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Maternity HESI Test bank (combined red hesi and other sources)

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Maternity HESI Test bank (combined red hesi and other sources) An expectant father tells the nurse he fears that his wife is "losing her mind." He states that she is constantly rubbing her abdomen and talking to the baby and that she actually reprimands the baby when it moves too much. Which recommendation should the nurse make to this expectant father? A.Suggest that his wife seek professional counseling to deal with her symptoms. B.Explain that his wife is exhibiting ambivalence about the pregnancy. C. Ask him to report similar abnormal behaviors at the next prenatal visit. D.Reassure him that normal maternal-fetal bonding is occurring. Ans- D) Reassure him that normal maternal-fetal bonding is occurring. Rationale: These behaviors are positive signs of maternal-fetal bonding and do not reflect ambivalence. No intervention is needed. Quickening, the first perception of fetal movement, occurs at 17 to 20 weeks of gestation and begins a new phase of prenatal bonding during the second trimester. Options A and C are not necessary because the behaviors displayed are normal. The nurse is preparing a laboring client for an amniotomy. Immediately after the procedure is completed, it is most important for the nurse to obtain which information? A.Maternal blood pressure B.Maternal temperature C.Fetal heart rate (FHR) D.White blood cell count (WBC) Ans- C. Fetal heart rate (FHR) Rationale: The FHR should be assessed before and after the procedure to detect changes that may indicate the presence of cord compression or prolapse. An amniotomy (artificial rupture of membranes [AROM]) is used to stimulate labor when the condition of the cervix is favorable. The fluid should be assessed for color, odor, and consistency. Option A should be assessed every 15 to 20 minutes during labor but is not specific for AROM. Option B is monitored hourly after the membranes are ruptured to detect the development of amnionitis. Option D should be determined for all clients in labor. A nurse receives a shift change report for a newborn who is 12 hours post-vaginal delivery. In developing a plan of care, the nurse should give the highest priority to which finding? A.Cyanosis of the hands and feet B.Skin color that is slightly jaundiced C.Tiny white papules on the nose or chin D.Red patches on the cheeks and trunk Ans- B. Skin color that is slightly jaundiced Rationale: Jaundice, a yellow skin coloration, is caused by elevated levels of bilirubin, which should be further evaluated in a newborn 24 hours old. Acrocyanosis (blue color of the hands and feet) is a common finding in newborns; it occurs because the capillary system is immature. Milia are small white papules present on the nose and chin that are caused by sebaceous gland blockage and disappear in a few weeks. Small red patches on the cheeks and trunk are called erythema toxicum neonatorum, a common finding in newborns. A breastfeeding postpartum client is diagnosed with mastitis, and antibiotic therapy is prescribed. Which instruction should the nurse provide to this client? A.Breastfeed the infant, ensuring that both breasts are completely emptied. B.Feed expressed breast milk to avoid the pain of the infant latching onto the infected breast. C.Breastfeed on the unaffected breast only until the mastitis subsides. D.Dilute expressed breast milk with sterile water to reduce the antibiotic effect on the infant. AnsA.Breastfeed the infant, ensuring that both breasts are completely emptied. Rationale:Mastitis, caused by plugged milk ducts, is related to breast engorgement, and breastfeeding during mastitis facilitates the complete emptying of engorged breasts, eliminating the pressure on the inflamed breast tissue. Option B is less painful but does not facilitate complete emptying of the breast tissue. Option C will not relieve the engorgement on the affected side. Option D will not decrease antibiotic effects on the infant. A 38-week primigravida who works as a secretary and sits at a computer 8 hours each day tells the nurse that her feet have begun to swell. Which instruction will aid in the prevention of pooling of blood in the lower extremities? A.Wear support stockings. B.Reduce salt in the diet. C.Move about every hour. D.Avoid constrictive clothing. Ans- C.Move about every hour. Rationale: Pooling of blood in the lower extremities results from the enlarged uterus exerting pressure on the pelvic veins. Moving about every hour will relieve pressure on the pelvic veins and increase venous return. Option A would increase venous return from varicose veins in the lower extremities but would be of little help with swelling. Option B might be helpful with generalized edema but is not specific for edematous lower extremities. Option D does not address venous return, and there is no indication in the question that constrictive clothing is a problem. Twenty-four hours after admission to the newborn nursery, a full-term male infant develops localized swelling on the right side of his head. In a newborn, what is the most likely cause of this accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull that does not cross the suture line? A.Cephalhematoma, which is caused by forceps trauma B.Subarachnoid hematoma, which requires immediate drainage C.Molding, which is caused by pressure during labor D.Subdural hematoma, which can result in lifelong damage Ans- A.Cephalhematoma, which is caused by forceps trauma Rationale: Cephalhematoma, a slight abnormal variation of the newborn, usually arises within the first 24 hours after delivery. Trauma from delivery causes capillary bleeding between the periosteum and skull. Option C is a cranial distortion lasting 5 to 7 days, caused by pressure on the cranium during vaginal delivery, and is a common variation of the newborn. Options B and D both involve intracranial bleeding and could not be detected by physical assessment alone. Prior to discharge, what instructions should the nurse give to parents regarding the newborn's umbilical cord care at home? A.Wash the cord frequently with mild soap and water. B.Cover the cord with a sterile dressing. C.Allow the cord to air-dry as much as possible. D.Apply baby lotion after the baby's daily bath Ans- C.Allow the cord to air-dry as much as possible. Rationale:Recent studies have indicated that air drying or plain water application may be equal to or more effective than alcohol in the cord healing process. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because they promote moisture and increase the potential for infection. A mother expresses fear about changing the infant's diaper after circumcision. What information should the nurse include in the teaching plan? A.Cleanse the penis with prepackaged diaper wipes every 3 to 4 hours. B.Wash off the yellow exudate on the glans once every day to prevent infection. C.Place petroleum ointment around the glans with each diaper change and cleansing. D.Apply pressure by squeezing the penis with the fingers for 5 minutes if bleeding occurs. Ans- C.Place petroleum ointment around the glans with each diaper change and cleansing. Rationale: With each diaper change, the glans penis should be washed with warm water to remove any urine or feces, and petroleum ointment should be applied to prevent the diaper from sticking to the healing surface. Prepackaged wipes often contain other products that may irritate the site. The yellow exudate, which covers the glans penis as the area heals and epithelializes, is not an infective process and should not be removed. If bleeding occurs at home, the client should be instructed to apply gentle pressure to the site of the bleeding with sterile gauze squares and call the health care provider. A 26-year-old gravida 2, para 1, client is admitted to the hospital at 28 weeks of gestation in preterm labor. She is given three doses of terbutaline sulfate (Brethine), 0.25 mg subcutaneously, to stop her labor contractions. What are the primary side effects of terbutaline sulfate? A.Drowsiness and paroxysmal bradycardia B.Depressed reflexes and increased respirations C.Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness D.A flushed warm feeling and dry mouth Ans- C.Tachycardia and a feeling of nervousness Rationale: Terbutaline sulfate (Brethine), a beta-sympathomimetic drug, stimulates beta-adrenergic receptors in the uterine muscle to stop contractions. The beta-adrenergic agonist properties of the drug may cause tachycardia, increased cardiac output, restlessness, headache, and a feeling of nervousness. Option A is not a side effect. Options B and D are side effects of magnesium sulfate. A mother who is breastfeeding her baby receives instructions from the nurse. Which instruction is most effective in preventing nipple soreness? A.Wear a cotton bra with nonbinding support. B.Increase nursing time gradually over several days. C.Ensure that the baby is positioned correctly for latching on. D.Manually express a small amount of milk before nursing. Ans- C.Ensure that the baby is positioned correctly for latching on. Rationale: The most common cause of nipple soreness is incorrect positioning of the infant on the breast for latching on. The baby's body is in alignment with the ears, shoulders, and hips in a straight line, with the nose, cheeks, and chin touching the breast. Option A helps prevent chafing, and nonbinding support aids in prevention of discomfort from the stretching of the Cooper ligament. Option B is important but is not necessary for all women. Option D helps soften an engorged breast and encourages correct infant latching on but is not the best answer. A new mother asks the nurse, "How do I know that my daughter is getting enough breast milk?" Which explanation is appropriate? A."Weigh the baby daily, and if she is gaining weight, she is getting enough to eat." B."Your milk is sufficient if the baby is voiding pale, straw-colored urine six to ten times a day." C."Offer the baby extra bottled milk after her feeding and see if she still seems hungry." D."If you're concerned, you might consider bottle feeding so that you can monitor intake." Ans- B."Your milk is sufficient if the baby is voiding pale, straw-colored urine six to ten times a day." Rationale: The urine will be dilute (straw-colored) and frequent (6 to 10 times/day), if the infant is adequately hydrated. Although a weight gain of 30 g/day is indicative of adequate nutrition, most home scales do not measure this accurately, and the suggestion will likely make the mother anxious. Option C causes nipple confusion and diminishes the mother's milk production. Option D does not address the client's question. The client comes to the hospital assuming she is in labor. Which assessment findings by the nurse would indicate that the client is in true labor? (Select all that apply.) A.Pain in the lower back that radiates to abdomen B.Contractions decreased in frequency with ambulation C.Progressive cervical dilation and effacement D.Discomfort localized in the abdomen E.Regular and rhythmic painful contractions Ans- A.Pain in the lower back that radiates to abdomen C.Progressive cervical dilation and effacement E.Regular and rhythmic painful contractions Rationale: These are all signs of true labor. Options B and D are signs of false labor.

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Maternity HESI Test bank (combined red
hesi and other sources)
An expectant father tells the nurse he fears that his wife is "losing her mind." He states that she is
constantly rubbing her abdomen and talking to the baby and that she actually reprimands the baby
when it moves too much. Which recommendation should the nurse make to this expectant father?



A.Suggest that his wife seek professional counseling to deal with her symptoms.



B.Explain that his wife is exhibiting ambivalence about the pregnancy.



C. Ask him to report similar abnormal behaviors at the next prenatal visit.



D.Reassure him that normal maternal-fetal bonding is occurring. Ans- D) Reassure him that normal
maternal-fetal bonding is occurring.



Rationale:

These behaviors are positive signs of maternal-fetal bonding and do not reflect ambivalence. No
intervention is needed. Quickening, the first perception of fetal movement, occurs at 17 to 20 weeks of
gestation and begins a new phase of prenatal bonding during the second trimester. Options A and C are
not necessary because the behaviors displayed are normal.



The nurse is preparing a laboring client for an amniotomy. Immediately after the procedure is
completed, it is most important for the nurse to obtain which information?



A.Maternal blood pressure



B.Maternal temperature



C.Fetal heart rate (FHR)

,D.White blood cell count (WBC) Ans- C. Fetal heart rate (FHR)



Rationale:

The FHR should be assessed before and after the procedure to detect changes that may indicate the
presence of cord compression or prolapse. An amniotomy (artificial rupture of membranes [AROM]) is
used to stimulate labor when the condition of the cervix is favorable. The fluid should be assessed for
color, odor, and consistency. Option A should be assessed every 15 to 20 minutes during labor but is not
specific for AROM. Option B is monitored hourly after the membranes are ruptured to detect the
development of amnionitis. Option D should be determined for all clients in labor.



A nurse receives a shift change report for a newborn who is 12 hours post-vaginal delivery. In
developing a plan of care, the nurse should give the highest priority to which finding?



A.Cyanosis of the hands and feet



B.Skin color that is slightly jaundiced



C.Tiny white papules on the nose or chin



D.Red patches on the cheeks and trunk Ans- B. Skin color that is slightly jaundiced



Rationale: Jaundice, a yellow skin coloration, is caused by elevated levels of bilirubin, which should be
further evaluated in a newborn <24 hours old. Acrocyanosis (blue color of the hands and feet) is a
common finding in newborns; it occurs because the capillary system is immature. Milia are small white
papules present on the nose and chin that are caused by sebaceous gland blockage and disappear in a
few weeks. Small red patches on the cheeks and trunk are called erythema toxicum neonatorum, a
common finding in newborns.



A breastfeeding postpartum client is diagnosed with mastitis, and antibiotic therapy is prescribed. Which
instruction should the nurse provide to this client?



A.Breastfeed the infant, ensuring that both breasts are completely emptied.

,B.Feed expressed breast milk to avoid the pain of the infant latching onto the infected breast.



C.Breastfeed on the unaffected breast only until the mastitis subsides.



D.Dilute expressed breast milk with sterile water to reduce the antibiotic effect on the infant. Ans-
A.Breastfeed the infant, ensuring that both breasts are completely emptied.



Rationale:Mastitis, caused by plugged milk ducts, is related to breast engorgement, and breastfeeding
during mastitis facilitates the complete emptying of engorged breasts, eliminating the pressure on the
inflamed breast tissue. Option B is less painful but does not facilitate complete emptying of the breast
tissue. Option C will not relieve the engorgement on the affected side. Option D will not decrease
antibiotic effects on the infant.



A 38-week primigravida who works as a secretary and sits at a computer 8 hours each day tells the nurse
that her feet have begun to swell. Which instruction will aid in the prevention of pooling of blood in the
lower extremities?



A.Wear support stockings.



B.Reduce salt in the diet.



C.Move about every hour.



D.Avoid constrictive clothing. Ans- C.Move about every hour.



Rationale:

Pooling of blood in the lower extremities results from the enlarged uterus exerting pressure on the
pelvic veins. Moving about every hour will relieve pressure on the pelvic veins and increase venous
return. Option A would increase venous return from varicose veins in the lower extremities but would
be of little help with swelling. Option B might be helpful with generalized edema but is not specific for
edematous lower extremities. Option D does not address venous return, and there is no indication in
the question that constrictive clothing is a problem.

, Twenty-four hours after admission to the newborn nursery, a full-term male infant develops localized
swelling on the right side of his head. In a newborn, what is the most likely cause of this accumulation of
blood between the periosteum and skull that does not cross the suture line?



A.Cephalhematoma, which is caused by forceps trauma



B.Subarachnoid hematoma, which requires immediate drainage



C.Molding, which is caused by pressure during labor



D.Subdural hematoma, which can result in lifelong damage Ans- A.Cephalhematoma, which is caused by
forceps trauma



Rationale: Cephalhematoma, a slight abnormal variation of the newborn, usually arises within the first
24 hours after delivery. Trauma from delivery causes capillary bleeding between the periosteum and
skull. Option C is a cranial distortion lasting 5 to 7 days, caused by pressure on the cranium during
vaginal delivery, and is a common variation of the newborn. Options B and D both involve intracranial
bleeding and could not be detected by physical assessment alone.



Prior to discharge, what instructions should the nurse give to parents regarding the newborn's umbilical
cord care at home?



A.Wash the cord frequently with mild soap and water.



B.Cover the cord with a sterile dressing.



C.Allow the cord to air-dry as much as possible.



D.Apply baby lotion after the baby's daily bath Ans- C.Allow the cord to air-dry as much as possible.

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