BIO 669 Cardiac Questions and Answers Latest Updated 2022,100% CORRECT

BIO 669 Cardiac Questions and Answers Latest Updated 2022 1. Which of the following conditions is the most immediately at risk for serious complications? a. Unstable angina b. Prinzmetal angina c. STEMI d. NSTEMI 2. Thromboangitis obliterans (Buergers Disease) is an autoimmune condition that is: a. A result of over activation of the intrinsic and extrinsic clotting system systemically b. Characterized by attacks of vasospasm in the small arteries and arterioles of the finger and toes c. Strongly associated with smoking d. Associated with Janeway Lesions and Oslers Nodes 3. Which of the following is not a systemic disease that is associated with Raynaud’s Phenomenon? a. Congestive heart failure b. Collagen vascular disease such as scleroderma c. Pulmonary hypertension d. Myxedema or smoking 4. Rheumatic fever and subsequent heart complications in 10% of individuals is left untreated arises from: a. Bacteria, fungi, rickettes or viral infections b. Sterile, autoimmune reaction (no infection involved) c. Dyslipidemia d. Group A beta-hemolytic strep pharyngitis 5. Which of the following is NOT a primary factor in determining preload? a. Venous return during diastole b. End systolic volume c. Total peripheral (systemic) resistance d. All of the above are primary factors of preload 6. Which of the following statements are incorrect? a. The mean arterial pressure is the average force of pushing blood through the systemic circuit b. The pulse pressure is the difference between systolic and diastolic pressures c. A decrease in aortic compliance increased its stiffness and thus can lead to an increase in pulse pressures d. Prostacyclins, which are diminished by NSAIDS, are vasoconstrictors 7. Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding the isometric contraction phase of the cardiac cycle? a. Blood does not flow through the heart at this time b. The atria are contracting c. The valves are closed d. It occurs during ventricular systole 8. The resistance of movement of blood from the left ventricle to the aorta is termed the: a. Ejection fraction b. Compliance c. Preload d. Afterload 9. Natriuretic peptides act by: a. Stimulates the retention of Na+ (and thus decreases urine volume) from the kidneys b. Stimulated the release of Na+ (thus increases urine volume) from the kidneys c. Increases vascular smooth muscle contraction (vasoconstriction) d. Stimulates increased heart rate, contractility, and cardiac output 10. The double layered serous membrane surrounding the heart that functions to minimize friction from the movement is the: a. Myocardium b. Endocardium c. Peritoneum d. Pericardium 11. Prinzmetal angina is: a. A transient ischemia of the myocardium that occurs unpredictably b. Myocardial ischemia that may not cause detectable symptoms c. Ischemia that occurs after a predictable amount of exercise d. The rupture of an unstable plaque 12. Progressive venous distension of the head and upper extremities resulting from growth of a cancerous tumor on the right mainstem bronchus is best described clinically as: a. Deep vein thrombosis b. Spinal shock c. Superior vena cave syndrome d. Carcinoid syndrome 13. The most common cause of aneurysm is: a. External hematoma b. Atherosclerosis with hypertension c. Genetics d. Congestive heart failure 14. An atherosclerotic area that has ruptured is termed: a. Fibrous plaque b. Complicated plaque c. Fatty steak d. Aneurysm 15. The PR interval represents the time from: a. The onset of atrial systole to the completion of arterial diastole b. The onset of atrial systole to the onset of ventricular diastole c. The onset of atrial systole to the onset of ventricular diastole d. The onset of atrial systole to the onset of ventricular systole 16. The circumflex artery off of the left coronary artery: a. Left atrium and ventricle b. The two atria c. The tow ventricles d. The aorta and the pulmonary artery 17. The structure that connect the leaflets/cusps and help to prevent prolapse of the AV valves is the: a. Chordae tendineae and papillary muscles b. Cardiomyocytes c. Interventricular septum d. Coronary ostia 18. A mitral valve prolapse would be heard during: a. Ventricular systole b. Atrial systole c. Isovolumetric relaxation phase d. Ventricular diastole 19. Hypertensive crisis (malignant hypertension) is best defined as: a. An advancing failure of systemic circulation as the heart weakens b. Rapidly progressive hypertension with a diastolic pressure of 104 mmHg or more c. A pulse pressure of greater than 60 d. Blood pressure readings consistently greater than 140/90 mmHg 20. Intermittent claudication is: a. Caused by coronary artery disease b. A sign of peripheral artery disease c. An attack of vasospasm brought on by the cold d. A result of peripheral neuropathy 21. A patient presents with fever, diffuse micro emboli presenting as petechial lesions, painful lesions on the fingertips and what looks like on-tender bruising on both hands is most indicative of which disease process? a. Infective endocarditis b. Rheumatic fever c. HIV infection d. Tuberculosis 22. Stroke volume: a. Does not affect the cardiac index b. Is equal to ESV-EDV c. Does not vary much d. None of the above are true 23. T wave relates to and shortly precedes the closure of the valves. a. Ventricular depolarization, AV b. Ventricular depolarization, SL c. Ventricular repolarization, AV d. Ventricular repolarization, SL e. None of the above 24. How much of the oxygen carried by hemoglobin in the blood is actually transferred to the myocardium? a. 10-20% b. 40-50% c. 70-75% d. 100% 25. The key regulator determining if a muscle, such as cardiac muscle, contracts or not is the presence of: a. Ca++ b. ATP c. K+ d. Epinephrine 26. Myocardial hibernation is best described as: a. Myocardial cells that are persistently ischemic and undergo metabolic adaptation to prolong survival b. Hypertrophy that occurs with loss of contractile function c. Temporary loss of contractile function that persists for hours to days after restoration of perfusion d. Fibroblast proliferation and severe inflammatory response 27. A thrombus is a blood clot that remains attached to a vessel wall. Which of the following is NOT one of the main factors as proposed by Virchow? a. Obesity b. Venous stasis c. Venous endothelial damage d. Hypercoagulable states 28. A 12-year-old boy presenting with complains of fever, pink macular rash on the trunk and findings of diastolic murmur on the exam should be investigated for possible: a. Restrictive cardiomyopathy b. Dilated (congestive) cardiomyopathy c. Rheumatic fever d. Tuberculosis 29. The decreased or inability to generate action potential due to hyperpolarization or continued closure of inactivation gates is termed: a. Rhythmicity b. Quiescence c. Refractory period d. Afterload 30. All of the following antihypertensive agents would be appropriate first line treatment EXCEPT: a. Calcium channel blockers b. Beta blockers c. Ace inhibitors or ARBs d. Diuretic such as thiazide 31. STEMI would most likely present with: a. Inverted T waves and Q waves b. Peaked T waves c. Marked ST segment elevation d. Absence of troponin I or T 32. What area of the myocardium is affected by STEMI? a. Transmural (entire wall thickness) b. Subendothelial area c. Just the right side d. Only atria 33. The disorder of the myocardium that expands overall intracardiac volume and leads to heart failure is: a. Dilated (congestive) cardiomyopathy b. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy c. Hypertensive cardiomyopathy d. Valvular hypertrophic cardiomyopathy e. Restrictive cardiomyopathy 34. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding baroreceptor reflex activity on the heart? a. A drop in blood pressure would result in release of natriuretic peptides b. A drop in blood pressure would result in reflex to decrease heart rate, contractility, and peripheral resistance c. A rise in blood pressure would result in reflex to increase heart rate, contractility, and peripheral resistance d. A drop in blood pressure would result in reflex to increase heart rate, contractility, and peripheral resistance 35. The development of atherosclerotic plaques involve the formation of foam cells, which are best described: a. Transformed fibroblasts b. Cytokine secreting adipose cells c. Macrophage that engulf oxidized LDL d. Endothelial cells that produce the gas nitric oxide 36. Which of the following statements regarding compliance and elasticity is correct? a. Compliance and elasticity are directly related (i.e. as one increases, so does the other) b. Elasticity is the ease by which a wall, like a vessel wall, will stretch in response to increases in pressure c. A decrease in compliance, such as the aorta, means that it is stiffer and less easy to expand d. As elasticity increases, the ease by which a vessel can expand increases as well