MN 566 Final Exam Questions and Answers- Purdue University

MN 566 Final Exam Question 1 (2 points) Saved The clinician is assessing a patient complaining of hearing loss. The clinician places a tuning fork over the patient’s mastoid process, and wh en the sound fades away, the fork is placed without restriking it over the external auditory meatus. The patient is asked to let the clinician know when the sound fades away. This is an example of which type of test? Question 1 options: a) Weber test b) Schwabach test d) Auditory brainstem response (ABR) test Question 2 (2 points) Saved Fluctuations and reductions in estrogen may be a contributing factor in which type of rhinitis? Question 2 options: b) Rhinitis medicamentosa c) Atrophic rhinitis d) Viral rhinitis Question 3 (2 points) Saved You have a patient who is a positive for strep on rapid antigen testing (rapid strep test). You order amoxicillin after checking for drug allergies (patient is negative) but he returns 3 days later, reporting that his temperature has gone up, not down (101.5°F in office). You also note significant lymphadenopathy, most notably in the posterior and anterior cervical chains, some hepatosplenomegaly, and a diffuse rash. You decide: Question 3 options: a) To refer the patient b) That he is having an allergic response and needs to be changed to a macrolide antibiotic c) That his antibiotic dosage is not sufficient and should be changed Question 4 (2 points) Saved A patient presents with nonvesicular lesions that are 2 to 10 mm, symmetrical, and scattered on the oropharynx and mouth. What is their most likely diagnosis? Question 4 options: a) Corynebacterium diphtheriae c) Candida infection d) Secondary syphilis Question 5 (2 points) Saved Jean has acute otitis externa with fluid that is black and malodorous. Which of the following is responsible for the infection? Question 5 options: b) Staphylococcus infection c) Pseudomonas infection d) Allergic reaction Question 6 (2 points) Saved Which of the following medications for temporomandibular disorder has the warning that patients should NOT drive while taking it? Question 6 options: b) Naprosyn c) Tylenol d) Elavil Question 7 (2 points) Saved Which type of stomatitis is caused by continual exposure to chewing tobacco? Question 7 options: a) Aphthous stomatitis b) Herpetic stomatitis d) Allergic stomatitis Question 8 (2 points) Saved What is the initial treatment for uncomplicated anterior epistaxis? Question 8 options: a) Tilting the head back so the blood does not run out of the nose c) Applying firm and continuous pressure to the nostril for 5 minutes d) Letting the nose bleed clot and leaning the head forward Question 9 (2 points) Saved Which of the following is an example of sensorineural hearing loss? Question 9 options: a) Perforation of the tympanic membrane b) Otosclerosis c) Cholesteatoma Question 10 (2 points) Saved A provider is examining a patient with temporomandibular joint disease (TMJ). Which of the following results would the provider expect from the exam? Question 10 options: a) The mandibular opening is 40 mm. b) There are no sounds elicited from the exam. d) The patient is able to open the mouth without pain or sound. Question 11 (2 points) Saved A patient presents to the clinician complaining of ear pain. On examination, the clinician finds that the patient has tenderness on traction of the pinna as well as when applying pressure over the tragus. These findings are classic signs of which condition? Question 11 options: a) Otitis media b) Ménière’s disease c) Tinnitus Question 12 (2 points) Saved Peter presents with complaints of right hearing loss that has been getting worse and a congruent headache. What is the most likely diagnosis? Question 12 options: b) Presbycusis c) Ménière’s disease d) Sensorineural hearing loss Question 13 (2 points) Saved You are performing muscle strength testing on a patient presenting with musculoskeletal pain and find that the patient has complete ROM but cannot move it above gravity. Which numeric grade of muscle strength would you give this patient? Question 13 options: a) 1 c) 3 d) 4 Question 14 (2 points) Saved Which of the following would lead the clinician to suspect a tumor when paired with low back pain? Question 14 options: a) Minor trauma with sneezing in elderly with osteoporosis b) History of spinal procedure d) Unintended weight loss 10% of body weight in 6 months Question 15 (2 points) Saved Which of the following signs or symptoms indicate an inflammatory etiology to musculoskeletal pain? Question 15 options: a) Decreased C-reactive protein b) Hyperalbuminemia d) Weight gain Question 16 (2 points) Saved Which of the following is a risk factor for overuse syndrome with tendonitis? Question 16 options: a) Body mass index 18 b) Hypothyroidism d) Cardiac disease Question 17 (2 points) Saved What is the recommended daily calcium intake for men 70 years and younger? Question 17 options: a) 500 mg/day b) 750 mg/day d) 1,500 mg/day Question 18 (2 points) Saved Fred has been diagnosed with a trigger finger of the ring finger. Which of the following management strategies is appropriate? Question 18 options: a) Surgical removal of the tendon sheath b) NSAIDs d) Splinting Question 19 (2 points) Saved Debbie is a 43-year-old female being evaluated for a wrist injury. The clinician is assessing for median nerve compression by having Debbie maintain forced flexion of her wrist for 1 minute with the dorsal surface of each hand pressed together. Which of these tests did the clinician just perform? Question 19 options: a) Allen’s test c) Tinel’s sign d) Finkelstein’s test Question 20 (2 points) Saved Which of the following medications is appropriate to treat Paget’s disease? Question 20 options: a) Boniva c) Reclast d) Forteo Question 21 (2 points) Saved A clinician is examining a vertebral fracture, and the examination and diagnostic findings have shown a compression of the anterior column that includes both endplates. What type and subtype are these? Question 21 options: b) Burst fracture, type B c) Seat-belt type injury, level two d) Fracture-dislocation, shear Question 22 (2 points) Saved Mrs. Allen is a 60-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with osteoporosis. She is very concerned about the risk of breast cancer associated with hormone replacement therapy and is wondering what other treatments are available to her. The clinician explains that bisphosphonates are another class of drugs used in the prevention and treatment of osteoporosis. What teaching should the clinician give Mrs. Allen in regard to taking bisphosphonates? Question 22 options: a) Taking bisphosphonates can result in hypercalcemia, so calcium intake should be decreased while taking this class of drugs. c) This class of drugs can be taken at any time of the day without regard to meals. D.This class of drugs should be taken with orange juice to increase absorption. Question 23 (2 points) Saved The clinician suspects that a client has patellar instability. In order to test for this, the client is seated with the quadriceps relaxed, and the knee is placed in extension. Next the patella is displaced laterally, and the knee flexed to 30°. If instability is present, this maneuver displaces the patella to an abnormal position on the lateral femoral condyle, and the client will perceive pain. Testing for patellar instability in this way is known as: Question 23 options: b) Bulge sign c) Thumb sign d) Lachman sign Question 24 (2 points) Saved The clinician is caring for Diane, a 22-year-old woman who presents with an injured ankle. Diane asks the clinician if she will need an x-ray. The clinician explains to Diane that an x-ray is not always necessary for an injured ankle and that the decision to obtain radiographs is dependent on the examination and Diane’s description of her injury. Which of the following clues in Diane’s examination or history would alert the clinician to the need for obtaining radiographs? Question 24 options: a) Ability to bear weight immediately after the injury b) Development of minor ankle swelling after the injury c) Slight bruising over the injury site 2 days after injury Question 25 (2 points) Saved What is the presentation of a complex motor tic? Question 25 options: b) Eye blinks and extension of extremities c) Throat clearing and finger raising d) Barking, screaming, and snorting Question 26 (2 points) Saved Which of the following is considered first-line treatment for panic disorders? Question 26 options: a) Benzodiazepines c) Tricyclic antidepressants d) Cognitive behavioral therapy Question 27 (2 points) Saved Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep occurs how frequently during non-REM sleep? Question 27 options: a) Every 30 to 40 minutes b) Every 60 to 80 minutes d) Every 180 to 200 minutes Question 28 (2 points) Saved Which is the most prevalent psychiatric condition in the United States? Question 28 options: a) Depression c) Substance-related addictions d) Gambling addiction Question 29 (2 points) Saved The effectiveness of benzodiazepines in treating anxiety disorders suggests that which of the following neurotransmitters plays a role in anxiety? Question 29 options: a) Acetylcholine b) Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) c) Dopamine Question 30 (2 points) Saved It is important for the clinician to discuss the long-term effects of sexual assault with survivors. Which of the following is the most common long-term effect of sexual assault? Question 30 options: b) Obsessive-compulsive disorder c) Substance abuse d) PTSD Question 31 (2 points) Saved Which of the following neuroendocrine abnormalities is implicated in depression? Question 31 options: a) Decrease in adrenal size c) An exaggerated response of thyrotropin (TRH) to infusion of thyroid-releasing hormone d) Increased inhibitory response of glucocorticoids to dexamethasone Question 32 (2 points) Saved What prenatal factor could increase risk for ADHD? Question 32 options: a) Exposure to lead c) Maternal allergies d) Central nervous system (CNS) infections Question 33 (2 points) Saved What is the median reduction in life expectancy among those with mental illness? Question 33 options: a) 15.4 years c) 5.7 years d) 9.2 years Question 34 (2 points) Saved Bipolar disorder requires differential diagnosis from all of the following except? Question 34 options: a) Substance abuse and medication effects b) Medical and neurological disorders c) Cluster B personality disorders and depression Question 35 (2 points) Saved What is the likely result of the over-prescription, over-supply, and over-production of opioids? Question 35 options: a) Opioid use b) Opioid abuse d) Opioid resistance Question 36 (2 points) Saved Instead of reporting symptoms of body dysmorphic disorder (BDD) to the primary-care provider, patients often request which of the following? Question 36 options: b) Antidepressant medications c) Nutritional counseling services d) Unnecessary laboratory tests Question 37 (2 points) Saved A 35-year-old female patient is seen in the clinic complaining of abdominal pain. Which of the following should be included in the examination? Question 37 options: a) Lumbar puncture b) Family history of cardiac problems c) Contrast venography Question 38 (2 points) Saved Which of these is one of the most common dietary triggers of IBS? Question 38 options: a) Gluten-free items c) Honey d) Meat Question 39 (2 points) Saved Which of the following is a condition that results in colicky abdominal pain? Question 39 options: a) Peptic ulcers b) Glisson’s capsule around the liver c) Peritoneum irritation Question 40 (2 points) Saved Which of the following causes of gastrointestinal bleeding is found in the lower gastrointestinal tract? Question 40 options: a) Erosive esophagitis b) Duodenal ulcer d) Gastric ulcer Question 41 (2 points) Saved On further questioning, the 21-year-old patient with complaints of fatigue, headache, anorexia, and a runny nose explains that she is sexually active only with her boyfriend, does not use injectable drugs, and works as an aide in a day- care center. Which of the following tests would be most helpful in confirming your diagnosis? Question 41 options: b) HAV IgG c) Anti-HCV d) IgM anti-HBs Question 42 (2 points) Saved A 29-year-old is seen in the office with complaints of pain in his chest and belly. He quit smoking 6 months ago. He has been suffering the pain for 2 weeks and gets temporary relief from Alka-Seltzer® and Pepto-Bismol®. The burning pain wakes him at night and radiates up to his chest. Which factor favors a diagnosis of gastric ulcer? Question 42 options: a) His use of Pepto-Bismol b) His age d) His smoking cessation Question 43 (2 points) Saved A 45-year-old patient presents with a chief complaint of generalized abdominal pain. Her physical examination is remarkable for left lower quadrant tenderness. At this time, which of the following should be considered in the differential diagnosis? Question 43 options: b) Yersinia enterocolitica infection c) Appendicitis d) GERD Question 44 (2 points) Saved Which of the following patients should be referred to a hepatologist? Question 44 options: b) Patient with anti-HAV IgG c) Patient with IgG anti-HBs d) Patient with anti-HEV Question 45 (2 points) Saved A 21-year-old student presents with complaints of fatigue, headache, anorexia, and a runny nose, all of which began about 2 weeks ago. She started taking vitamins and over-the- counter cold preparations but feels worse. The smell of food makes her nauseated. Her boyfriend had mononucleosis about 1 month ago, and she wonders if she might have it also. Examination reveals cervical adenopathy and an enlarged liver and spleen. Which of the following labs would be most helpful in the differential diagnosis at this point? Question 45 options: a) Stool culture b) Liver enzymes d) Thyroid-stimulating hormone test Question 46 (2 points) Saved Which of the following dietary instructions should be given to a patient with GERD? Question 46 options: b) Drink hot toddies to relieve stomach distress. c) Recline and rest after meals. d) Increase the amount of spicy foods. Question 47 (2 points) Saved Robin is a 57-year-old female presenting with diffuse abdominal pain. Which of the following statements from the provider to Robin is correct? Question 47 options: a) “It does not matter that you feel pain not only in your stomach but also in your shoulder.” c) “All causes of abdominal pain do not necessitate a surgical referral.” d) “I noticed on examination that your stomach is rigid, and you stated your pain is quite severe. It is only necessary for a nurse to see you concerning this problem.” Question 48 (2 points) Saved Which of the following is part of the treatment plan for the patient with IBS? Question 48 options: b) A discussion that the goal of treatment is to cure their disease c) Daily laxatives d) A conversation about their expected shorter life span Question 49 (2 points) Saved Which of the following patients has an increased risk of epigastric hernia? Question 49 options: c) Tony, a 33-year-old Asian male with hypertension d) Whitney, a 22-year-old Caucasian female with anemia Question 50 (2 points) Saved A patient is diagnosed with GERD, and his endoscopic report reveals the presence of Barrett’s epithelium. Which of the following should the PCP include in the explanation of the pathology report? Question 50 options: a) This is not premalignant tissue. b) This tissue is not resistant to gastric acid. d) This tissue does not have an increased risk of developing esophageal adenocarcinoma. Submit Quiz50 of 50 questions saved Show Less