Pharmacology and Parenteral Therapies All Possible
Questions and Answers 2023 with complete solution
A nurse is developing a teaching plan for a patient regarding his anxiolytic
therapy. What fact is most important for the nurse to include?
1. Discontinue if symptoms of drowsiness appear.
2. Avoid taking the medication with food.
3. Take the medication as needed for anxiety.
4. Refrain from alcohol consumption while taking this medication.
4. Refrain from alcohol consumption while taking this medication.
Rationale: Alcohol should be avoided by patients receiving anxiolytic therapy because it
enhances the effect of the medication. Drowsiness may be a side effect of an anxiolytic
medication (1). Anxiolytics may be taken with or without food (2). Anxiolytic medications
should be taken as prescribed by the ordering physician (3).
When preparing to administer an antibiotic to a patient, the nurse understands it
will be effective in the treatment of an infectious disease process primarily
because antibiotics:
1. Reduce the inflammatory response.
2. Enhance the body's natural immune function.
3. Block growth of essential components of the bacterial cell.
4. Immobilize bacteria and allow them to be eliminated from the body.
3. Block growth of essential components of the bacterial cell.
Rationale: Antibiotics block the growth of essential components of an organism by
inhibiting or interfering with protein synthesis, thus leading to cell death or dysfunction,
rendering it unable to reproduce. Antibiotics do not directly reduce inflammation (1),
enhance the body's natural immune function (2), or immobilize bacteria (4).
Which drug would directly prompt the nurse to monitor a patient's partial
thromboplastin time (PTT)?
1. Aspirin
2. Warfarin
3. Heparin
4. Phytonadione (vitamin K)
3. Heparin
Rationale: Heparin directly affects fibrin clot formation by prolonging the coagulation
process. This timing is measured by the partial thromboplastin time (PTT). Warfarin
(Coumadin) prolongs prothrombin time (PT) (2); aspirin decreases platelet aggregation
(1); and phytonadione (vitamin K) is necessary for prothrombin formation and is used as
an antidote for warfarin (4).
A patient is to begin intravenous antibiotic therapy for a urinary tract infection.
What test should be completed before the first dose of antibiotic is administered?
1. Urinalysis
2. Urine culture
3. Chest x-ray
4. Red blood cell (RBC) count
,2. Urine culture
Rationale: A urine specimen is obtained to determine the causative organism, then a
broad-spectrum antibiotic may be given. After the organism is identified, an organism-
specific antibiotic can be prescribed. Cultures are always obtained before antibiotics are
administered. Urinalysis is nonspecific and will not identify the causative organism (1). A
chest x-ray (3) and red blood cell (RBC) count (4) may be completed before the first
dose of antibiotic; however, they do not provide diagnosis of the causative organism.
A nurse administering immunizations is preventing infection by which of the
following mechanisms?
1. Enhancing the defense of the host.
2. Eliminating the mode of transmission.
3. Introducing a weak secondary infection.
4. Blocking the immune response of the host.
1. Enhancing the defense of the host.
Rationale: Immunizations and vaccines enhance the immunological defenses of the
host by stimulating the production of protective antibodies (active immunization) or by
the actual administration of antibodies for specific diseases (passive immunization).
Immunizations do not eliminate the mode of infection transmission (2), introduce a weak
secondary infection (3), or block the immune response of the host (4).
The nurse is aware that which food(s) would be most beneficial in the diet of a
patient receiving Lanoxin (digoxin)?
1. Decaffeinated coffee and colas
2. Corned beef and cabbage
3. Fish and cheese
4. Bananas and oranges
4. Bananas and oranges
Rationale: Digoxin causes hypercalcemia and hypokalemia. Bananas and oranges are
high in potassium and low in calcium. The other answer options (1,2,3) are not directly
restricted or encouraged in patients receiving Lanoxin (digoxin).
Furosemide (Lasix) is prescribed for a patient on a low-sodium diet. What food is
best for the nurse to instruct the patient to include in the diet?
1. Bananas
2. Milk
3. Liver
4. Apples
1. Bananas
Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that will eliminate potassium from the
body by preventing renal reabsorption in the Loop of Henle. Bananas are an excellent
source of potassium. Milk (2), liver (3), and apples (4) are less potassium-rich than
bananas.
Teaching is required for clients who regularly use which of the following over-the-
counter medications to prevent hypercalcemia?
1. Antidiarrheals
2. Antihistamines
3. Antacids
4. Analgesics
,3. Antacids
Rationale: Many antacids contain calcium. When patients ingest calcium-based
antacids on a regular basis, serum calcium may elevate to toxic levels. Normal serum
calcium is 9-10.5 mg/dL. Antidiarrheals (1), antihistamines (2), and analgesics (4) do not
contain enough calcium to significantly alter a patient's serum level.
A patient is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg po daily. The nurse should
assess this patient for which electrolyte imbalance?
1. Hyponatremia
2. Hypernatremia
3. Hyperkalemia
4. Hypokalemia
4. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Hypokalemia heightens sensitivity to digoxin, predisposing the patient to
digoxin toxicity. Hyponatremia (1), hypernatremia (2), and hyperkalemia (3) are usually
not related to or found in patients receiving digoxin unless there is another underlying
cause.
A nurse is about to administer allopurinol (Zyloprim) to a patient diagnosed with
gout. The nurse should explain that the drug action:
1. Relieves inflammation.
2. Promotes uric acid secretion.
3. Relieves pain as an analgesic.
4. Inhibits uric acid formation.
4. Inhibits uric acid formation.
Rationale: Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is one of several antigout medications that decreases
serum and urine uric acid levels in patients who have a defect in uric acid metabolism.
In these patients there is either an overproduction or underexcretion of uric acid.
Allopurinol works by inhibition of the enzyme xanthine oxidase, which then blocks uric
acid production. Decreased uric acid levels reduce joint inflammation, so the effect of
allopurinol is not directly on inflammation (1). Allopurinol does not promote uric acid
excretion (2) or relieve pain similar to an analgesic (3).
A physician orders 30 mg/kg of methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) IV bolus to a
patient. The patient weighs 110 pounds. How many milligrams will the nurse
administer?
110 lb x 1 kg/2.2 lb = 110/2.2 = 50 kg
50 kg x 30 mg/1 kg = 1500/1 = 1500 mg
A patient is ordered a Humibid (guanifesin). The nurse's explanation of the
medication to the patient is based on the knowledge that this medication works
primarily to:
1. Suppress the cough mechanism.
2. Cause bronchodilation.
3. Thin and loosen respiratory tract secretions.
4. Block histamine receptors.
3. Thin and loosen respiratory tract secretions.
Rationale: Humibid (guanifesin) is classified as an expectorant and reduces the
viscosity of respiratory tract secretions. Guanifesin does this by causing irritation of the
GI tract, resulting in reflex stimulation to thin and loosen mucus. Guanifesin does not
, suppress the cough mechanism directly (1), cause bronchodilation (2), or act similar to
an antihistamine and block histamine receptor sites in the respiratory tract.
A patient with congestive heart failure has an order for digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg
IV stat. Available is an ampule of Lanoxin labeled 0.5 mg in 2 mL. How many
milligrams should the nurse administer?
0.25 mg x 2 mL/0.5 mg = 0.5/0.5 = 1 mL
A female patient has been taking Amoxil (amoxicillin) 500 mg 3 times a day for a
tooth abscess. She is now complaining of itching of the perineal area and states
that she thinks she has a "vaginal infection". What information should the nurse
include in the patient teaching?
1. The infection from the tooth abscess is spreading.
2. The Amoxil may have caused a superinfection.
3. She should see a gynecologist immediately for follow-up.
4. She will need to see her primary care provider for this problem.
2. The Amoxil may have caused a superinfection.
Rationale: In this patient situation, the Amoxil (amoxicillin) may be causing
superinfection. The perineal itching and perception of a vaginal infection may be related
to the Candida organism. Candida infections are a common side effect when large
doses of antibiotics are taken due to the destruction of the normal flora in the vaginal
area. The patient's new complaint of perineal itching is not related to the tooth abscess
infection spreading (1). She may require follow-up with her primary care provider (4) or
a gynecologist (3) after further assessment by the nurse or if the symptoms persist after
completing the antibiotics prescription.
A nurse is preparing to administer an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate. What
priority assessment should be made prior to infusion of this medication?
1. Respirations
2. Blood pressure
3. Temperature
4. Deep tendon reflexes
4. Deep tendon reflexes.
Rationale: A decrease in deep tendon reflexes is one of the initial signs of magnesium
toxicity. A baseline assessment including deep tendon reflexes should be performed
before the IV infusion is started and repeated every 4 hours during the infusion.
Respirations (1), blood pressure (2), and temperature (3) are also important
assessment parameters that should be monitored during an IV infusion of magnesium
sulfate. However, a decrease in deep tendon reflexes would be observed first with
magnesium toxicity.
A physician orders lorazepam (Ativan) 0.5 mg IM stat. Available is Ativan 2 mg in
1 mL. How many milliliters should the nurse administer?
0.5 mg x 1 mL/2 mg = 0.5/2 = 0.25 mL
A patient is ordered to receive heparin 2500 units subcutaneously every 12 hours.
The vial states "Heparin sodium 10,000 units/mL." How many milliliters of heparin
should the patient receive?
2500 units x 1 mL/10,000 units = 2,500/10,000 = 0.25 mL
A nurse is teaching a newly diagnosed non-insulin-dependent diabetic (type 2)
patient about the sulfonyurea drug prescribed. The nurse should explain that one
Questions and Answers 2023 with complete solution
A nurse is developing a teaching plan for a patient regarding his anxiolytic
therapy. What fact is most important for the nurse to include?
1. Discontinue if symptoms of drowsiness appear.
2. Avoid taking the medication with food.
3. Take the medication as needed for anxiety.
4. Refrain from alcohol consumption while taking this medication.
4. Refrain from alcohol consumption while taking this medication.
Rationale: Alcohol should be avoided by patients receiving anxiolytic therapy because it
enhances the effect of the medication. Drowsiness may be a side effect of an anxiolytic
medication (1). Anxiolytics may be taken with or without food (2). Anxiolytic medications
should be taken as prescribed by the ordering physician (3).
When preparing to administer an antibiotic to a patient, the nurse understands it
will be effective in the treatment of an infectious disease process primarily
because antibiotics:
1. Reduce the inflammatory response.
2. Enhance the body's natural immune function.
3. Block growth of essential components of the bacterial cell.
4. Immobilize bacteria and allow them to be eliminated from the body.
3. Block growth of essential components of the bacterial cell.
Rationale: Antibiotics block the growth of essential components of an organism by
inhibiting or interfering with protein synthesis, thus leading to cell death or dysfunction,
rendering it unable to reproduce. Antibiotics do not directly reduce inflammation (1),
enhance the body's natural immune function (2), or immobilize bacteria (4).
Which drug would directly prompt the nurse to monitor a patient's partial
thromboplastin time (PTT)?
1. Aspirin
2. Warfarin
3. Heparin
4. Phytonadione (vitamin K)
3. Heparin
Rationale: Heparin directly affects fibrin clot formation by prolonging the coagulation
process. This timing is measured by the partial thromboplastin time (PTT). Warfarin
(Coumadin) prolongs prothrombin time (PT) (2); aspirin decreases platelet aggregation
(1); and phytonadione (vitamin K) is necessary for prothrombin formation and is used as
an antidote for warfarin (4).
A patient is to begin intravenous antibiotic therapy for a urinary tract infection.
What test should be completed before the first dose of antibiotic is administered?
1. Urinalysis
2. Urine culture
3. Chest x-ray
4. Red blood cell (RBC) count
,2. Urine culture
Rationale: A urine specimen is obtained to determine the causative organism, then a
broad-spectrum antibiotic may be given. After the organism is identified, an organism-
specific antibiotic can be prescribed. Cultures are always obtained before antibiotics are
administered. Urinalysis is nonspecific and will not identify the causative organism (1). A
chest x-ray (3) and red blood cell (RBC) count (4) may be completed before the first
dose of antibiotic; however, they do not provide diagnosis of the causative organism.
A nurse administering immunizations is preventing infection by which of the
following mechanisms?
1. Enhancing the defense of the host.
2. Eliminating the mode of transmission.
3. Introducing a weak secondary infection.
4. Blocking the immune response of the host.
1. Enhancing the defense of the host.
Rationale: Immunizations and vaccines enhance the immunological defenses of the
host by stimulating the production of protective antibodies (active immunization) or by
the actual administration of antibodies for specific diseases (passive immunization).
Immunizations do not eliminate the mode of infection transmission (2), introduce a weak
secondary infection (3), or block the immune response of the host (4).
The nurse is aware that which food(s) would be most beneficial in the diet of a
patient receiving Lanoxin (digoxin)?
1. Decaffeinated coffee and colas
2. Corned beef and cabbage
3. Fish and cheese
4. Bananas and oranges
4. Bananas and oranges
Rationale: Digoxin causes hypercalcemia and hypokalemia. Bananas and oranges are
high in potassium and low in calcium. The other answer options (1,2,3) are not directly
restricted or encouraged in patients receiving Lanoxin (digoxin).
Furosemide (Lasix) is prescribed for a patient on a low-sodium diet. What food is
best for the nurse to instruct the patient to include in the diet?
1. Bananas
2. Milk
3. Liver
4. Apples
1. Bananas
Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is a loop diuretic that will eliminate potassium from the
body by preventing renal reabsorption in the Loop of Henle. Bananas are an excellent
source of potassium. Milk (2), liver (3), and apples (4) are less potassium-rich than
bananas.
Teaching is required for clients who regularly use which of the following over-the-
counter medications to prevent hypercalcemia?
1. Antidiarrheals
2. Antihistamines
3. Antacids
4. Analgesics
,3. Antacids
Rationale: Many antacids contain calcium. When patients ingest calcium-based
antacids on a regular basis, serum calcium may elevate to toxic levels. Normal serum
calcium is 9-10.5 mg/dL. Antidiarrheals (1), antihistamines (2), and analgesics (4) do not
contain enough calcium to significantly alter a patient's serum level.
A patient is receiving digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg po daily. The nurse should
assess this patient for which electrolyte imbalance?
1. Hyponatremia
2. Hypernatremia
3. Hyperkalemia
4. Hypokalemia
4. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Hypokalemia heightens sensitivity to digoxin, predisposing the patient to
digoxin toxicity. Hyponatremia (1), hypernatremia (2), and hyperkalemia (3) are usually
not related to or found in patients receiving digoxin unless there is another underlying
cause.
A nurse is about to administer allopurinol (Zyloprim) to a patient diagnosed with
gout. The nurse should explain that the drug action:
1. Relieves inflammation.
2. Promotes uric acid secretion.
3. Relieves pain as an analgesic.
4. Inhibits uric acid formation.
4. Inhibits uric acid formation.
Rationale: Allopurinol (Zyloprim) is one of several antigout medications that decreases
serum and urine uric acid levels in patients who have a defect in uric acid metabolism.
In these patients there is either an overproduction or underexcretion of uric acid.
Allopurinol works by inhibition of the enzyme xanthine oxidase, which then blocks uric
acid production. Decreased uric acid levels reduce joint inflammation, so the effect of
allopurinol is not directly on inflammation (1). Allopurinol does not promote uric acid
excretion (2) or relieve pain similar to an analgesic (3).
A physician orders 30 mg/kg of methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol) IV bolus to a
patient. The patient weighs 110 pounds. How many milligrams will the nurse
administer?
110 lb x 1 kg/2.2 lb = 110/2.2 = 50 kg
50 kg x 30 mg/1 kg = 1500/1 = 1500 mg
A patient is ordered a Humibid (guanifesin). The nurse's explanation of the
medication to the patient is based on the knowledge that this medication works
primarily to:
1. Suppress the cough mechanism.
2. Cause bronchodilation.
3. Thin and loosen respiratory tract secretions.
4. Block histamine receptors.
3. Thin and loosen respiratory tract secretions.
Rationale: Humibid (guanifesin) is classified as an expectorant and reduces the
viscosity of respiratory tract secretions. Guanifesin does this by causing irritation of the
GI tract, resulting in reflex stimulation to thin and loosen mucus. Guanifesin does not
, suppress the cough mechanism directly (1), cause bronchodilation (2), or act similar to
an antihistamine and block histamine receptor sites in the respiratory tract.
A patient with congestive heart failure has an order for digoxin (Lanoxin) 0.25 mg
IV stat. Available is an ampule of Lanoxin labeled 0.5 mg in 2 mL. How many
milligrams should the nurse administer?
0.25 mg x 2 mL/0.5 mg = 0.5/0.5 = 1 mL
A female patient has been taking Amoxil (amoxicillin) 500 mg 3 times a day for a
tooth abscess. She is now complaining of itching of the perineal area and states
that she thinks she has a "vaginal infection". What information should the nurse
include in the patient teaching?
1. The infection from the tooth abscess is spreading.
2. The Amoxil may have caused a superinfection.
3. She should see a gynecologist immediately for follow-up.
4. She will need to see her primary care provider for this problem.
2. The Amoxil may have caused a superinfection.
Rationale: In this patient situation, the Amoxil (amoxicillin) may be causing
superinfection. The perineal itching and perception of a vaginal infection may be related
to the Candida organism. Candida infections are a common side effect when large
doses of antibiotics are taken due to the destruction of the normal flora in the vaginal
area. The patient's new complaint of perineal itching is not related to the tooth abscess
infection spreading (1). She may require follow-up with her primary care provider (4) or
a gynecologist (3) after further assessment by the nurse or if the symptoms persist after
completing the antibiotics prescription.
A nurse is preparing to administer an IV infusion of magnesium sulfate. What
priority assessment should be made prior to infusion of this medication?
1. Respirations
2. Blood pressure
3. Temperature
4. Deep tendon reflexes
4. Deep tendon reflexes.
Rationale: A decrease in deep tendon reflexes is one of the initial signs of magnesium
toxicity. A baseline assessment including deep tendon reflexes should be performed
before the IV infusion is started and repeated every 4 hours during the infusion.
Respirations (1), blood pressure (2), and temperature (3) are also important
assessment parameters that should be monitored during an IV infusion of magnesium
sulfate. However, a decrease in deep tendon reflexes would be observed first with
magnesium toxicity.
A physician orders lorazepam (Ativan) 0.5 mg IM stat. Available is Ativan 2 mg in
1 mL. How many milliliters should the nurse administer?
0.5 mg x 1 mL/2 mg = 0.5/2 = 0.25 mL
A patient is ordered to receive heparin 2500 units subcutaneously every 12 hours.
The vial states "Heparin sodium 10,000 units/mL." How many milliliters of heparin
should the patient receive?
2500 units x 1 mL/10,000 units = 2,500/10,000 = 0.25 mL
A nurse is teaching a newly diagnosed non-insulin-dependent diabetic (type 2)
patient about the sulfonyurea drug prescribed. The nurse should explain that one
