ANATOMY A/P Review Question and Answers,100% CORRECT

ANATOMY A/P Review Question and Answers Morphine is a narcotic with a high potential for physical and psychological dependency. Under which classification does the drug fall? ANS: II 1. Which statement is true about over the counter drugs? ANS: They are sold without a prescription 2. The nurse is administering Lomotil, a Schedule drug V drug. Which statement is true about this drugs classification? ANS: Abuse potential for this drug is low 3. The nurse planning pt teaching regarding drug names would include which statements? (select all) ANS: 1. The official name is the name under which the drug is listed by the US food and drug administration FDA 2. brand names are easier to pronounce, spell, and, remember 3. the first letter of the generic name is not capitalized 4. The nurse assess hives in a pt started on a new medication. What is the nurses priority action? ANS: notify physician of allergic reaction 5. The nurse administers an initial dose if a steroid to a pt with asthma. Thirty mins after administration, the nurse finds the pt agitated and stating that everyone is out to get me. What is the term for this unusual reaction? ANS: Idiosyncratic reaction 6. Which is the best description of when drug interactions occur? ANS: on the alteration of the effect of one drug by another drug 7. What do drug blood levels indicate? ANS: they determine if the amount of drug in the body is in a therapeutic range 8. The nurse assesses which blood level to determine the amount of circulation medication in a pt? ANS: drug 9. The nurse administers 50mg of a drug at 6am that has a half-life of 8 hours. What time will it be when 25mg of the drug has been eliminated from the body? ANS: 1400 10. What will the nurse need to determine first in order to mix two drugs in the same syringe? ANS: compatibility of the drugs 11. When obtaining a pts health history, which assessment data would the nurse identify as having the most effect on drug metabolism? ANS: history of liver disease 12. A physician's order indicates to administer a medication to the pt via the percutaneous route. The nurse can anticipate that the pt will receive this medication: ANS: topically 13. Which are routes of drug excretion? (select all) ANS: 1. GI tract; feces 2. GU tract; urine 3. respiratory system; exhalation 14. Which routes enables drug absorption more rapidly than the subcutaneous route? (select all) ANS: 1. IV route 2. IM route 3. inhalation/sublingual 15. Which life threating illness may occur as a result of aspirin administration during viral illness to pts younger than 20 years of age? ANS: Reye’s syndrome 16. What type of antibiotic is best for an infant? ANS: liquid 17. What is the primary purpose of the nursing assessment? ANS: exploring patient's responses to health problems 18. Which represents the psychomotor domain of learning? ANS: the patient draws up insulin in a syringe 19. What should a nurse ask about when taking the functional assessment of a patient with a skin disorder? ANS: Exposure to chemicals or irritants 20. What is an advantage of administering a drug parenterally? ANS: The onset of action is more rapid. 21. Which information provided by the nurse is most important to include when teaching a patient about the use of an EpiPen? ANS: Monitor the expiration date of this medication. 22. Which type of parenteral medication container is made of glass, is scored, and needs to be broken open before withdrawing the medication? ANS: ampule 23. Which parenteral route has the longest absorption time? ANS: intradermal 24. Which parenteral route has the shortest absorption time? ANS: intramuscularly 25. Which gauge needles are used for subcutaneous injections? ANS: 25 to 29 gauge 26. Which direction does the nurse give to a patient who has just used a steroid inhaler? ANS: "Rinse your mouth with water." 27. For which patient is oral medication most contraindicated? ANS: A patient with an impaired swallow reflex 28. An adult patient is to receive two medications IM. Which action by the nurse is most important in order to mix the medications in one syringe? ANS: Determine the compatibility of the medications. 29. When administering medication to a 15-month-old child, which principle about intramuscular (IM) injection technique does the nurse keep in mind? ANS: The maximum volume that can be injected in one site is 1 mL 30. A school nurse starts a clean-up campaign at a local elementary school in an effort to combat allergens. What is the most common allergic response disorder? ANS: Asthma 31. A nurse is discussing the body's first and second lines of defense against infection with a community group. What does the body's first line of defense include? ANS: sweat 32. A nurse is seeing a 20-year-old female patient for a case of severe acne, and she mentions that she is taking a prescribed tetracycline antibiotic. Which statement indicates that the patient is in need of more education? ANS: "My boyfriend and I don't usually use protection when having sex." 33. The nurse is working at a diabetes clinic. A patient asks about the production of insulin. What is the nurse's best response? ANS: Insulin is produced by beta cells in the pancreas. 34. A patient is taught site rotation for insulin injections to prevent which condition? ANS: Lipoatrophy 35. A patient with metastatic cancer is being admitted for pain control. Which action will the nurse perform in administering a transdermal patch? ANS: Label the patch with date, time, dosage, and initials after patch placement 36. A nurse is administering heparin, subcutaneous twice daily, to a patient in cardiogenic shock. What is the expected action of this drug? ANS: Anticoagulant to prevent blood clots 37. Which medication is contraindicated when a patient is taking warfarin (Coumadin)? ANS: ibuprofen 38. Which action will the nurse take when a patient receiving morphine sulfate via percutaneous coronary angioplasty (PCA) has a shallow, irregular respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min? ANS: Notify the health care provider and prepare to administer naloxone (Narcan). 39. Which patient assessment would indicate to the nurse that salicylate toxicity is occurring? ANS: Tinnitus 40. Which action will the nurse take when it is determined that the narcotic count is incorrect while obtaining a medication from the narcotic area? ANS: Report the discrepancy to the charge nurse immediately 41. What is required by medical asepsis that is not required by surgical asepsis? ANS: Good hand washing technique 42. A nurse is providing education to a patient taking rifampin as a result of an exposure to TB. What side effect of this drug should the nurse include? ANS: body fluids become red- orange 43. What is usually associated with hyperchloremia? ANS: Metabolic acidosis 44. A nurse recognizes that a patient diagnosed with COPD has a rising level of partial pressure of carbon dioxide (CO2) in arterial blood (PaCO2). How should the nurse interpret this assessment? ANS: Respiratory acidosis has begun. 45. What should treatment focus on when a patient is hypovolemic? ANS: Extracellular fluid deficit and encouraging fluid intake 46. A nurse clarifies that electrolytes, such as sodium and potassium (K+), break down into smaller particles when dissolved. What are these smaller particles? ANS: Ions 47. A patient has been admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNS). The blood glucose level is very high (880 mg/dL) on admission. The physician believes that the condition is the result of large amounts of glucose solutions administered intravenously (IV) during renal dialysis. What should the nurse anticipate that the patient would exhibit? ANS: Severe dehydration and hypernatremia 48. S/S for DKA ANS: hyperkalemia 49. Which acid-base disturbance should the nurse anticipate with the intermediate or progressive stage of shock? ANS: Metabolic acidosis 50. A patient is taking meperidine (Demerol) as needed for moderate to severe pain following an open appendectomy. The nurse assesses the following: current pain level 2, temperature 99 F, BP 130/76, respirations 10, lung sounds clear, abdomen soft and tender, bowel sounds present. Based on this assessment information, the priority nursing diagnosis is: ANS: altered breathing pattern. 51. What should a nurse assessing a patient in the progressive stage of shock expect to find? ANS: Thready pulse and deep respirations with decreased blood pressure 52. What should a nurse expect of a patients respirations caused by the falling blood pressure and impaired blood circulation during the refractory stage of shock? ANS: Slow and shallow 53. While shopping in the mall, a nurse sees a lady suddenly fall to the floor. On immediate assessment, the nurse realizes she is not in cardiac arrest and has no need for cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). What should be the immediate actions by the nurse? ANS: Call for help and check the pulse, respiration, and mental status. 54. A patient has been admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of DKA. What vital signs should a nurse anticipate that the patient will exhibit? ANS; Temperature, 97.4 F; pulse, 110 beats/min; respirations, 26 breaths/min and deep 55. A patient is frequently thirsty what should the nurse attribute this symptom? ANS: Too much sodium and too little water in the body 56. When a patient with sciatica seats himself in a chair, he gasps and complains of a burning and shooting pain in his hip. What type of pain does this represent? ANS: Neuropathic 57. what is the correct action for a minor burn? ANS: Immerse part in cold water 58. A nurse is caring for an adult patient with extensive burns on the front of the trunk, including the genitalia, and the fronts of both legs. How should the nurse document the burn size using the rule of nines? ANS: 37% 59. Burn of front of arm and legs ANS: 27% 60. After receiving an injection of penicillin, a patient undergoes an anaphylactic reaction. What should the nurse do first? ANS: Administer oxygen 61. What is the goal of palliative surgery? ANS: Relieve symptoms or improve function without correcting the basic problem. 62. Two days after surgery for a crushed pelvis, a certified nursing assistant (CNA) reports that the patient is complaining of shortness of breath and is demonstrating signs of confusion and restlessness. What should a nurse suspect, from these signs alone, that the patient has developed? ANS: Anxiety. 63. Which technique should a nurse implement when changing a postoperative dressing? ANS: Aseptic technique 64. What should a nurse ensure that a postoperative patient implement to best prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)? ANS: Ambulate Frequently 65. What should a nurse suggest to a patient to prevent the effects of postoperative immobility on the gastrointestinal system? ANS: Increase fluid intake 66. Nurses highest priority post op? ANS: monitor for changes in vital signs. 67. What is the greatest danger in the early postoperative period after an amputation? ANS: Hemorrhage. 68. One complication of spinal anesthesia is ANS: Post spinal headache 69. Which assessment is of the greatest concern to a nurse when caring for a patient just admitted with a pelvic fracture? ANS: No urinary output for 8 hours. 70. A patient with a fractured pelvis says that she will not ambulate because of pain. What should a nurse inform the patient can be prevented with early ambulation? ANS: DVT. 71. What indicates compartment syndrome on a person with a cast? ANS: decreased capillary refill 72. A nurse assesses ischemic spots around the nail beds of a patient with rheumatoid arthritis and recognizes that these are a complication of medical diagnosis, rheumatoid arthritis, related to . ANS: Vasculitis. 73. Most common joint to get osteoarthritis in? ANS: Knees 74. Which common adverse effect(s) is/are associated with opiate agonists? (select all) ANS: Dizziness, Orthostatic hypotension, Respiratory depression, Confusion 75. For which patient is oral medication most contraindicated? ANS: A patient with an impaired swallow reflex 76. A nurse explains that although some drugs reduce inflammation, they also hinder the body's immune response. What are examples of such drugs? ANS: Bronchodilators and corticosteroids 77. Which action will the nurse take when a patient receiving morphine sulfate via percutaneous coronary angioplasty (PCA) has a shallow, irregular respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min? ANS: Notify the health care provider and prepare to administer naloxone (Narcan). 78. One complication of spinal anesthesia is ANS: Post spinal headache 79. A patient is frequently thirsty what should the nurse attribute this symptom? ANS: Too much sodium and too little water in the body 80. A large, heavy, and older adult patient has a stroke and develops an infected decubitus ulcer on the sacrum during the hospital stay. Approximately 2 weeks after the patient has gone home, the patient returns to the hospital with pneumonia. What is the distinction between these two infections? ANS: The decubitus ulcer is termed a health careassociated infection, and pneumonia is termed a community-acquired infection. 81. Which patient assessment finding(s) suggest(s) extravasation of an IV solution? (Select all that apply.) ANS: a. Coolness b. Edema d. Pain at venipuncture site e. Redness at the site 82. Which observation by a nurse indicates that a solution has been injected intradermally and not subcutaneously? ANS: A small bleb appears on the surface of the skin as the injection is given. 83. A nurse is teaching a patient how to use a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) unit and how it works. What is the most appropriate information for the nurse to relay? ANS: This unit stimulates both the skin and the underlying tissues to decrease the intensity of the pain. 84. Which is a basic safety measure related to medication administration? ANS: Never leave a medication on a bedside table for the patient to take later 85. A health care provider has prescribed both heat and cold treatments for an older adult patient with a leg injury. The nursing care plan reflects secondary diagnoses of peripheral vascular disease (PVD), diabetes, and an allergy to latex. Which of the prescribed treatments should the nurse administer and why? ANS: The nurse will use heat treatment because cold is contraindicated for patients with PVD 86. When differentiating between delirium and dementia in a pt, what would a pt with dementia exhibit? ANS: Flat affect 87. Pt is confused and the onset is fast and suddenly they become flaring, hypermania lasted for a week ANS: Delirium 88. You are giving blood to a patient and they start to have terrible chills. What should be the first course of action? ANS: Stop IV and notify provider immediately 89. Pt with COPD shortness of breath on ambulation what is the best action? ANS: Clump all interactions close together 90. NTK the signs and symptoms of HYPOGLYCEMIA??? Teach the client measures to take in response to manifestations of hypoglycemia ANS: mild shakiness, mental confusion, sweating, Palpitations, headache, lack of coordination, blurred vision, seizures and coma 91. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is characterized as a combination of which conditions? ANS: Asthma, chronic bronchitis, and emphysema 92. The usual pattern of breathing in a pt with COPD?? ANS: Wheezing 93. NTK a serious adverse reaction of digoxin? ANS: Hypokalemia *if the pt has K+ =3.0 - hold the medication and notify the provider K=3.5 - 5.0 94. What lab needs to be monitored when a patient takes lasix (diuretic)? ANS: K+ (Hypokalemia) is a big risk for lasix 95. How would you describe to a patient or instruct a pt to do isometric exercise? ANS: Isometric contraction is isometric exercise causes an increase in muscle tension or muscle work but no shortening or active movement of the muscle 96. True or False: Is a pneumothorax a medical emergency? ANS: TRUE *Because it affects the cardiovascular and respiratory system compromising ABC's 97. You are dealing with a patient with psoriasis what would you see with that patient on their skin? ANS: BRIGHT RED LESIONS covered by Silvery scaly flakey skin 98. As part of your education for a group of pts regarding skin cancer, what should they avoid? ANS: Sun exposure pt should use SPF 15 before going out in the sun 99. During the inflammatory process when the body responds to an injury or infection the capillary beds dilate and this is responsible for what kind of response? ANS: Red and warm ( RUBOR and CALOR) 100. What is the nursing priority for a pt who is immunocompromised? ANS: Protect them from infection or illness 101. What kind of diagnostic test do you think we would use to diagnose a fungal infection of the skin and the nails? ANS: KOH - Potassium hydroxide microscopic test 102. What does impetigo look like? For which infections skin disorder should the nurse plan care? ANS: The nurse notes that a pt has a honey colored crust over a thin - walled vesicle. -IMPETIGO 103. NTK educational tips for a pt who is going home with Warfarin/Coumadin? ANS: Shaving with an electric razor 104. What is tinnitus? ANS: Ringing in the ears 105. Contact precaution illnesses? (easy to spread) ANS: -Wound infection (SPREAD BY CONTACT) -Impetigo (SPREAD BY CONTACT) -Viral Conjunctiva (SPREAD BY CONTACT) -C-DIFF -KIDNEY INFECTION -RESPIRATORY INFECTION 106. NTK HHNS (Hyperglycemic - Hyperosmolar Nonketotic Syndrome) what signs would they exhibit above 800? ANS: severe dehydration and hypernatremia caused by hyperglycemia Polyuria and polydipsia 107. NTK what an adverse effect from the prescription of Captopril is? ANS: Hypotension Pregnancy: Fatal/Neonatal harm/ Birth Defect Hypersensitivity: Facial swelling Neutropenia, Hyperkalemia, Nephrotoxicity 108. What lab measures would indicate a pt is in DKA? ANS: PH less than 7.3 or a bicarbonate level of less than 15 mEq/L 109. NTK a potential life threatening complication that can happen who is taking Metformin for type 2 diabetes ANS: Lactic Acidosis 110. Patient has erythema around the sacrum area due to immobility. What is the nurse's first priority? ANS: Action - Reposition the patient 112: What intervention is most appropriate to prevent respiratory complications resulting from immobility? What should you do to the patient? What is the immobilized patient at risk for? ANS: Pneumonia - Ask the patient to COUGH, DEEP BREATHE, REPOSITION at least every 2 hours 113. What intervention is most appropriate to prevent respiratory complications resulting from immobility? ANS: Reposition the patient, and encourage him or her to cough and deep breathe at least every 2 hours. 114. What causes constipation in patients who have pressure injuries? (SATA) ANS: -Immobility, Dehydration, Poor diet -I'm never constipated. I take gentle laxatives every night. 115. Walking older patients to the bathroom and they feel lightheaded, dizzy, and faint. What would the nurse understand these symptoms are of? ANS: -Vasovagal reflex or Vasovagal syncope caused by straining to have a bowel movement. -Lightheadedness and fainting during defecation