Equine Surgery Exam 2023 Questions and Answers
Verified 100%
a horse presents for a lameness exam and a hindlimb lameness is identified?
which of the findings is most likely related to lameness?
The medial-femorotibial joint has effusion.
which of the following statements is FALSE
Laser ablation or resection of a small portion of the caudal aspect of the soft palate is a
treatment option for epiglottic entrapment
image of lower limb with a straight line through it
normal pastern hoof axis
image of a lower limb with a line angled posteriorly
broken forward pastern hoof axis
image of a lower limb with a line angled anteriorly
broken back pastern hoof axis
Which of the following suture materials is not appropriate for closure of
subcutaneous tissues?
Polypropylene (Prolene)
Which (3) tools will be most useful for localizing a subsolar abscess?
Hoof pick, hoof knife, hoof testers
Which of the following is not an appropriate method of post-operative analgesia
in a horse that has had a small intestine resection and anastamosis?
Intravenous administration of acepromazine
Intra-lesional formalin injection is an accepted treatment for which of the
following upper airway conditions?
Ethmoid hematomas
Which of the following is FALSE regarding tracheotomy?
A small portion of the tracheal rings must be cut to provide adequate access for a
tracheotomy tube
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis of the condition shown in the accompanying
image (bubble on ventrum)
Umbilical hernia
Which of the following products is available and FDA approved for intravenous
injection?
Sodium hyaluronate
Which of the following conditions would be expected to improve after stall rest?
Subsolar bruising
Which serum chemistry abnormality may contribute to post-operative ileus?
Decreased calcium
Which of the following clinical conditions is MOST LIKELY to cause lameness?
Ringbone
Which of the following conditions has the BEST prognosis for athletic
soundness?
Apical sesamoid fracture
,Which of the following would be INAPPROPRIATE for skin closure of a laceration
on the dorsal aspect of the metacarpus?
3-0 suture size
Which wound location has the LEAST associated complications?
Pectoral musculature
The radial carpal bone articulates with which of the following?
2nd and 3rd carpal bones
Which fracture is MOST LIKELY to be open?
Long oblique radial fracture
Which of the following wounds would you expect to heal in the shortest time
period?
Facial laceration
Which of the following joints is arthroscopy not performed in?
Carpometacarpal
Which order of suture materials (the Ps) below ranks the absorption from earliest
to longest
Polyglecaprone 25, Polyglactin 910, Polydiaxanone
Which order of suture materials below ranks the absorption from earliest to
longest
Monocryl, Vicryl, PDS
Which of the following is the mechanism of action for Omeperazole (Gastroguard)
Blocks the parietal cell H+pump
The osteoblastic layer of the periosteum is the_________.
Cambial Layer
There are 3 parts associated with a bone sequestrum: the sequestrum and the
cloaca and the involucrum. New bone the parent bone surrounding the osteolytic
zone can be defined as the _________:
Involucrum
Question B-5: There are 4 anatomic divisions concerning emergency fracture
stabilization. Division III fractures involve the radius/ulna or tibia. How should
such a fracture be treated for transport to an emergency facility.
Robert Jones bandage plus a lateral splint long enough to reach to or above the withers
or the rump.
True/False: Robert Jones bandages should never be used alone as external
coaptation in horses.
true
The two MOST COMMON pressure points associated with half-limb cast
application in the horse:
Dorsoproximal cannon bone and back of the fetlock
Incisive bone fractures are BEST treated by:
Orthopedic wiring
The MOST COMMON scapular fracture involves the
Supraglenoid tubercle
Question B-10: Which muscles originate and attach to the supraglenoid tubercle?
Biceps brachii and coracobrachialis
,Clinical signs associated with a horse with a fracture of the supraglenoid tubercle
include:
Weight bearing and shortened cranial phase of stride as well as swelling over the point
of the shoulder
What fractures are associated with disruption of the triceps apparatus?
Olecranon and humerus
What is the size limitation for repair of humeral or femoral fracture in a foal?
250kg
Of the following which is the MOST COMMON fracture of MC3 in race horses?
Lateral condylar
Fractures of the proximal palmar cortex of MC3 are commonly associated with
the origin of the ________.
suspensory ligament
Bucked shins MOST commonly occur in what type of horse?
2 year old Race horse
What is the limiting factor in prognosis of distal splint bone fracture?
Suspensory desmitis
Which of the following fractures of the proximal sesamoid bones can be most
successfully treated by surgical removal?
Apical fracture
What is the most critical structure to evaluate in order to determine prognosis
after proximal sesamoid bone fractures?
Suspensory ligament
What is the MOST likely etiology of a fracture of the distal 1/3 of the medial splint
bone of the left forelimb in a 5 year old Standardbred gelding?
hyperextension of the fetlock during a race or training session
The differential diagnosis for a horse presented for a "dropped" elbow that is
unable to fix the carpus in extension includes which of the following?
All of the above
You are presented with a 6 week old Arabian colt with a closed complete mid-
shaft transverse fracture of radius . The clients would like to do everything
possible to save the animal for later use as a show horse. What is the MOST
appropriate first-aid treatment before shipping the animal to a surgical facility?
full limb Robert Jones bandage with lateral splint
Which of the following suture patterns is everting?
Horizontal mattress pattern
A true splint results from:
Tearing or stretching of the suspensory ligament from its proximal attachment
"Bucked shins" are a common problem in young Thoroughbreds. What is the
proper name for this condition.
Periostitis of the dorsolateral aspect of the third metacarpal bone
You are presented with a horse with an acute severe left hind limb lameness. You
suspect that the horse has a pelvic fracture because you can feel crepitus
rectally. You advise the owner that the next best thing to do would be to
anesthetize the horse to obtain pelvic radiographs. Why would you go to the
trouble of anesthesia to obtain pelvic radiographs?
, To determine if the acetabulum is involved
Total body water is approximately what percent of body weight in the adult
horse?
60 Percent
Which of these is normal arterial blood pH in the horse?
7.4
Respiratory disease may be evaluated adequately with a venous blood gas
analysis. (T/F)
false
Maintenance fluid intake levels in the horse are:
2 ml/kg/hour
What is the normal volume of a horse's stomach?
10 liters
Bicarbonate concentration is roughly equivalent to___________.
TCO2
A blood transfusion would be MOST appropriate in which of the following
situations?
PCV 12 Percent TPP 5.5 gm/dl. Three day old foal with neonatal isoerythrolysis
The MOST common reason for hyperkalemia in a 3 day old Thoroughbred foal
is__________.
Uroperitoneum
Blister beetle toxicity results in ____________.
Hypocalcemia
What is the recommended dosage for potassium penicillin in the horse?
22000 IU/kg IV qid
What is the mechanism of action of penicillin G?
inhibits cell wall synthesis
How is penicillin eliminated?
Urine
Penicillin is more effective against rapidly growing bacteria than slowly growing
bacteria? (T/F)
true
An 8 year old Quarter Horse mare presents for upper airway evaluation. History
includes exercise intolerance and upper airway noise when the horse is ridden at
a trot or canter. Endoscopic examination of the upper airway is performed and
the right arytenoid cartilage is not able abduct fully. Which of the following
statements is incorrect ?
The most likely diagnosis is idiopathic laryngeal hemiplegia.
Tetracycline is indicated for which of the following diseases?
Potomac Horse Fever
Which is MOST LIKELY to be effective against Pseudomonas spp?
Ticarcillin
Which of the following is a DISADVANTAGE of the use of oral chloramphenicol
therapy in horses?
Short half life requires frequent administration
Which of the following is a COMMONLY used dosage for ceftiofur (50mg/ml)?
Verified 100%
a horse presents for a lameness exam and a hindlimb lameness is identified?
which of the findings is most likely related to lameness?
The medial-femorotibial joint has effusion.
which of the following statements is FALSE
Laser ablation or resection of a small portion of the caudal aspect of the soft palate is a
treatment option for epiglottic entrapment
image of lower limb with a straight line through it
normal pastern hoof axis
image of a lower limb with a line angled posteriorly
broken forward pastern hoof axis
image of a lower limb with a line angled anteriorly
broken back pastern hoof axis
Which of the following suture materials is not appropriate for closure of
subcutaneous tissues?
Polypropylene (Prolene)
Which (3) tools will be most useful for localizing a subsolar abscess?
Hoof pick, hoof knife, hoof testers
Which of the following is not an appropriate method of post-operative analgesia
in a horse that has had a small intestine resection and anastamosis?
Intravenous administration of acepromazine
Intra-lesional formalin injection is an accepted treatment for which of the
following upper airway conditions?
Ethmoid hematomas
Which of the following is FALSE regarding tracheotomy?
A small portion of the tracheal rings must be cut to provide adequate access for a
tracheotomy tube
What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis of the condition shown in the accompanying
image (bubble on ventrum)
Umbilical hernia
Which of the following products is available and FDA approved for intravenous
injection?
Sodium hyaluronate
Which of the following conditions would be expected to improve after stall rest?
Subsolar bruising
Which serum chemistry abnormality may contribute to post-operative ileus?
Decreased calcium
Which of the following clinical conditions is MOST LIKELY to cause lameness?
Ringbone
Which of the following conditions has the BEST prognosis for athletic
soundness?
Apical sesamoid fracture
,Which of the following would be INAPPROPRIATE for skin closure of a laceration
on the dorsal aspect of the metacarpus?
3-0 suture size
Which wound location has the LEAST associated complications?
Pectoral musculature
The radial carpal bone articulates with which of the following?
2nd and 3rd carpal bones
Which fracture is MOST LIKELY to be open?
Long oblique radial fracture
Which of the following wounds would you expect to heal in the shortest time
period?
Facial laceration
Which of the following joints is arthroscopy not performed in?
Carpometacarpal
Which order of suture materials (the Ps) below ranks the absorption from earliest
to longest
Polyglecaprone 25, Polyglactin 910, Polydiaxanone
Which order of suture materials below ranks the absorption from earliest to
longest
Monocryl, Vicryl, PDS
Which of the following is the mechanism of action for Omeperazole (Gastroguard)
Blocks the parietal cell H+pump
The osteoblastic layer of the periosteum is the_________.
Cambial Layer
There are 3 parts associated with a bone sequestrum: the sequestrum and the
cloaca and the involucrum. New bone the parent bone surrounding the osteolytic
zone can be defined as the _________:
Involucrum
Question B-5: There are 4 anatomic divisions concerning emergency fracture
stabilization. Division III fractures involve the radius/ulna or tibia. How should
such a fracture be treated for transport to an emergency facility.
Robert Jones bandage plus a lateral splint long enough to reach to or above the withers
or the rump.
True/False: Robert Jones bandages should never be used alone as external
coaptation in horses.
true
The two MOST COMMON pressure points associated with half-limb cast
application in the horse:
Dorsoproximal cannon bone and back of the fetlock
Incisive bone fractures are BEST treated by:
Orthopedic wiring
The MOST COMMON scapular fracture involves the
Supraglenoid tubercle
Question B-10: Which muscles originate and attach to the supraglenoid tubercle?
Biceps brachii and coracobrachialis
,Clinical signs associated with a horse with a fracture of the supraglenoid tubercle
include:
Weight bearing and shortened cranial phase of stride as well as swelling over the point
of the shoulder
What fractures are associated with disruption of the triceps apparatus?
Olecranon and humerus
What is the size limitation for repair of humeral or femoral fracture in a foal?
250kg
Of the following which is the MOST COMMON fracture of MC3 in race horses?
Lateral condylar
Fractures of the proximal palmar cortex of MC3 are commonly associated with
the origin of the ________.
suspensory ligament
Bucked shins MOST commonly occur in what type of horse?
2 year old Race horse
What is the limiting factor in prognosis of distal splint bone fracture?
Suspensory desmitis
Which of the following fractures of the proximal sesamoid bones can be most
successfully treated by surgical removal?
Apical fracture
What is the most critical structure to evaluate in order to determine prognosis
after proximal sesamoid bone fractures?
Suspensory ligament
What is the MOST likely etiology of a fracture of the distal 1/3 of the medial splint
bone of the left forelimb in a 5 year old Standardbred gelding?
hyperextension of the fetlock during a race or training session
The differential diagnosis for a horse presented for a "dropped" elbow that is
unable to fix the carpus in extension includes which of the following?
All of the above
You are presented with a 6 week old Arabian colt with a closed complete mid-
shaft transverse fracture of radius . The clients would like to do everything
possible to save the animal for later use as a show horse. What is the MOST
appropriate first-aid treatment before shipping the animal to a surgical facility?
full limb Robert Jones bandage with lateral splint
Which of the following suture patterns is everting?
Horizontal mattress pattern
A true splint results from:
Tearing or stretching of the suspensory ligament from its proximal attachment
"Bucked shins" are a common problem in young Thoroughbreds. What is the
proper name for this condition.
Periostitis of the dorsolateral aspect of the third metacarpal bone
You are presented with a horse with an acute severe left hind limb lameness. You
suspect that the horse has a pelvic fracture because you can feel crepitus
rectally. You advise the owner that the next best thing to do would be to
anesthetize the horse to obtain pelvic radiographs. Why would you go to the
trouble of anesthesia to obtain pelvic radiographs?
, To determine if the acetabulum is involved
Total body water is approximately what percent of body weight in the adult
horse?
60 Percent
Which of these is normal arterial blood pH in the horse?
7.4
Respiratory disease may be evaluated adequately with a venous blood gas
analysis. (T/F)
false
Maintenance fluid intake levels in the horse are:
2 ml/kg/hour
What is the normal volume of a horse's stomach?
10 liters
Bicarbonate concentration is roughly equivalent to___________.
TCO2
A blood transfusion would be MOST appropriate in which of the following
situations?
PCV 12 Percent TPP 5.5 gm/dl. Three day old foal with neonatal isoerythrolysis
The MOST common reason for hyperkalemia in a 3 day old Thoroughbred foal
is__________.
Uroperitoneum
Blister beetle toxicity results in ____________.
Hypocalcemia
What is the recommended dosage for potassium penicillin in the horse?
22000 IU/kg IV qid
What is the mechanism of action of penicillin G?
inhibits cell wall synthesis
How is penicillin eliminated?
Urine
Penicillin is more effective against rapidly growing bacteria than slowly growing
bacteria? (T/F)
true
An 8 year old Quarter Horse mare presents for upper airway evaluation. History
includes exercise intolerance and upper airway noise when the horse is ridden at
a trot or canter. Endoscopic examination of the upper airway is performed and
the right arytenoid cartilage is not able abduct fully. Which of the following
statements is incorrect ?
The most likely diagnosis is idiopathic laryngeal hemiplegia.
Tetracycline is indicated for which of the following diseases?
Potomac Horse Fever
Which is MOST LIKELY to be effective against Pseudomonas spp?
Ticarcillin
Which of the following is a DISADVANTAGE of the use of oral chloramphenicol
therapy in horses?
Short half life requires frequent administration
Which of the following is a COMMONLY used dosage for ceftiofur (50mg/ml)?
