CISSP Practice Exam Quiz CISSP Quiz WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS| VERY HELPFUL

exam is challenging. As a result, Passing it successfully demands substantial knowledge of the basic information security concepts and an in-depth understanding of the fundamental information security concepts. You must also allocate 40 to 70 hours to study for the exam preparation, pay for the CISSP certificate, and grasp all aspects of the CISSP study material before attempting it. CISSP Practice Exam Quiz CISSP Quiz Start Quiz CISSP Exam Questions And Answers 1. Which of the following best describes the relationship between COBIT and ITIL? A. COBIT is a model for IT governance, whereas ITIL is a model for corporate governance. B. COBIT provides a corporate governance roadmap, whereas ITIL is a customizable framework for IT service management. C. COBIT defines IT goals, whereas ITIL provides the process-level steps on how to achieve them. D. COBIT provides a framework for achieving business goals, whereas ITIL defines a framework for achieving IT service-level goals. C. The Control Objectives for Information and related Technology (COBIT) is a framework developed by ISACA (formerly the Information Systems Audit and Control Association) and the IT Governance Institute (ITGI). It defines goals for the controls that should be used to properly manage IT and to ensure IT maps to business needs, not specifically just security needs. The Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is the de facto standard of best practices for IT service management. A customizable framework, ITIL provides the goals, the general activities necessary to achieve these goals, and the input and output values for each process required to meet these determined goals. In essence, COBIT addresses “what is to be achieved,” and ITIL addresses “how to achieve it.” 2. Global organizations that transfer data across international boundaries must abide by guidelines and transborder information flow rules developed by an international organization that helps different governments come together and tackle the economic, social, and governance challenges of a globalized economy. What organization is this? A. Committee of Sponsoring Organizations of the Treadway Commission B. The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development C. COBIT D. International Organization for Standardization B. Almost every country has its own rules pertaining to what constitutes private data and how it should be protected. As the digital and information age came upon us, these different laws started to negatively affect business and international trade. Thus, the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) developed guidelines for various countries so that data is properly protected and everyone follows the same rules. 3. Steve, a department manager, has been asked to join a committee that is responsible for defining an acceptable level of risk for the organization, reviewing risk assessment and audit reports, and approving significant changes to security policies and programs. What committee is he joining? A. Security policy committee B. Audit committee C. Risk management committee D. Security steering committee D. Steve is joining a security steering committee, which is responsible for making decisions on tactical and strategic security issues within the enterprise. The committee should consist of individuals from throughout the organization and meet at least quarterly. In addition to the responsibilities listed in the question, the security steering committee is responsible for establishing a clearly defined vision statement that works with and supports the organizational intent of the business. It should provide support for the goals of availability, integrity, and confidentiality as they pertain to the organization’s business objectives. This vision statement should, in turn, be supported by a mission statement that provides support and definition to the processes that will apply to the organization and allow it to reach its business goals. 4. Which of the following is not included in a risk assessment? A. Discontinuing activities that introduce risk B. Identifying assets C. Identifying threats D. Analyzing risk in order of cost or criticality A. Discontinuing activities that introduce risk is a way of responding to risk through avoidance. For example, there are many risks surrounding the use of instant messaging (IM) in the enterprise. If a company decides not to allow IM activity because there is not enough business need for its use, then prohibiting this service is an example of risk avoidance. Risk assessment does not include the implementation of countermeasures such as this. 5. The integrity of data is not related to which of the following? A. Unauthorized manipulation or changes to data B. The modification of data without authorization C. The intentional or accidental substitution of data D. The extraction of data to share with unauthorized entities D. The extraction of data to share with unauthorized entities is a confidentiality issue, not an integrity issue. Confidentiality ensures that the necessary level of secrecy is enforced at each junction of data processing and prevents unauthorized disclosure. This level of secrecy should prevail while data resides on systems and devices within the network, as it is transmitted, and once it reaches its destination. Integrity, on the other hand, is the principle that signifies the data has not been changed or manipulated in an unauthorized manner. 6. As his company’s CISO, George needs to demonstrate to the board of directors the necessity of a strong risk management program. Which of the following should George use to calculate the company’s residual risk? A. threats × vulnerability × asset value = residual risk B. SLE × frequency = ALE, which is equal to residual risk C. (threats × vulnerability × asset value) × controls gap = residual risk D. (total risk – asset value) × countermeasures = residual risk C. Countermeasures are implemented to reduce overall risk to an acceptable level. However, no system or environment is 100 percent secure, and with every countermeasure some risk remains. The leftover risk after countermeasures are implemented is called residual risk. Residual risk differs from total risk, which is the risk companies face when they choose not to implement any countermeasures. While the total risk can be determined by calculating threats × vulnerability × asset value = total risk, residual risk can be determined by calculating (threats × vulnerability × asset value) × controls gap = residual risk. The controls gap is the amount of protection the control cannot provide. 7. Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) came from the software engineering world and is used within organizations to help lay out a pathway of how incremental improvement can take place. This model is used by organizations in self-assessment and to develop structured steps that can be followed so an organization can evolve from one level to the next and constantly improve its processes. In the CMMI model graphic shown, what is the proper sequence of the levels? D. Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI) is an organizational development model for process improvement developed by Carnegie Mellon. While organizations know that they need to constantly make their security programs better, it is not always easy to accomplish because “better” is a vague and nonquantifiable concept. The only way we can really improve is to know where we are starting from, where we need to go, and the steps we need to take in between. This is how the security industry uses the CMMI model. A security program starts at Level 1 and is chaotic in nature. Processes are not predictable, and the security team is reactive to issues that arise—not proactive. The model uses the following maturity levels: Initial, Repeatable, Defined, Managed, Optimizing. *baseline NIST SP 800-53 discusses security control baselines as a list of security controls. CIS releases security baselines, and a baseline is a useful part of a threat management strategy and may contain a list of acceptable configuration items. *Content Distribution Network (CDN) is designed to provide reliable, low-latency, geographically distributed content distribution. In this scenario, a CDN is an ideal solution. A P2P CDN like BitTorrent isn’t a typical choice for a commercial entity, whereas redundant servers or a hot site can provide high availability but won’t provide the remaining requirements. Blocking read commands sent to the device A forensic disk controller performs four functions. One of those, write blocking, intercepts write commands sent to the device and prevents them from modifying data on the device. The other three functions include returning data requested by a read operation, returning access-significant information from the device, and reporting errors from the device back to the forensic host. The controller should not prevent read commands from being sent to the device because those commands may return crucial information. RAID 1 Disk mirroring, requires two physical disks that will contain copies of the same data. TGS, or Ticket-Granting Service (which is usually on the same server as the KDC) receives a TGT from the client. It validates the TGT and the user’s rights to access the service they are requesting to use. The TGS then issues a ticket and session keys to the client. The AS serves as the authentication server, which forwards the username to the KDC. *Asynchronous X communications rely on a a built-in stop and start flag or bit. This makes asynchronous communications less efficient than synchronous communications, but better suited to some types of communication. *Wave pattern X motion detectors transmit ultrasonic or microwave signals into the monitor area, watching for changes in the returned signals bouncing off objects. A stateful packet inspection firewall X, also known as dynamic packet filtering firewalls, track the state of a conversation,