. b. Notify the woman’s primary health care provider. c. Document the characteristics of the fluid. d. Assess the fetal heart rate and pattern. ANS: D A primigravida at 39 weeks of gestation is observed for 2 hours in the intrapartum unit. The fetal heart rate has been normal. Contractions are 5 to 9 minutes apart, 20 to 30 seconds in duration, and of mild intensity. Cervical dilation is 1 to 2 cm and uneffaced (unchanged from admission). Membranes are intact. The nurse should expect the woman to be: a. Admitted and prepared for a cesarean birth. b. Admitted for extended observation. c. Discharged home with a sedative. d. Discharged home to await the onset of true labor. ANS: D Which nursing assessment indicates that a woman who is in second-stage labor is almost ready to give birth? a. The fetal head is felt at 0 station during vaginal examination. b. Bloody mucus discharge increases. c. The vulva bulges and encircles the fetal head. d. The membranes rupture during a contraction. ANS: C At 1 minute after birth, the nurse assesses the newborn to assign an Apgar score. The apical heart rate is 110 bpm, and the infant is crying vigorously with the limbs flexed. The infant’s trunk is pink, but the hands and feet are blue. What is the correct Apgar score for this infant? a. 7 c. 9 b. 8 d. 10 ANS: C The nurse providing care for a woman with preterm labor who is receiving terbutaline would include which intervention to identify side effects of the drug? a. Assessing deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) b. Assessing for chest discomfort and palpitations c. Assessing for bradycardia d. Assessing for hypoglycemia ANS: B In evaluating the effectiveness of magnesium sulfate for the treatment of preterm labor, what finding would alert the nurse to possible side effects? a. Urine output of 160 mL in 4 hours b. Deep tendon reflexes 2+ and no clonus c. Respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min d. Serum magnesium level of 10 mg/dL ANS: D A woman in preterm labor at 30 weeks of gestation receives two 12-mg doses of betamethasone intramuscularly. The purpose of this pharmacologic treatment is to: a. Stimulate fetal surfactant production. b. Reduce maternal and fetal tachycardia associated with ritodrine administration. c. Suppress uterine contractions. d. Maintain adequate maternal respiratory effort and ventilation during magnesium sulfate therapy. ANS: A A woman at 26 weeks of gestation is being assessed to determine whether she is experiencing preterm labor. What finding indicates that preterm labor is occurring? a. Estriol is not found in maternal saliva. b. Irregular, mild uterine contractions are occurring every 12 to 15 minutes. c. Fetal fibronectin is present in vaginal secretions. d. The cervix is effacing and dilated to 2 cm. ANS: D A primigravida at 40 weeks of gestation is having uterine contractions every 1.5 to 2 minutes and says that they are very painful. Her cervix is dilated 2 cm and has not changed in 3 hours. The woman is crying and wants an epidural. What is the likely status of this woman’s labor? a. She is exhibiting hypotonic uterine dysfunction. b. She is experiencing a normal latent stage. c. She is exhibiting hypertonic uterine dysfunction. d. She is experiencing pelvic dystocia. ANS: C In planning for an expected cesarean birth for a woman who has given birth by cesarean previously and who has a fetus in the transverse presentation, which information would the nurse include? a. “Because this is a repeat procedure, you are at the lowest risk for complications.” b. “Even though this is your second cesarean birth, you may wish to review the preoperative and postoperative procedures.” c. “Because this is your second cesarean birth, you will recover faster.” d. “You will not need preoperative teaching because this is your second cesarean birth.” ANS: B A pregnant woman’s amniotic membranes rupture. Prolapsed umbilical cord is suspected. What intervention would be the top priority? a. Placing the woman in the knee-chest position b. Covering the cord in sterile gauze soaked in saline c. Preparing the woman for a cesarean birth d. Starting oxygen by face mask ANS: A Prepidil (prostaglandin gel) has been ordered for a pregnant woman at 43 weeks of gestation. The nurse recognizes that this medication will be administered to: a. Enhance uteroplacental perfusion in an aging placenta. b. Increase amniotic fluid volume. c. Ripen the cervix in preparation for labor induction. d. Stimulate the amniotic membranes to rupture. ANS: C The priority nursing intervention after an amniotomy should be to: a. Assess the color of the amniotic fluid. b. Change the patient’s gown. c. Estimate the amount of amniotic fluid. d. Assess the fetal heart rate. ANS: D Immediately after the forceps-assisted birth of an infant, the nurse should: a. Assess the infant for signs of trauma. b. Give the infant prophylactic antibiotics. c. Apply a cold pack to the infant’s scalp. d. Measure the circumference of the infant’s head. ANS: A A woman gave birth to an infant boy 10 hours ago. Where would the nurse expect to locate this woman’s fundus? a. One centimeter above the umbilicus b. Two centimeters below the umbilicus c. Midway between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis d. Nonpalpable abdominally ANS: A Which hormone remains elevated in the immediate postpartum period of the breastfeeding woman? a. Estrogen c. Prolactin b. Progesterone d. Human placental lactogen ANS: C With regard to the postpartum uterus, nurses should be aware that: a. At the end of the third stage of labor it weighs approximately 500 g. b. After 2 weeks postpartum it should not be palpable abdominally. c. After 2 weeks postpartum it weighs 100 g. d. It returns to its original (prepregnancy) size by 6 weeks postpartum. ANS: B A 25-year-old gravida 2, para 2-0-0-2 gave birth 4 hours ago to a 9-pound, 7-ounce boy after augmentation of labor with Pitocin. She puts on her call light and asks for her nurse right away, stating, “I’m bleeding a lot.” The most likely cause of postpartum hemorrhage in this woman is: a. Retained placental fragments. c. Uterine atony. b. Unrepaired vaginal lacerations. d. Puerperal infection. ANS: C On examining a woman who gave birth 5 hours ago, the nurse finds that the woman has completely saturated a perineal pad within 15 minutes. The nurse’s first action is to: a. Begin an intravenous (IV) infusion of Ringer’s lactate solution. b. Assess the woman’s vital signs. c. Call the woman’s primary health care provider. d. Massage the woman’s fundus. ANS: D A woman gave birth vaginally to a 9-pound, 12-ounce girl yesterday. Her primary health care provider has written orders for perineal ice packs, use of a sitz bath tid, and a stool softener. What information is most closely correlated with these orders? a. The woman is a gravida 2, para 2. b. The woman had a vacuum-assisted birth. c. The woman received epidural anesthesia. d. The woman has an episiotomy. ANS: D A primiparous woman is to be discharged from the hospital tomorrow with her infant girl. Which behavior indicates a need for further intervention by the nurse before the woman can be discharged? a. The woman leaves the infant on her bed while she takes a shower. b. The woman continues to hold and cuddle her infant after she has fed her. c. The woman reads a magazine while her infant sleeps. d. The woman changes her infant’s diaper and then shows the nurse the contents of the diaper. ANS: A Excessive blood loss after childbirth can have several causes; the most common is: a. Vaginal or vulvar hematomas. b. Unrepaired lacerations of the vagina or cervix. c. Failure of the uterine muscle to contract firmly. d. Retained placental fragments. ANS: C As relates to rubella and Rh issues, nurses should be aware that: a. Breastfeeding mothers cannot be vaccinated with the live attenuated rubella virus. b. Women should be warned that the rubella vaccination is teratogenic, and that they must avoid pregnancy for 1 month after vaccination. c. Rh immune globulin is safely administered intravenously because it cannot harm a nursing infant. d. Rh immune globulin boosts the immune system and thereby enhances the effectiveness of vaccinations. ANS: B Discharge instruction, or teaching the woman what she needs to know to care for herself and her newborn, officially begins: a. At the time of admission to the nurse’s unit. b. When the infant is presented to the mother at birth. c. During the first visit with the physician in the unit. d. When the take-home information packet is given to the couple. ANS: A A recently delivered mother and her baby are at the clinic for a 6-week postpartum checkup. The nurse should be concerned that psychosocial outcomes are not being met if the woman: a. Discusses her labor and birth experience excessively. b. Believes that her baby is more attractive and clever than any others. c. Has not given the baby a name. d. Has a partner or family members who react very positively about the baby. ANS: C Rho immune globulin will be ordered postpartum if which situation occurs? a. Mother Rh?2-, baby Rh+ c. Mother Rh+, baby Rh+ b. Mother Rh?2-, baby Rh?2- d. Mother Rh+, baby Rh?2- ANS: A Which nursing action is most appropriate to correct a boggy uterus that is displaced above and to the right of the umbilicus? a. Notify the physician of an impending hemorrhage. b. Assess the blood pressure and pulse. c. Evaluate the lochia. d. Assist the patient in emptying her bladder. ANS: D When caring for a newly delivered woman, the nurse is aware that the best measure to prevent abdominal distention after a cesarean birth is: a. Rectal suppositories. b. Early and frequent ambulation. c. Tightening and relaxing abdominal muscles. d. Carbonated beverages. ANS: B The perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postbirth period. Assessment reveals that the woman is experiencing profuse bleeding. The most likely etiology for the bleeding is: a. Uterine atony. c. Vaginal hematoma. b. Uterine inversion. d. Vaginal laceration. ANS: A The perinatal nurse caring for the postpartum woman understands that late postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) is most likely caused by: a. Subinvolution of the placental site. c. Cervical lacerations. b. Defective vascularity of the decidua. d. Coagulation disorders. ANS: A One of the first symptoms of puerperal infection to assess for in the postpartum woman is: a. Fatigue continuing for longer than 1 week. b. Pain with voiding. c. Profuse vaginal bleeding with ambulation. d. Temperature of 38° C (100.4° F) or higher on 2 successive days starting 24 hours after birth. ANS: D Early postpartum hemorrhage is defined as a blood loss greater than: a. 500 mL in the first 24 hours after vaginal delivery. b. 750 mL in the first 24 hours after vaginal delivery. c. 1000 mL in the first 48 hours after cesarean delivery. d. 1500 mL in the first 48 hours after cesarean delivery. ANS: A A woman delivered a 9-lb, 10-oz baby 1 hour ago. When you arrive to perform her 15-minute assessment, she tells you that she “feels all wet underneath.” You discover that both pads are completely saturated and that she is lying in a 6-inch-diameter puddle of blood. What is your first action? a. Call for help. c. Take her blood pressure. b. Assess the fundus for firmness. d. Check the perineum for lacerations. ANS: B A steady trickle of bright red blood from the vagina in the presence of a firm fundus suggests: a. Uterine atony. c. Perineal hematoma. b. Lacerations of the genital tract. d. Infection of the uterus. ANS: B Which instructions should be included in the discharge teaching plan to assist the patient in recognizing early signs of complications? a. Palpate the fundus daily to ensure that it is soft. b. Notify the physician of any increase in the amount of lochia or a return to bright red bleeding. c. Report any decrease in the amount of brownish red lochia. d. The passage of clots as large as an orange can be expected. ANS: B If nonsurgical treatment for late postpartum hemorrhage is ineffective, which surgical procedure is appropriate to correct the cause of this condition? a. Hysterectomy c. Laparotomy b. Laparoscopy d. D&C ANS: D A mother with mastitis is concerned about breastfeeding while she has an active infection. The nurse should explain that: a. The infant is protected from infection by immunoglobulins in the breast milk. b. The infant is not susceptible to the organisms that cause mastitis. c. The organisms that cause mastitis are not passed to the milk. d. The organisms will be inactivated by gastric acid. ANS: C Medications used to manage postpartum hemorrhage (PPH) include (Select all that apply): a. Pitocin. d. Hemabate. b. Methergine. e. Magnesium sulfate. c. Terbutaline. ANS: A, B, D A newborn is placed under a radiant heat warmer, and the nurse evaluates the infant’s body temperature every hour. Maintaining the newborn’s body temperature is important for preventing: a. Respiratory depression. c. Tachycardia. b. Cold stress. d. Vasoconstriction. ANS: B While examining a newborn, the nurse notes uneven skin folds on the buttocks and a click when performing the Ortolani maneuver. The nurse recognizes these findings as a sign that the newborn probably has: a. Polydactyly. c. Hip dysplasia. b. Clubfoot. d. Webbing ANS: C While evaluating the reflexes of a newborn, the nurse notes that with a loud noise the newborn symmetrically abducts and extends his arms, his fingers fan out and form a “C” with the thumb and forefinger, and he has a slight tremor. The nurse would document this finding as a positive: a. Tonic neck reflex. c. Babinski reflex. b. Glabellar (Myerson) reflex. d. Moro reflex. ANS: D A client is warm and asks for a fan in her room for her comfort. The nurse enters the room to assess the mother and her infant and finds the infant unwrapped in his crib with the fan blowing over him on “high.” The nurse instructs the mother that the fan should not be directed toward the newborn and the newborn should be wrapped in a blanket. The mother asks why. The nurse’s best response is: a. “Your baby may lose heat by convection, which means that he will lose heat from his body to the cooler ambient air. You should keep him wrapped and prevent cool air from blowing on him.” b. “Your baby may lose heat by conduction, which means that he will lose heat from his body to the cooler ambient air. You should keep him wrapped and prevent cool air from blowing on him.” c. “Your baby may lose heat by evaporation, which means that he will lose heat from his body to the cooler ambient air. You should keep him wrapped and prevent cool air from blowing on him.” d. “Your baby will get cold stressed easily and needs to be bundled up at all times.” ANS: A A first-time father is changing the diaper of his 1-day-old daughter. He asks the nurse, “What is this black, sticky stuff in her diaper?” The nurse’s best response is: a. “That’s meconium, which is your baby’s first stool. It’s normal.” b. “That’s transitional stool.” c. “That means your baby is bleeding internally.” d. “Oh, don’t worry about that. It’s okay.” ANS: A Which statement describing physiologic jaundice is incorrect? a. Neonatal jaundice is common, but kernicterus is rare. b. The appearance of jaundice during the first 24 hours or beyond day 7 indicates a pathologic process. c. Because jaundice may not appear before discharge, parents need instruction on how to assess it and when to call for medical help. d. Breastfed babies have a lower incidence of jaundice. ANS: D The cheeselike, whitish substance that fuses with the epidermis and serves as a protective coating is called: a. Vernix caseosa. c. Caput succedaneum. b. Surfactant. d. Acrocyanosis. ANS: A An examiner who discovers unequal movement or uneven gluteal skin folds during the Ortolani maneuver would then: a. Tell the parents that one leg may be longer than the other, but they will equal out by the time the infant is walking. b. Alert the physician that the infant has a dislocated hip. c. Inform the parents and physician that molding has not taken place. d. Suggest that, if the condition does not change, surgery to correct vision problems may be needed. ANS: B A first-time dad is concerned that his 3-day-old daughter’s skin looks “yellow.” In the nurse’s explanation of physiologic jaundice, what fact should be included? a. Physiologic jaundice occurs during the first 24 hours of life. b. Physiologic jaundice is caused by blood incompatibilities between the mother and infant blood types. c. The bilirubin levels of physiologic jaundice peak between the second and fourth days of life. d. This condition is also known as “breast milk jaundice.” ANS: C While assessing the newborn, the nurse should be aware that the average expected apical pulse range of a full-term, quiet, alert newborn is: a. 80 to 100 beats/min. c. 120 to 160 beats/min. b. 100 to 120 beats/min. d. 150 to 180 beats/min. ANS: C In administering vitamin K to the infant shortly after birth, the nurse understands that vitamin K is: a. Important in the production of red blood cells. b. Necessary in the production of platelets. c. Not initially synthesized because of a sterile bowel at birth. d. Responsible for the breakdown of bilirubin and prevention of jaundice. ANS: C Infants in whom cephalhematomas develop are at increased risk for: a. Infection. c. Caput succedaneum. b. Jaundice. d. Erythema toxicum. ANS: B What are modes of heat loss in the newborn (Select all that apply)? a. Perspiration b. Convection c. Radiation d. Conduction e. Urination ANS: B, C, D An infant boy was born just a few minutes ago. The nurse is conducting the initial assessment. Part of the assessment includes the Apgar score. The Apgar assessment is performed: a. Only if the newborn is in obvious distress. b. Once by the obstetrician, just after the birth. c. At least twice, 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth. d. Every 15 minutes during the newborn’s first hour after birth. ANS: C A new father wants to know what medication was put into his infant’s eyes and why it is needed. The nurse explains to the father that the purpose of the Ilotycin ophthalmic ointment is to: a. Destroy an infectious exudate caused by Staphylococcus that could make the infant blind. b. Prevent gonorrheal and chlamydial infection of the infant’s eyes potentially acquired from the birth canal. c. Prevent potentially harmful exudate from invading the tear ducts of the infant’s eyes, leading to dry eyes. d. Prevent the infant’s eyelids from sticking together and help the infant see. ANS: B The nurse is using the Ballard scale to determine the gestational age of a newborn. Which assessment finding is consistent with a gestational age of 40 weeks? a. Flexed posture b. Abundant lanugo c. Smooth, pink skin with visible veins d. Faint red marks on the soles of the feet ANS: A The nurse administers vitamin K to the newborn for which reason? a. Most mothers have a diet deficient in vitamin K, which results in the infant’s being deficient. b. Vitamin K prevents the synthesis of prothrombin in the liver and must be given by injection. c. Bacteria that synthesize vitamin K are not present in the newborn’s intestinal tract. d. The supply of vitamin K is inadequate for at least 3 to 4 months, and the newborn must be supplemented. ANS: C A 4-month-old infant has gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) but is thriving without other complications. What should the nurse suggest to minimize reflux? a. Place in Trendelenburg position after eating. b. Thicken formula with rice cereal. c. Give continuous nasogastric tube feedings. d. Give larger, less frequent feedings. ANS: B *DIABETES CHAPTER 46* new book, skin 47 Folic acid 0.4 to prevent neural tube defects NEW EDITION/OUR COPY Chapter 2 Reproductive What is the total number of chromosomes contained in a mature sperm or ovum? a. 22 b. 23 c. 44 d. 46 ANS: B A pregnant woman states, “My husband hopes I will give him a boy because we have three girls.” What will the nurse explain to this woman? a. The sex chromosome of the fertilized ovum determines the gender of the child. b. When the sperm and ovum are united, there is a 75% chance the child will be a girl. c. When the pH of the female reproductive tract is acidic, the child will be a girl. d. If a sperm carrying a Y chromosome fertilizes an ovum, then a boy is produced. ANS: D What is the most common site for fertilization? a. Lower segment of the uterus b. Outer third of the fallopian tube near the ovary c. Upper portion of the uterus d. Area of the fallopian tube farthest from the ovary ANS: B The nurse is reviewing fetal circulation with a pregnant patient and explains that blood circulates through the placenta to the fetus. What vessel(s) carry blood to the fetus? a. One umbilical vein b. Two umbilical veins c. One umbilical artery d. Two umbilical arteries ANS: A What organ does the ductus venosus shunt blood away from in fetal circulation? a. Liver b. Heart c. Lungs d. Kidneys ANS: A A woman missed her menstrual period 1 week ago and has come to the doctor’s office for a pregnancy test. Which placental hormone is measured in pregnancy tests? a. Progesterone b. Estrogen c. Human chorionic gonadotropin d. Human placental lactogen ANS: C The nurse is educating a class of expectant parents about fetal development. What is considered fetal age of viability? a. 14 weeks b. 20 weeks c. 25 weeks d. 30 weeks ANS: B Of what is the normal umbilical cord comprised? a. 1 artery carrying blood to the fetus and 1 vein carrying blood away from the fetus b. 1 artery carrying blood to the fetus and 2 veins carrying blood away from the fetus c. 2 arteries carrying blood away from the fetus and 1 vein carrying blood to the fetus d. 2 arteries carrying blood to the fetus and 2 veins carrying blood away from the fetus ANS: C Organize the developmental stages in the correct order. Put a comma and space between each answer choice (a, b, c, d, etc.) a. Fetus b. Zygote c. Embryo d. Blastocyst e. Morula ANS: B, E, D, C, A *LOOK AT CH 3* A woman who is 7 weeks pregnant tells the nurse that this is not her first pregnancy. She has a 2-year- old son and had one previous spontaneous abortion. How would the nurse document the patient’s obstetric history using the TPALM system? a. Gravida 2, para 20120 b. Gravida 3, para 10011 c. Gravida 3, para 10110 d. Gravida 2, para 11110 ANS: C A woman’s prepregnant weight is determined to be average for her height. What will the nurse advise the woman regarding recommended weight gain during pregnancy? a. 10 to 20 pounds b. 15 to 25 pounds c. 25 to 35 pounds d. 28 to 40 pounds ANS: C The nurse encourages adequate intake of folic acid for women of childbearing age before and during pregnancy. What is folic acid thought to decrease the incidence of in fetal development? a. Structural heart defects b. Craniofacial deformities c. Limb deformities d. Neural tube defects ANS: D A woman tells the nurse that she is quite sure she is pregnant. The nurse recognizes which as a positive sign of pregnancy? a. Amenorrhea b. Uterine enlargement c. HCG detected in the urine d. Fetal heartbeat ANS: D What does the nurse note when measuring the frequency of a laboring woman’s contractions? a. How long the patient states the contractions last b. The time between the end of one contraction and the beginning of the next c. The time between the beginning and the end of one contraction d. The time between the beginning of one contraction and the beginning of the next ANS: D It is determined that the presenting part of the fetus is the buttocks. At delivery the fetus’s hips are flexed and the knees are extended. How would the nurse record this presentation? a. Complete breech b. Frank breech c. Double footling d. Buttocks presentation ANS: B What marks the end of the third stage of labor? a. Full cervical dilation b. Expulsion of the placenta and membranes c. Birth of the infant d. Engagement of the head ANS: B While caring for a laboring woman, the nurse notices a pattern of variable decelerations in fetal heart rate with uterine contractions. What is the nurse’s initial action? a. Stop the oxytocin infusion. b. Increase the intravenous flow rate. c. Reposition the woman on her side. d. Start oxygen via nasal cannula. ANS: C A pregnant woman, gravida 2, para 1, tells the nurse she desires a VBAC (vaginal birth after cesarean section) with this pregnancy. What is the primary concern regarding complications for this patient during labor and birth? a. Eclampsia b. Placental abruption c. Congestive heart failure d. Uterine rupture ANS: D A nurse instructs a woman’s labor coach to comfort her by firmly pressing on her lower back. What is this technique? a. Sacral pressure b. Distraction c. Effleurage d. Conscious relaxation ANS: A When caring for the laboring patient, the nurse determines that the fetus is located in the right occiput posterior (ROA). What will the nurse anticipate? a. Urinary retention b. Severe lower back pain c. A shorter labor process d. Nausea ANS: B *LOOK AT CH 8 9 10 32 (I CAN’T REMEMBER THOSE) NEW EDITION* 13 and 14 for the FINAL After a prolonged labor, a woman vaginally delivered a 10 pound, 3 ounce infant boy. What complication should the nurse be alert for in the immediate postpartum period? a. Cervical laceration b. Hematoma c. Endometritis d. Retained placental fragments ANS: B A woman diagnosed with endometriosis reports “painful intercourse.” What is the appropriate medical term for the nurse to document when describing this symptom? a. Dyspnea b. Dysmenorrhea c. Dyspareunia d. Dysrhythmia ANS: C The nurse is educating a woman diagnosed with Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder (PMDD). What is the best type of diet for the nurse to recommend? a. High protein, low fat b. High carbohydrate, high fiber c. Low calorie, low fat d. Low carbohydrate, high protein ANS: B The nurse instructs a woman taking oral contraceptives to report which possible side effects? (Select all that apply.) a. Abdominal pain b. Weight gain c. Headache d. Eye or visual problems e. Speech disturbances ANS: A, C, D, E A 21-year-old college student has come to see the nurse practitioner for treatment of a vaginal infection. Physical assessment reveals inflammation of the vagina and vulva, and vaginal discharge has a cottage cheese appearance. With what are these findings consistent? a. Candidiasis b. Trichomoniasis c. Bacterial vaginosis d. Chlamydia ANS: A Which statement made by the nurse would teach an adolescent using tampons how to prevent toxic shock syndrome (TSS)? a. Super-absorbency tampons are effective for overnight absorption. b. Tampons should be changed at least every 4 hours. c. Gloves should be worn when changing tampons. d. TSS can be prevented by using a pad for the first 2 days of menstrual flow. ANS: B While inspecting a newborn’s head, the nurse identifies a swelling of the scalp that does not cross the suture line. How would the nurse refer to this finding when documenting? a. Molding b. Caput succedaneum c. Cephalohematoma d. Enlarged fontanelle ANS: C What is the nurse’s best response to a mother who is voicing concern about the molding of her 2-day- old infant? a. “Molding doesn’t cause any problems. Don’t worry about it.” b. “Did you deliver vaginally or by cesarean section?” c. “The baby’s head conformed to the shape of the birth canal. It will go away soon.” d. “A traumatic delivery can cause molding.” ANS: C What symptom assessed in the newborn shortly after delivery should be reported? a. Cyanosis of the hands and feet b. Irregular heart rate c. Mucus draining from the nose d. Sternal or chest retractions ANS: D When the newborn’s crib was moved suddenly, the nurse noticed that his legs flexed and arms fanned out, and then both came back toward the midline. How would the nurse interpret this behavior? a. The Moro reflex b. The grasp reflex c. An abnormality of the musculoskeletal system d. A neurological abnormality ANS: A A full-term newborn weighs 3600 grams at birth. What would the nurse expect the newborn to weigh in grams 3 days later? a. 2900 b. 3100 c. 3300 d. 3800 ANS: C The parents of a newborn girl express concern about the infant’s vaginal discharge, which appears to be bloody mucus. What does the nurse explain as the cause? a. Premature stimulation of the ovarian hormones by the pituitary system b. Cessation of female sex hormones transferred in utero from mother to infant c. The increased amount of circulating blood from the mother throughout pregnancy d. Trauma to the genitalia during the birth process ANS: B The nurse is going to use a bulb syringe to clear mucus from a newborn’s nose and mouth. What is the nurse’s first action? a. Place the tip in the nose and squeeze the bulb gently. b. Suction secretions from the nose before the mouth. c. Depress the bulb before inserting the syringe tip into the mouth. d. Insert the tip into the back of the mouth to reach mucus. ANS: C The nurse is caring for an infant born at 43 weeks. What would the physical assessment reveal? a. Dry, peeling skin b. Minimal hair on the head c. Short, rough nails d. Abundant lanugo on the body ANS: A