VETT 232 Exam #% correct questions and answers

True or False: a rectal temperature below 100 degrees F in a kid would warrant immediate attention True Which of the following breeds of sheep is a fine wool breed? a. Hereford b. Lincoln c. Dorset d. Hampshire e. Rambouillet e. Rambouillet An adult male goat is which of the following? a. buck b. kid c. wether d. lamb e. ewe a. buck Which of the following statements regarding a sick neonatal lamb or kid is not true? a. hypoglycemia is a common cause of weakness in the neonate. b. depression is among the most common clinical signs of illness in the neonate. c. clinical signs of hypothermia begin at a rectal temperature less than 100 degrees F d. starvation is among the primary causes of neonatal death. C. Which of the following statements about infertility and the intersex condition encountered in many European breeds of goats is true? a. animals with the hh genotype are polled. b. males that are homozygous for the polled gene are intersex. c. females that are homozygous for the polled gene are intersex but fertile. d. animals that are heterozygous for the polled gene have normal fertility. D. Which of the following breeds of goats is all white or cream color and is known for its milk-producing ability? a. Saanen b. Pygmy c. Boer d. Spanish e. Angora A. Which of the following breeds of goats is a dairy breed whose distinguishing characteristic is very small ears? a. LaMancha b. Cashmere c. Nubian d. Boer e. Pygmy A. Finnish sheep commonly have ____ to ____ lambs per year. a. 3 to 4 b. 8 to 10 c. 2 to 3 d. 1 to 2 e. 3 to 6 E. The normal pulse rate in sheep and goats is? 70 to 90 bpm What is facing? Shearing the wool from the eyes in breeds with facial wool An adult female goat would be called what? Doe A newly born sheep is known as? Lamb What is the average gestation period for sheep? 148 days Diarrhea within the first few days of a lamb's life is usually caused by what? Escherichia coli An adult male sheep is called what? Ram How many genetic combinations are possible with polled intersex breeds? 3 All of the following statements about parturition in sheep and goats are false except... a. in the ewe, treatment for a retained placenta should begin 6 hours postpartum. b. successful breech births are not possible. c. stage 1 lasts 1 - 4 hours in goats, but can last up to 12 hours in sheep d. dystocia is common in sheep but uncommon in goats D. A newly born goat is known as? Kid True or False: does and ewes vigorously lick the newborn, but don't usually eat the fetal membranes. False A castrated male goat would be called? Wether True or False: ovine progressive pneumonia is treated with antibiotics and supportive care, and has a good prognosis. False Psoroptes spp. is a? Mite Infestation with the parasite Fasciola hepatica predisposes flocks to which of the following diseases? a. black leg b. malignant edema c. foot rot d. black disease e. food and mouth disease black disease What disease in sheep and goats is caused when the animal uses its fat reserves to meet energy requirements? Ketosis Which of the following diseases is best characterized by diarrhea, incoordination, excitement, circling, head pressing, convulsions, and sudden death? a. rabies b. toxoplasmosis c. leptospirosis d. enterotoxemia e. chlamydophilosis D. Malignant edema is caused by? Clostridium septicum Clostridium types B and C in young sheep is also known as? Lamb dysentery Which breed of sheep are the most common breed diagnosed with scrapie? Suffolk Which of the following statements about brucellosis in sheep is NOT true? a. the disease is controlled by herd slaughter b. the disease is prevalent in the eastern portions of North America c. the major clinical sign seen in the herd is epididymitis in rams d. if an infected ewe aborts, she will be free of the disease within a few months. B. Which of the following statements about caseous lymphadenitis in goats is true? a. diagnosis is by abdominocentesis b. clinical signs include diarrhea c. it causes multiple, sudden deaths d. it causes abscesses e. is it caused by a rhabdovirus D. Sheep are the intermediate host for what tapeworm? Echinococcus granulosus Why disease of sheep and goats is caused by a mycobacterium, has profuse watery diarrhea as its major clinical sign, and for which there is no treatment? Johne disease True or False: in small ruminants, rectal prolapse can be corrected with prolapse rings, syringe cases, or plastic tubing. True All of the following statements about chlamydophilosis are true except? a. it is the number one cause of abortion in goats b. abortion occurs in the first 2-3 weeks of gestation c. it is also known as "enzootic abortion in ewes." d. after aborting, the bacteria are eliminated from the dam's uterus within 3 months. B. True or False: urinary tract obstruction most commonly occurs in pet sheep and goats, animals being fitted for shows, and feedlot animals. True Blackleg is caused by what? Clostridium chauvoei What microorganism(s) cause Vibriosis in ruminants? Campylobacter sp. Which of the following statements is true? a. the presence of postparturient lochia in sheep and goats requires emergency intervention. b. entropion is an inflammation of the nasal turbinates c. sheep and goats rarely give birth to freemartins. d. epiphora is another name for pyometra C. What disease is usually seen in feedlot lambs consuming high-concentrate diets? Enterotoxemia Which of the following diseases is reportable and zoonotic? a. scrapie b. big head c. brucellosis d. listeriosis e. black disease C. Eimeria spp. is a? Coccidia True or False: the cheek teeth in camelids function to grind forages. True The normal temperature range in llamas and alpacas is? 99 - 101.5 F The normal temperature range in swine is? 101 - 103.5 F All of the following statements about camelid nutrition are true except: a. unlike ruminants, camelids are unable to convert roughage into usable nutrients. b. camelids do best when they are allowed to graze on pasture c. camelids are sensitive to copper d. concentrates rarely are needed A. Which of the following about adequacy of passive transfer of antibodies in camelids is not true? a. low birth weight may be indicative of failure of passive transfer. b. if bottle feeding is necessary and camelid colostrum is unavailable, only commercially obtained milk replacement products can be used. c. the type of placenta found in camelids is responsible for poor passive transfer d. failure of passive transfer is a common cause of mortality in crias B. The "crushed position" taken by the dam during stage 1 of parturition means that she is? In sternal recumbency What is the normal RR of camelids? 10 - 30 Sarcoptes scabiei is a? Mite What is the term for a castrated camelid? Gelding The normal pulse rte in swine is? 60 - 90 bpm True or False: when artificially inseminating camelids, it is best to place the sperm in the right horn. False Crias shouldn't be fed grain before ____ months of age. 3 What breed of swine is solid red in color with ears that droop forward? Duroc True or False: the placenta of a camelid should be expelled within 4 - 6 hours after delivery of the cria True The dental formula for swing is? 2 (3/3 i, 1/1 c, 4/4 pm, 3/3 m) All of the following statements about reproductive efficiency are true except? a. a sow can average about 2.5 litters per year. b. producers try to keep losses of piglets born alive to less than 5%. c. a producer's goal is to wean 9 or more piglets per litter d. a sow's litter size ranges from 8 - 14 piglets a Which of the following statements about "berserk male syndrome" is true? a. it is limited to male crias b. it is caused by owner's paying too little attention to the cria c. it has been linked to crias being fed grain prior to 3 months of age d. it is also known as aberrant behavior syndrome D. What is the dental formula for llamas and alpacas? 2 (1/3 i, 1/1 c, 1-2/1-2 p, 3/3 m) Which of the following statements isn't true? a. heat detection involves testing for the lordosis response b. gilts should be exposed to mature boars daily to encourage the "boar effect" c. swine ovulation rates are more pronounced during the third estrus after puberty d. boars have a pheromone-secreting anal gland that sexually stimulates female pigs D. SMEDI stands for what? stillbirth, mummification, embryonic death, and infertility SMEDI can be a clinical sign of what? Leptospirosis Which of the following statesments about pleuropneumonia of swine isn't true? a. onset is sudden b. clinical signs in younger swine include cyanotic extremities and thumps c. once established in a herd, detection is difficult. d. is it spread by aerosolized respiratory droplets. D. What parasite found in swine would be located in muscle? Trichinella spiralis Transmissible gastroenteritis in pigs is caused by? coronavirus Which of the following is a bacterial respiratory disease of swine? a. parakeratosis b. glasser disease c. pseudorabies d. eperythrozoonosis B. Exudative epidermitis is also known as _______. Infections are caused by Staphylococcus hyicus. Greasy pig disease True or False: Atrophic rhinitis is divided into two forms. The first form, regressive atrophic rhinitis, is caused by Bordetella bronchiseptica. It usually is mild and temporary, with little effect on performance. The second form is progressive atrophic rhinitis, caused by toxigenic Pasteurella multocida. True The normal temperature range in swine is? 101 - 103.5 F Which of the following statemetns about mycoplasmal pneumonia in pigs isn't true? a. it is not encountered in the US b. clinical signs include a persistent dry cough c. diagnosis is made in the slaughterhouse d. an all in/all out management approach limits its effects A. Which of the following statements is true? a. pale soft exudative pork results from stress prior to slaughter b. malignant hypothermia can be treated with neuromuscular blocking agents c. the incidence of porcine stress syndrome is higher during humid weather d. rickets results from a dietary deficiency of potassium C. Which of the following items, which are toxic to swine, causes acute cerebral edema? a. salt b. ergot c. cocklebur d. pigweed A. Thumps in pigs is characterized by? abdominal breathing All of the following statements about porcine atrophic rhinitis are true except? a. the regressive form of the disease is permanent b. the progressive form is cauded by Pasteurella multocida c. the regressive form is caused by Bordetella bronchiseptica d. inadequate ventilation can intensify the disease A. The current estimate of pigs in the US infected with hog cholera is? 0% Porcine parvovirus is asymptomatic. What would be the only indications of infection? Increased stillbirth and mummification Which of the following statements about swine influenza is true? a. it is transmitted from neighboring farms on fomites b. affected animals can have fevers up to 108 F. c. in North America, outbreaks occur in the spring or summer. d. clinical signs typically last 3 - 4 weeks B. Which of the following statements about porcine epidemic diarrhea virus isn't true? a. it is caused by a coronavirus b. clinical signs include watery diarrhea c. outbreaks often start older swine d. the mortality rate among all ages of swine is high D. The normal pulse rate in swine is? 60 - 90 bpm Malignant hyperthermia in pigs would be most likely triggered by exposure to what? halothane Which of the following statements about porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome isn't true? a. it impacts nursing piglets b. the first stage is the pneumonic phase c. a vaccine is available d. it impacts post-weaning piglets B.