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White Blood Cell Disorder Study Guide 2023 with complete solution

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White Blood Cell Disorder Study Guide 2023 with complete solution The production of RBCs and WBCs occurs in the bone marrow The maturation of T-cells occurs in the thymus Which of the following areas in a secondary lymphoid organ allows antigens in the blood to come into contact with lymphocytes? white pulp of the spleen What are the cells of the myeloid lineage? neutrophils (PMNs) eosinophils basophils monocytes mast cells RBCs platelets What are the cells of the lymphoid lineage? B-cells T-cells NK cells plasma cells What is the normal absolute value of neutrophils? What percentage of WBC do they constitute? 1,800-8,500/uL 40-74% Lymphadenopathy and splenomaegaly are examples of ____________________ of lymphoid tissues hyperplasia Hyperplasia of granulocytes is called _____________, which is accompanied by _____________ since they make the majority of granulocytes granulocytosis neutrophilia Two ways to differentiate between hyperplasia and neoplasia (usually)? 1) hyperplasia usually reversible w/ removal of stimulus 2) hyperplastic cells are well-differentiated (neoplasias usually are less differentiated) What two WBCs are hyperplastic in parasitic infections and allergies? eosinophils (eosinophilia) mast cells (mastocytosis) Bacterial infections, burns, and large areas of necrosis cause hyperplasia of

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1. How are drugs sorted into therapeutic groups and classes?

A. first by the conditions that they are used to treat, and then by their mechanisms of action

B. first by their mechanisms of action, and then by their therapeutic effects

C. first by their side effects, and then by therapeutic effects

D. first by their toxically, and then by their

effectiveness 2.Bone marrow transplants…

A. … require that the patient first undergo chemotherapy or radiation to kill the diseased stem cells
and promote white blood cell production.

B. … are a type of stem cell therapy, unless patient’s own cells are reinjected.

C. … are always a type of stem cell therapy.

D. … can help people with leukemia, a condition in which the body does not produce enough white
blood cells.

3. What does AMA stand for?

C. American Medical Association

4. What section of a drug’s package insert describes situations in which the drug should not be used
because the risks outweigh the therapeutic benefits?

B. contraindications

5.What is tertiary care?

B. highly specialized medical and surgical care provided by a large medical center for unusual or
complex medical problems

6. Which of the following is NOT one of the stages in the classic approach to brand development strategy
covered in your manual?

C. brand quality

7. What are vasodilators used to do?

A. decrease vascular resistance and increase blood flow

B. mimic pathogens to stimulate the immune system

C. narrow the blood vessels

D. stimulate the CNS to make the heart beat faster

,8. What is the name of the condition that occurs after a specific dose of a drug is given at such regular
intervals that absorption and elimination (and therefore drug plasma concentration) have become
constant?

A. homeostasis

B. steady state

C. titration

D. tolerance

9. Which statement is TRUE about ocular administration?

A. Ocular administration is primarily for drugs that must cross the blood-brain barrier.

B. Ocular administration is used primarily to treat the eye.’

C. Ocular administration is used when a drug must enter the bloodstream immediately.

D. Ocular administration is used when a drug must produce immediate effects on the brain or
spinal cord.

10. Which entity/entities invest(s) the most money in pharmaceutical R&D?

A. Canadian pharmaceutical companies

B. the NIH

C. the U.S. Government

D. U.S. pharmaceutical

companies 11.How are most drugs

excreted?

A. via the bloodstream

B. via the heart

C. via the kidneys

D. via the skin

12. Over the last few decades, what has happened to legal limitations on sales’ reps discussions about
off label uses?

A. Limitations have decreased.

B. Limitations have increased significantly.

C. Limitations have increased slightly.

D. Limitations have remained about the same.

13. According to your manual, which of the following is an example of a branding fundamental?

, A. the brand logo

B. the brand name

C. the brand packaging

D. the brand promise

14. What does it mean if two drugs are at parity?

A. Both drugs are essentially in a neutral position.

B. Both drugs are generics.

C. Both drugs have exclusive preferred status.

D. The two drugs are bioequivalent.

15. Who is most likely to benefit from electronic sampling programs?

A. Everyone would benefit equally from electronic sampling programs

B. physicians in hospitals who are too busy to see representatives

C. physicians in rural areas who are not as frequently visited by representatives

D. physicians in urban areas who are too busy to see representatives

16.When referring to medication dosage, which abbreviation means “one-

half”:

D. SS

17. What is an internist?

A. a physician who practices internal medicine

18.Which of the following is a type of white blood cells?

C. lymphocytes

19. Why are novice sales representatives often placed in charge of negotiating MCO formularies?

A. to become more familiar with the healthcare industry

B. to become more familiar with their territories

C. P&T committees are more receptive to new faces.

D. They are not. This job is usually reserved for more experienced reps.

20.What distinguishes pharmacodynamics from pharmacokinetics?

A. Pharmacodynamics studies a drug’s ex vivo effects.

B. Pharmacodynamics studies how drugs affect the body.

C. Pharmacodynamics studies the body affects drugs.

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