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100 MCQ Microbiology for Nursing

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100 MCQ Microbiology for Nursing

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100 MCQ/ Microbiology for Nursing (2)
Q1) Regarding hepatitis A viral infection:
a) It can be prevented by an inactivated vaccine.
b) Liver enzymes are usually decreased.
c) Diagnosis is routinely done by isolating the virus in cell culture.
d) It usually causes a chronic form of hepatitis that ends in liver cirrhosis
e) It is commonly acquired through contact with blood from an infected
person
Q2) The hepatitis virus which is acquired faeco-orally and causes a
high mortality rate in pregnant women is:
a) Hepatitis A virus
b) Hepatitis B virus
c) Hepatitis C virus
d) Hepatitis D virus
e) Hepatitis E virus
Q3) The marker that is closely associated with HBV infectivity is:
a) HBsAg
b) HBeAg
c) Anti-HBs
d) Anti-HBe
e) Anti-HBC
Q4) A patient with HBV infection tested positive for HBsAg, negative
for ant HBsAbs, positive for anti-HBcAbs of IgG type and negative
for antiHBcAbs of IgM type. The diagnosis of this patient is most
probably:
a) Acute HBV infection
b) Immune state following vaccination
c) Immune state following natural infection
d) Window phase
e) Chronic HBV infection
Q5) All of the following statements about HCV are correct EXCEPT:
a) HCV-infected patients are predisposed to hepatocellular carcinoma
b) HCV is an important cause of post-transfusion hepatitis.
c) An inactivated vaccine prevents the disease in exposed individuals
d) Diagnosis is made by detecting anti-HCV antibodies by ELISA.
e) Alpha interferon + ribavirin (antiviral chemotherapy) are used in
treatment.

,Q6) Which statement regarding HIV is TRUE?
a) Macrophages can act as reservoir for HIV
b) Highly active antiretroviral therapy is very effective in eradicating HIV
infection
c) Neonates born to infected mothers should be tested serologically to
establish HIV infection
d) Before entry into a susceptible cell HIV is called provirus
e) HIV is a non-enveloped virus
Q7) Which of the following is a receptor tor the gp 120 envelope
protein of HIV?
a) CD3
b) CD4
c) CD8
d) CD28
e) CD40
Q8) During the acute retroviral syndrome:

a) CD4 T cell count falls below 200 mm3
b) Patients become vulnerable to opportunistic infection
c) HIV infected patients suffer an acute flu-like illness.
d) Patients suffer infections of the lung.
e) Patients develop cancers such as Kaposi's sarcoma




Q9) Diagnosis of HIV infection usually starts with one of the
following tests:
a) ELISA for detection of antibody
b) Western blot
c) Virus isolation
d) PCR to detect proviral DNA in infected cells
e) RT PCR to measure amount of HIV RNA in plasma
Q10) Paramyxovirus that causes the syndrome known as croup is:
a) Adenovirus
b) Influenza virus
c) Measles virus
d) Parainfluenza virus

, e) Respiratory syncytial virus
Q11) Year-old child presents at the physician's office with symptoms
of cough, coryza, conjunctivitis, low-grade fever, and Koplik's spots.
The causative agent of this disease belongs to which group of
viruses?
a) Adenovirus
b) Herpesvirus
c) Picornavirus
d) Orthomyxovirus
e) Paramyxovirus
Q12) Which one of the following best characterizes the vaccine for
measles?
a) Toxoid
b) Inactivated virus vaccine
c) Killed virus vaccine
d) Live attenuated virus vaccine
e) Recombinant viral vaccine




Q13) Rubella infection can be prevented by
a) A heat inactivated (killed) vaccine
b) A formalin inactivated toxoid
c) A recombinant vaccine
d) A split vaccine
e) A living attenuated vaccine
Q14) RNA tumor viruses include:
a) Hepatitis B virus
b) Adenoviruses
c) Hepatitis C virus
d) Poxyviruses
e) Human papillomavirus
Q15) All the following are DNA tumor viruses EXCEPT:
a) Adenoviruses
b) Human papillomavirus
c) Hepatitis B virus
d) Hepatitis A virus

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