Rad Review Mock Test 2023 with complete solution questions and answers
Which of the following help(s) to reduce patient dose? 1. Tube filtration 2. Proper beam alignment 3. Operator shield 4. Automatic Exposure Control (AEC) A 1 and 2 only B 2 and 3 only C 1, 2, and 4 only D 1, 3, and 4 only C 1, 2, and 4 only Which of the following is used to express the effectiveness of a detector to absorb x-ray photons? A FPD B PPI C DQE D DXA C DQE A dose of 0.25 Gy to the fetus during the early part of the first trimester of pregnancy can potentially cause A spontaneous abortion B skeletal anomalies C neurologic anomalies D gastrointestinal anomalies B skeletal anomalies An increase in technical factors is likely to be required for the following condition(s) 1. Emphysema 2. Atelectasis 3. Ascites A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3 C 2 and 3 only Which of the following are true regarding bone marrow dose? 1. Bone marrow dose can be directly measured 2. It is relevant for measurement due to the association between bone marrow and radiation-induced leukemia 3. Bone marrow dose is estimated utilizing the ESE 4. The mean marrow dose is typically lower in children A 2 and 4 only B 1 and 4 only C 2, 3, and 4 only D 1, 2, and 4 only C 2, 3, and 4 only All of the following statements regarding SNR are true, except A SNR is directly related to image quality B SNR is directly related to patient dose C Insufficient SNR results in quantum noise D Excessive SNR is associated with underexposure D Excessive SNR is associated with underexposure Which of the following is an SI quantity that can be used for radiation concentration transferred to a point that may be at the surface of a patient's or radiographer's body? A Absorbed dose B Dose equivalent C Effect dose D Air kerma D Air kerma If a structure having less tissue density than the part of interest is positioned over the AEC detector, which of the following will result? A Underexposure B Overexposure C distorted image D correct exposure A Underexposure When irradiated in an oxygenated (aerobic) state, biologic tissue _______________to radiation compared to when it is exposed to radiation under anoxic or hypoxic conditions. A Is less sensitive B Is more sensitive C Has the same sensitivity D Becomes more immune B Is more sensitive Select the three correct statements below regarding fixed vs. variable kV technique charts A mAs is variable when using a variable kV chart B the fixed kV chart is most commonly used C each body part has a specific kV when using a variable kV chart D kV is increased by 2 for each cm increase in thickness when using a variable kV chart E accurate caliper measurement is required when using a variable kV chart F mAs compensates for patient size and condition variation in a variable kV chart B the fixed kV chart is most commonly used D kV is increased by 2 for each cm increase in thickness when using a variable kV chart E accurate caliper measurement is required when using a variable kV chart The energy of the incident photon is completely absorbed during which of the following x-ray interactions with matter? A Photoelectric absorption B Bremsstrahlung C Compton interaction D Coherent scattering A Photoelectric absorption Which of the following is correct regarding the relationship between pixel size, pixel pitch, and spatial resolution? A As pixel size decreases, pixel pitch increases, and spatial resolution increases B As pixel size decreases, pixel pitch decreases, and spatial resolution increases C As pixel size increases, pixel pitch increases, and spatial resolution increases D As pixel size increases, pixel pitch decreases, and spatial resolution decreases B As pixel size decreases, pixel pitch decreases, and spatial resolution increases A patient arrives at the emergency room by ambulance with a possible left humeral fracture. Due to the patient's condition, a transthoracic lateral projection will be performed to assess the proximal humerus. Which of the following is the correct position of the patient's left arm? A Left arm in a neutral position B Left arm in an internal rotation C Left arm in an external rotation D Left arm is elevated above the patient's head A Left arm in a neutral position Which of the following is responsible for correcting the brightness and contrast of an image, regardless of the technique used? A Rescaling B Smoothing C Edge Enhancement D Quantization A Rescaling Which of the following is/are considered long-term somatic effect(s) of radiation exposure? 1. Carcinogenesis 2. Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea 3. Cataractogenesis A 1 only B 1, 2, and 3 C 1 and 3 only D 2 only C 1 and 3 only Which of the following digital imaging post-processing functions provides quantitative information of the pixels in a defined area? A Region of interest B Values of interest C Dynamic range D Window level A Region of interest Which of the following cells do not undergo cell division, are mature bone cells, and maintain the metabolism of bone tissue? A Osteoblasts B Chondroblasts C Osteocytes D Osteoclasts C Osteocytes Which of the following is used to modify the brightness and contrast of the original pixel values? A Edge enhancement B Smoothing C Look-up table D Automatic rescaling C Look-up table When performing an AP projection of the tibia and fibula, if the entire part cannot fit on one IR 1. Take two projections to include all anatomy 2. Take a second smaller projection at the joint opposite from the injury site 3. Take a second smaller projection at the joint closest to the injury site A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only C 1 and 3 only Which of the following describes the section of the histogram that will be included in the displayed image? A Region of interest B Values of interest C Dynamic range D Window level B Values of interest Which of the following conditions presents as reduced bone mass? A Osteopenia B Osteomyelitis C Osteoarthritis D Osteomalacia A Osteopenia What is the first technical factor to consider adjusting if quantum mottle is visible with a direct relationship exposure indicator x-ray system? A decrease mAs B increase mAs C decrease kVp D increase kVp B increase mAs Why is lithium fluoride the most widely used material for TLD? A It is relatively resistant and can therefore prevent detection of background radiation B It can measure doses as low as 50µGyt C It has attenuation properties similar to bone D It emits heat in response to light stimulation B It can measure doses as low as 50µGyt Which of the following modalities has, in many cases, replaced the need for post arthrogram images? A Sonography B CT C MRI D Nuclear medicine C MRI Which of the following is the post-processing function responsible for adjusting the brightness of a digital image? A Smoothing B Edge enhancement C Window width D Window level D Window level What carpal bone is located in the distal row, second bone in from the radial side? A Trapezium B Triquetrum C Trapezoid D Lunate C Trapezoid Which of the following examinations is/are likely to increase personnel dose? 1. Remote fluoroscopy 2. Mobile imaging 3. General radiography A 1 only B 2 only C 1 and 2 only D 1, 2, and 3 B 2 only Which of the following conditions can be possibly corrected with a contrast enema procedure? A Ulcerative colitis B Intussusception C Adenocarcinoma D Diverticulitis B Intussusception Technologists must be able to schedule medical imaging exams, view orders, track patients, and store imaging reports. Which imaging informatics system is responsible for these tasks? A DICOM B PACS C RIS D HL7 C RIS Which of the following is visualized in a left posterior oblique position of the cervical spine? A Left intervertebral foramina B Right intervertebral foramina C Left zygapophyseal joint D Right zygapophyseal joint B Right intervertebral foramina Which of the following is a nonfunctional examination used to demonstrate the urinary system? A Voiding cystourethrography B Retrograde urethrography C Retrograde urography D Retrograde cystography C Retrograde urography When performing the parietoacanthial projection of the facial bones, which of the following is the correct patient position and exit point for the central ray (CR)? A OML perpendicular to the IR with the CR exiting at the acanthion B MML perpendicular to the IR with the CR exiting at the acanthion C LML perpendicular to the IR with the CR exiting at the acanthion D OML perpendicular to the IR with the CR exiting at the nasion B MML perpendicular to the IR with the CR exiting at the acanthion Which of the following projections will best demonstrate the extent of a small left-sided pleural effusion? A PA chest B Left lateral chest C Left lateral decubitus chest D Right lateral decubitus chest C Left lateral decubitus chest Which of the following is visualized in a right posterior oblique projection of the lumbar spine? A Left intervertebral foramina B Right intervertebral foramina C Left zygapophyseal joints D Right zygapophyseal joints D Right zygapophyseal joints What suture separates the two parietal bones from the occipital bone? A Coronal B Lambdoidal C Sagittal D Squamosal B Lambdoidal When positioning for a lateral coccyx image, what is the correct placement of the central ray? A 2 inches posterior to the ASIS B 3 to 4 inches posterior to the ASIS C 3 to 4 inches posterior and 2 inches inferior to the ASIS D 3 to 4 inches posterior and inferior to the ASIS C 3 to 4 inches posterior and 2 inches inferior to the ASIS Which of the following types of patient consent can lead to charges of negligence against a radiographer? A Implied consent B No consent obtained C Express consent D Written consent E Inadequate consent E Inadequate consent Which 3 of the following represent therapeutic nonverbal communication on the part of the radiographer? A A facial expression or gesture that adds emphasis to the spoken word B Nodding and maintaining eye contact while the patient is speaking C A facial expression that contradicts the spoken word D Using "I" statements E Using humor to lighten every difficult situation F Wearing professional attire A A facial expression or gesture that adds emphasis to the spoken word B Nodding and maintaining eye contact while the patient is speaking F Wearing professional attire Federal law requires that all patients have access to effective communication, regardless of language or communication barriers. Which 3 of the following situations would require a certified interpreter? A A 22-year-old deaf patient presents in the emergency room with her mother, who is fluent in American Sign Language. B A Spanish speaking only patient is being transported from the emergency room to radiology and no one on staff speaks Spanish. C A patient who speaks only Vietnamese is being given discharge instructions without a family member present. D A radiographer must obtain informed consent from a patient, but only speaks a little of the patient's preferred language. A A 22-year-old deaf patient presents in the emergency room with her mother, who is fluent in American Sign Language. C A patient who speaks only Vietnamese is being given discharge instructions without a family member present. D A radiographer must obtain informed consent from a patient, but only speaks a little of the patient's preferred language. Organize the steps in a patient transfer from a radiographic exam table to a wheelchair in order from start to finish. Unordered List Place the chair close enough to the exam table that the patient can be moved in one pivot Ensure that the patient is wearing non-skid slippers Move the patient to a sitting position on the edge of the exam Move the exam table to its lowest position Lock both wheels on the wheelchair Ensure that the patient is wearing non-skid slippers Move the exam table to its lowest position Place the chair close enough to the exam table that the patient can be moved in one pivot Lock both wheels on the wheelchair Move the patient to a sitting position on the edge of the exam Which of the following are functions of the National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP)? 1. To provide the public with data involving radiation measurement and protection methods 2. To organize and support studies surrounding radiation protection 3. To create guidelines in which radiation protection should be applied A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3 D 1, 2, and 3 Which of the following is the correct angle for an intradermal injection? A 90 degrees B 45 degrees C 30 degrees D 15 degrees D 15 degrees What does the abbreviation PBL represent? A Positive-Barrier Limit B Proactive-Beam Limitation C Positive-Beam Lighting D Positive-Beam Limitation D Positive-Beam Limitation Compton Scatter characteristics (select 3) A Recoil electron B Coherent scatter C Total transfer of x-ray photon energy D Interaction with a loosely bound electron E Incident photon energy approximately 100kV F Leakage radiation A Recoil electron D Interaction with a loosely bound electron E Incident photon energy approximately 100kV When performing radiographic exams on a patient after pacemaker placement, the radiographer should avoid abducting or elevating the left arm for how many hours after the pacemaker placement procedure? A 12 B 48 C 8 D 24 D 24 Which of the following combinations will provide better visibility of detail and the least amount of noise in a digital image? A Low SNR and low CNR B Low SNR and high CNR C High SNR and low CNR D High SNR and high CNR D High SNR (signal-to-noise ratio) and high CNR (contrast-to-noise ratio) Due to the utilization of low kVp techniques, which of the following examinations result in reduced personnel exposure? 1. Mammogram 2. Chest x-ray 3. PA abdomen A 1 only B 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1 and 3 only D 1 and 3 only Which of the following will result as subject tissue thickness increases? 1. Beam attenuation decreases 2. Absorption increases 3. Transmission decreases A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3 C 2 and 3 only Which of the following will result if magnification is used in a 20/9/6 inch image intensifier? 1. Spatial resolution improves 2. Patient dose increases 3. Focal point shifts closer to the output phosphor A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3 B 1 and 2 only Which of the following describes the distance from the middle of one pixel to the middle of the adjacent pixel? A Pixel size B Pixel density C Pixel pitch D Fill factor C Pixel pitch Which of the following is/are considered form(s) of acute radiation syndrome? 1. Hematopoietic Syndrome 2. Gastrointestinal Syndrome 3. Syndrome X A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1 and 3 only B 1 and 2 only Which of the following is the post-processing function responsible for adjusting the contrast of a digital image? A Smoothing B Edge enhancement C Window width D Window level C Window width The mathematical expression below relates to which law of electrostatics? I1/I2 = (D1)²/(D2)² A Distribution B Concentration C Repulsion-attraction D Inverse square D Inverse square Which imaging informatics system is a universal standard regarding how images are communicated between PACS and imaging modalities? A DICOM B HIS C RIS D HL7 A DICOM Which of the following is responsible for producing the diagnostic portion of the image on the image receptor? A Remnant radiation B Scatter radiation C Primary radiation D Penumbra A Remnant radiation There are several types of DR image receptors used in digital imaging. All of the following use indirect capture except A Amorphous selenium flat panel detectors B Gadolinium amorphous silicon flat panel detectors C Cesium iodide amorphous silicon flat panel detectors D A charge coupled device A Amorphous selenium flat panel detectors Which of the following are associated with high frequencies and short wavelengths? 1. X-rays 2. Microwaves 3. Gamma rays A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 only C 1 and 3 only Which of the following types of DR image receptors uses a photoconductor? A Amorphous selenium flat panel detectors B Gadolinium amorphous silicon flat panel detectors C Cesium iodide amorphous silicon flat panel detectors D A charge coupled device A Amorphous selenium flat panel detectors Which of the following is considered a safe gonadal radiation dose? A 4 mrem B No dose C 5 rem D 0.5 rem B No dose Which of the following processing functions increases the sharpness of the details in an image? A Edge enhancement B Smoothing C Look-up table D Equalization A Edge enhancement Which elbow projection demonstrates the radial head free of superimposition? A AP neutral B AP internal rotation C AP partial flexion D Coyle D Coyle Low-pass filtering is another name for which processing function? A Edge enhancement B Smoothing C Quantization D Equalization B Smoothing What is the purpose of flexing the fingers in a PA projection of the wrist? A It ensures no rotation of the distal radius and ulna B It ensures no rotation of the carpal bones C It brings the carpals in closer contact with the image receptor D It brings the metacarpals in closer contact with the image receptor C It brings the carpals in closer contact with the image receptor Which of the following rib positions are recommended for a patient who complains of left-sided anterior rib pain? A AP and LPO B AP and RPO C PA and LAO D PA and RAO D PA and RAO Which of the following projections will free a majority of the clavicle from superimposition and decrease the OID? A AP B AP axial C PA D PA axial D PA axial In a contrast study of the esophagus, which patient position is recommended to best visualize the esophagus projected between the thoracic vertebrae and cardiac anatomy? A AP or PA B LAO C RAO D RPO C RAO What is the correct central ray placement for the AP projection of the thoracic spine? A At the jugular notch B 1 to 2 inches below the jugular notch C 3 to 4 inches below the jugular notch D 5 to 6 inches below the jugular notch C 3 to 4 inches below the jugular notch What is the correct angulation for an AP axial sacroiliac image on a male patient? A 30-degrees cephalad B 35-degrees cephalad C 30-degrees caudal D 35-degrees caudal A 30-degrees cephalad Which of the following is the correct degree of knee flexion for the tangential Merchant method? A 5 to 10 degrees B 40 degrees C 50 to 60 degrees D 90 degrees B 40 degrees For the AP axial projection of the skull, when utilizing the IOML as a landmark instead of the OML for positioning, what difference exists in the CR angulation? A 5 degrees cephalic B 5 degrees caudal C 7 degrees cephalic D 7 degrees caudal D 7 degrees caudal Which of the following skeletal pathologies requires a decrease in technical factors? A Acromegaly B Osteoarthritis C Osteoporosis D Osteopetrosis C Osteoporosis Which difference may be present in a semi-erect AP chest projection if the patient cannot stand for PA chest imaging? A Reduced number of ribs visualized due to inspiration limitations B The heart will appear smaller due to reduced OID C Less risk of chin superimposition over apices D Better visualization of bony thorax A Reduced number of ribs visualized due to inspiration limitations Which of the following additional projections may be performed to assess the early structural changes of scoliosis, herniated disks, and motion after a spinal fusion? A LPO and RPO lumbar spine B LAO and RAO lumbar spine C Lateral lumbar spine D AP right and left bending lumbar spine D AP right and left bending lumbar spine Which of the following projections show the ribs closest to the IR? 1. RPO 2. LPO 3. RAO 4. LAO A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 4 only C 2 and 3 only D 3 and 4 only A 1 and 2 only What is the correct central ray direction for a PA axial projection of the paranasal sinuses? A horizontal beam B 15 degrees caudad C 15 degrees cephalad D 25 degrees caudad A horizontal beam When positioning for the lateral upper airway projection, where should the CR enter if the area of interest is the distal larynx and trachea? A C3-4 B C5-6 C T1-2 D T3-4 C T1-2 The xiphoid tip of the sternum is located at approximately what corresponding vertebral level? A T5-T6 B T7-T8 C T9-T10 D T11-T12 C T9-T10 Consider the following scenario and determine which would apply. The radiographer receives an order for a chest x-ray on a patient whose name he remembers from high school. He is curious about his former acquaintance's condition and decides to examine the patient's medical history. On discovering that the patient was diagnosed with hepatitis C, he immediately sends a text message to another friend who knows the patient. A HIPAA violation and slander B Assault and battery C Assault and HIPAA violation D Libel and HIPAA violation D Libel and HIPAA violation When patient dose cannot be estimated using patient radiation monitors, what other resources are available for ESE estimations? 1. Nomograms 2. Output intensity of the x-ray equipment in use 3. kVp used during the examination 4. mAs used during the examination A 1 and 3 only B 2 and 3 only C 1, 2, and 4 only D 1, 2, 3, and 4 D 1, 2, 3, and 4 The legal doctrine of res ipsa loquitor can be literally interpreted as A The thing speaks for itself B Let the master respond C Reckless disregard for life and limb D Borrowed servant A The thing speaks for itself Which of the following factors can affect patient ESE (entrance skin exposure)? 1. Efficiency of x-ray production 2. Technical factors 3. OID 4. SID A 1 and 3 only B 2 and 3 only C 2, 3, and 4 only D 1, 2, 3, and 4 D 1, 2, 3, and 4 Which pulse point would a radiographer use to take a pulse when there is questionable compromised peripheral circulation following catherization of the femoral artery or casting of a lower extremity? A Apical B Dorsalis pedis C Carotid D Brachial B Dorsalis pedis In what ways can a radiographer reduce patient dose? 1. Improve technical factor selection through observation of patient habitus, positioning, and department protocols 2. Increase positioning accuracy with use of radiopaque sponges under the area of interest to reduce motion 3. Properly dress-down the patient for the exam, including removal of any jewelry or clothing items that could cause an artifact 4. Use clear breathing instructions to improve patient compliance and decrease motion A 1, 2, and 4 only B 1, 2, and 3 only C 1, 3, and 4 only D 1, 2, 3, and 4 C 1, 3, and 4 only In scoliosis imaging, breast tissue dose for PA imaging is approximately ____ of the dose for AP imaging A 1% B 5% C 10% D 50% A 1% Injection of iodinated contrast media may be contraindicated when a patient's creatinine level is A Above 2.0 mg/dl B Below 2.0 mg/dl C Above 0.6 mg/dl D Below 0.6 mg/dl A Above 2.0 mg/dl Which of the following describes the amount of the detector element that is dedicated to absorbing x-ray photons? A Pixel size B Pixel density C Pixel pitch D Fill factor D Fill factor If a radiologic examination must be performed during pregnancy, what safeguards can be used for both patient and fetal protection? 1. Accurate collimation 2. Double-shielding 3. Use of low kVp techniques 4. Limited protocols A 1 and 3 only B 2 and 4 only C 1, 2, and 4 only D 2, 3, and 4 only C 1, 2, and 4 only All of the following describe the placement of organs in an asthenic body habitus except A Low diaphragm B Gallbladder centered on the right, upper abdominal region C Heart is near midline and vertical D Stomach is low and medial B Gallbladder centered on the right, upper abdominal region Film badges utilize filters composed of which materials? 1. Aluminum 2. Cesium oxide 3. Copper 4. Cobalt A 1 and 2 B 2 and 4 C 1 and 3 D 2 and 3 C 1 and 3 Which of the following describes the distance from the side of one pixel to the opposite side of that same pixel? A Pixel size B Pixel density C Pixel pitch D Fill factor A Pixel size Which of the following statements regarding pregnant radiographers are true? 1. Due to back problems associated with pregnancy, aprons using 0.5 mm Pb equivalent are more desirable than 1 mm Pb equivalent despite lower attenuation percentages 2. A second dosimeter can be worn outside of a lead apron at waist level 3. A dose limit of 0.5 mSv per month is established for the length of pregnancy 4. The pregnancy should be declared as soon as possible A 1 and 4 only B 2 and 3 only C 1, 2, and 4 only D 1, 3, and 4 only D 1, 3, and 4 only Which element of the transmission cycle of infection is a person with a chronic disease such as diabetes mellitus? A A reservoir B A portal of exit C A means of transmission D A susceptible host D A susceptible host There are many terms related to grids used in radiography. Which term describes the relationship of the lead lines being parallel or angled to each other? A Grid ratio B Grid pattern C Grid focus D Grid conversion factor C Grid focus The weight of a full-body protective apron with 1 mm lead equivalent is approximately A 5 lbs B 12 lbs C 18 lbs D 25 lbs D 25 lbs Which of the following are enteral routes of drug administration? (select the 2 correct responses) A Transdermal B Sublingual C Oral D Rectal E Subcutaneous F Intramuscular C Oral D Rectal Which of the following best describes the relationship between bit depth and contrast resolution? A As bit depth increases, contrast resolution increases. B As bit depth increases, contrast resolution decreases. C As bit depth decreases, contrast resolution increases. D Bit depth does not affect contrast resolution. A As bit depth increases, contrast resolution increases. Which of the following projections does not demonstrate the olecranon process free of superimposition? A Acute flexion elbow projection for the distal humerus B Lateral elbow C Acute flexion of the elbow for the proximal forearm D Radial head laterals of the elbow C Acute flexion of the elbow for the proximal forearm The degree of x-ray beam attenuation is affected by 1. Muscle development 2. Z number of tissue 3. Tissue pathology A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3 D 1, 2, and 3 Which of the following combination of factors will cause the anode heel effect to be more pronounced? A Smaller anode angle, longer SID, and larger field size B Smaller anode angle, shorter SID, and larger field size C Larger anode angle, longer SID, and smaller field size D Larger anode angle, shorter SID, and larger field size B Smaller anode angle, shorter SID, and larger field size Which of the following best describes the relationship between frequency and wavelength? A As frequency increases, wavelength decreases B As frequency increases, wavelength increases C As frequency decreases, wavelength decreases D Frequency and wavelength do not affect one another A As frequency increases, wavelength decreases Late effects of ionizing radiation include the following (select the 4 correct responses) A Erythema B Cataracts C Leukemia D Epilation E Carcinogenesis F Genetic mutations B Cataracts C Leukemia E Carcinogenesis F Genetic mutations How much barium would be required for an 8-month-old patient undergoing a upper GI series? A 1-2 oz B 2-4 oz C 5-6 oz D 6-8 oz B 2-4 oz The division process of genetic cells is termed A Metaphase B Mitosis C Meiosis D Synthesis C Meiosis Positioning of the cervicothoracic (Swimmer's) lateral for the cervical spine requires: 1. Placement of patient's arm furthest from IR above their head 2. Placement of patient's arm closest to IR above their head 3. Slight cephalic angulation of the CR to separate shoulders 4. CR placement directed at T1 A 1 only B 3 only C 2 and 4 only D 1, 2, and 4 only C 2 and 4 only What is the LD 50/30 for adult humans without medical support? A 1-2 Gyt B 2-3 Gyt C 3-4 Gyt D 4-5 Gyt C 3-4 Gyt All of the following can be used in image intensification systems except A Photostimulable phosphor plate B Flat panel detectors C Charge coupled device D Complementary metal oxide semiconductor A Photostimulable phosphor plate An emergency room physician has ordered ankle and lower leg images on a patient with an obvious lower leg deformity. What is the best way to obtain the mortise image? A Internally rotate the patient's lower leg 15 to 20 degrees B Internally rotate the patient's lower leg 45 degrees C Central ray is angled 15 to 20 degrees lateromedial D Central ray is angled 45 degrees lateromedial C Central ray is angled 15 to 20 degrees lateromedial Which of the following types of compensating filters would primarily be used for shoulder images? A Wedge filter B Trough filter C Boomerang filter D Bowtie filter C Boomerang filter A 57-year old male arrives in the emergency department after falling off a ladder at a construction site. The emergency room physician has ordered a CT of the head, chest x-ray, cervical spine x-ray, shoulder x-ray, and femur x-ray. Which of the following procedures should be the first procedure to be completed? A AP chest B AP femur C AP cervical spine D Lateral cervical spine D Lateral cervical spine What form of filtering amplifies high frequencies to increase contrast of large structures? A Smoothing B Edge enhancement C Window level D Window width B Edge enhancement Which 2 of the following communication techniques should be employed by a radiographer? A Using medical terms instead of lay terms to demonstrate that the radiographer is a knowledgeable medical professional. B Asking the patient to verbally summarize the consent form, to ensure that the patient understands what he or she is signing. C Using familiar terms, such as "sweetie," to put a patient at ease and establish a comfortable relationship. D Speaking more clearly and slowly to improve understanding when the situation is urgent or stressful. B Asking the patient to verbally summarize the consent form, to ensure that the patient understands what he or she is signing. D Speaking more clearly and slowly to improve understanding when the situation is urgent or stressful. Which of the following functions to round values of inputted data into allowable digits of a computer system? A DQE B CNR C CCD D ADC D ADC Which of the following is (are) shown in both the right and left dorsal decubitus positions of the abdomen? 1. Diaphragm 2. Posterior border of iliac wings 3. Air-fluid levels A 1 only B 2 only C 3 only D 1, 2, and 3 D 1, 2, and 3 All of the following terms can be defined as the removal of the most extreme shades from the grayscale of an image except A Tissue equalization B Contrast equalization C Smoothing D Dynamic range compression (DCR) C Smoothing Which of the following images require(s) superimposition of the distal radius and ulna? 1. Lateral hand 2. Lateral forearm 3. Lateral thumb A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3 B 1 and 2 only When performing a GI series, which of the following structures is (are) not demonstrated with the use of oral barium? 1. Duodenal bulb 2. Pyloric antrum 3. Splenic flexure 4. C-loop of duodenum A 2 only B 3 only C 1 and 4 only D 2 and 3 only B 3 only In the PA oblique projection of the wrist, which of the carpals will be demonstrated distal and lateral to the lunate? 1. Scaphoid 2. Trapezium 3. Trapezoid 4. Triquetrum A 1 and 2 B 2 and 3 C 1, 3, and 4 D 1, 2, and 3 D 1, 2, and 3 Why would the Swimmer's position be used during an esophagram study to replace the lateral position? A To reduce motion B To reduce OID C To better demonstrate upper esophagus D To better demonstrate lower esophagus C To better demonstrate upper esophagus Which of the following projections demonstrates the pisiform free of superimposition? 1. AP oblique of the wrist 2. Carpal tunnel projection of the wrist 3. Carpal bridge projection of the wrist A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3 A 1 and 2 only The AP projection of the elbow demonstrates which of the following bony structures? 1. Coronoid process 2. Radial head 3. Styloid process of the radius 4. Coracoid process A 1 only B 1 and 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 2 and 4 only B 1 and 2 only What may occur if a high-pass filtering function is used on an image with high contrast? A Excess noise B Decreased noise C Long-scale contrast D Increase in overall grays A Excess noise Centering for the AP projection of the upper airway is at the level of A C3-4 B C5-6 C C7-T1 D T1-2 D T1-2 For the AP axial projection of the skull, if the patient extends their neck, how would the dorsum sellae appear in the radiograph? A Superior to the foramen magnum B Superimposed over the arch of C1 C Inferior to the petrous ridge D Foreshortened A Superior to the foramen magnum Which of the following is an acceptable form of electronic data manipulation? A Shuttering or masking out areas of the acquired image B Adding annotation when the lead marker is collimated out of the image field C Overwriting an image acquired under the correct processing algorithm with an image reprocessed under an alternative processing algorithm that improves the grayscale D Applying smoothing to an image that demonstrates quantum mottle if it produces an image that appears acceptable B Adding annotation when the lead marker is collimated out of the image field Which of the following indicates bradypnea? A Less than 12 breaths per minute B Less than 18 breaths per minute C More than 20 breaths per minute D More than 25 breaths per minute A Less than 12 breaths per minute Clostridium difficile, a spore-forming bacterium that can cause sepsis in susceptible patients, is spread by what mode of transmission? A Contact B Droplet C Airborne D Vector A Contact What is the percentage of occupational exposure for personnel resulting from fluoroscopy and mobile imaging? A 25% B 50% C 80% D 95% D 95% A condition, often resulting from chest trauma by motor vehicle accident or falling, in which the pleural space is filled with air, is called A Pneumothorax B Hemothorax C Atelectasis D Cardiac tamponade A Pneumothorax Personnel dose is increased during which examination(s)? 1. CT 2. Fluoroscopy 3. Mobile imaging A 1 only B 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1and 3 only C 2 and 3 only Which 4 of the following topics are covered in the AHA Patient's Bill of Rights? A Involvement in your care B Protection of your privacy C Death with dignity D Discussing your treatment plan E Understanding your healthcare goals and values F Civil and criminal penalties for HIPAA violation A Involvement in your care B Protection of your privacy D Discussing your treatment plan E Understanding your healthcare goals and values What advantages do film badges present for personnel monitoring? 1. They can be worn for up to 3 months 2. Inexpensive for production and utilization 3. Simple processing methods A 1 only B 1 and 3 only C 2 and 3 only D 1, 2, and 3 C 2 and 3 only Which of the following is correct regarding the relationship between matrix size and spatial resolution? A As matrix size decreases, spatial resolution increases. B As matrix size increases, spatial resolution decreases. C As matrix size increases, spatial resolution increases. D Spatial resolution is not affected by the size of the matrix. C As matrix size increases, spatial resolution increases. What disadvantages come with the use of TLD personnel monitoring? 1. Loss of information when exposed to heat and moisture 2. Cost compared to film badges when read monthly 3. Decreased sensitivity to film badges A 1 only B 2 only C 2 and 3 only D 1 and 2 only B 2 only Compared to the trunk, the collar region is exposed to radiation levels A 5 times greater B 10 times less C 20 times greater D 50 times less C 20 times greater In the context of a trauma situation, order the following in highest to lowest priority for evaluation when a patient reaches a trauma center. Unordered List Open fracture Cardiac arrest Vertebral fracture Respiratory arrest Respiratory arrest Cardiac arrest Vertebral fracture Open fracture Which of the following abdomen projections will best demonstrate an umbilical hernia? A AP supine B AP upright C Lateral decubitus D Dorsal decubitus D Dorsal decubitus Which of the following materials would make an acceptable secondary barrier? 1. Lead acrylic 2. Glass 3. Gypsum board 4. Concrete A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 3 only C 2, 3, and 4 only D 1, 2, 3, and 4 D 1, 2, 3, and 4 Which of the following examinations of the abdomen require the image to be taken with suspended breathing on expiration? 1. Dorsal decubitus 2. Lateral 3. AP erect 4. Lateral decubitus A 1 and 2 only B 1 and 4 only C 1, 2, and 4 only D 1, 2, 3, and 4 D 1, 2, 3, and 4 How does the use of beam filtration affect the quantity and quality of the x-ray beam? A The number of x-rays is decreased and the quality of the x-ray beam is increased. B The number of x-rays is decreased and the quality of the x-ray beam is decreased. C The number of x-rays is increased and the quality of the x-ray beam is increased. D The number of x-rays is increased and the quality of the x-ray beam is decreased. A The number of x-rays is decreased and the quality of the x-ray beam is increased. All of the following are typical ways to express patient dose except A Bone marrow dose B Gonadal dose C Thyroid equivalent D Entrance skin exposure C Thyroid equivalent Compared to centering for the lateral cervical spine, centering for the lateral upper airway is A Lower and more posterior B Lower and more anterior C Higher and more posterior D Higher and more anterior B Lower and more anterior Without changing any other factors, which of the following best describes the impact on the final image when SID is increased? A Image receptor exposure increases and spatial resolution decreases B Image receptor exposure increases and spatial resolution increases C Image receptor exposure decreases and spatial resolution decreases D Image receptor exposure decreases and spatial resolution increases D Image receptor exposure decreases and spatial resolution increases Which of the following is necessary to perform digital image stitching? A Multiple plates B Special wire alignment grid C Single exposure D Multiple exposures D Multiple exposures Which of the following factors is the only thing affected by changing the focal spot size? A Receptor exposure B Contrast C Spatial resolution D Distortion C Spatial resolution Which of the following is a low-pass filtering function that can make images appear more blurry? A Equalization B Smoothing C Quantization D Subtraction B Smoothing Which of the following will result if OID is increased? A Size distortion B Shape distortion C Increased spatial resolution D Increased receptor exposure A Size distortion Which of the following is increased when image latitude is decreased during post-processing? A Contrast B Window width C Overall grays D Long-scale contrast A Contrast Stochastic effects of ionizing radiation are associated with the following (select the 5 correct answers) A No threshold B All early effects C Nonlinear D Genetic effects E Cancer F Most late effects G No safe dose A No threshold D Genetic effects E Cancer F Most late effects G No safe dose A source of free electrons required for x-ray production are made available from the A Glass envelope B Focal track C Filament D Focusing cup C Filament Which of the following is an advantage of crossed grids? A There is low risk of grid cutoff B They are easily utilized in exams requiring tube angulations C They have a higher contrast improvement factor than parallel grids D They require lower patient dose C They have a higher contrast improvement factor than parallel grids
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rad review mock test 2023 with complete solution questions and answers
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which of the following helps to reduce patient dose 1 tube filtration 2 proper beam alignment 3 operator shield 4 automati