ACLS Certification Exam All Possible Questions and
Answers 2023;(100% Verified)
Any organized rhythm without a pulse is defined as pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
True
Synchronized cardioversion is appropriate for treating an unknown wide complex
tachycardia.
True
The aorta is the wall that separates the ventricles of the heart.
False
The most effective treatment for ventricular fibrillation is defibrillation.
True
An individual should be cleared-Ñ prior to a shock only when convenient.
False
PEA and asystole are considered non-shockable rhythms and follow the same ACLS
algorithm.
True
Transcutaneous pacing should be used on an individual with bradycardia and
inadequate perfusion if atropine is ineffective and the individual is exhibiting severe
symptoms.
True
Low blood pressure may be an indication of hemodynamic instability.
True
Urgent defibrillation is essential for survival in the management of acute strokes.
False
Fibrinolytic therapy within three hours (in some cases 4.5 hours) of first onset of
symptoms is the standard when treating ischemic stroke.
True
100% oxygen is acceptable for early intervention but not for extended periods of time.
True
In a suspected acute stroke individual, you must always immediately obtain IV access.
False
There is never a pulse associated with VF; therefore, you should follow the PEA
algorithm with individuals in VF.
False
If the AED advises no shock, you should still defibrillate because defibrillation often
restarts the heart with no pulse.
False
If transcutaneous pacing fails, there are no other options to consider.
False
Medication is the only treatment for an unstable tachycardic individual.
False
For an individiual in respiratory arrest with a pulse, how often should they be ventilated?
A) Give two breaths every 8 to 9 seconds, or 13 to 15 breaths per minute.
B) Give one breath every 5 to 6 seconds, or 10 to 12 breaths per minute.
, C) Give one breath every 3 to 4 seconds, or 15 to 20 breaths per minute.
D) Give one breath every 8 to 9 seconds, or 6 to 8 breaths per minute.
B) Give one breath every 5 to 6 seconds, or 10 to 12 breaths per minute.
Which item is NOT a basic airway skill?
A) Placement of endotracheal tube (ET tube)
B) Bag-mask ventilation
C) Jaw-thrust maneuver without head extension
D) Head-tilt-chin-lift maneuver
A) Placement of endotracheal tube (ET tube)
Which of the following basic airway adjuncts can be used in a conscious or
semiconscious indivudual (with an intact cough and gag reflex)?
A)Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
B) Endotracheal tube (ET tube)
C) Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)
D) Esophageal-tracheal tube (combitube)
C) Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)
Blood or secretions in the mouth or upper respiratory tract may threaten the airway.
How can they be removed?
A) Bag-mask ventllation
B) Laryngeal tube
C) None of the above
D) Suctioning
D) Suctioning
What item is NOT an example of Advanced Airways?
A) Esophageal-tracheal tube (combitube)
B) Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
C) Endotracheal tube (ET tube) D) Laryngeal mask airway (LMA)
B) Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
The compression-to-ventilation ratio during CPR prior to placement of an advanced
airway is:
A) 15:02
B) 20:01
C) 30:01:00
D) 30:02:00
D) 30:02:00
True statements about AED use in special situations include all of the following
EXCEPT:
A) Do not use an AED in water.
B) Leave medication patches in place and place the AED electrode pads directly over
the patch.
C) Do not place the AED electrode pads directly over an implanted defibrillator or
pacemaker.
D) Extra care in placing electrode pads may be needed in individuals with a hairy chest.
B) Leave medication patches in place and place the AED electrode pads directly over
the patch.
Answers 2023;(100% Verified)
Any organized rhythm without a pulse is defined as pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
True
Synchronized cardioversion is appropriate for treating an unknown wide complex
tachycardia.
True
The aorta is the wall that separates the ventricles of the heart.
False
The most effective treatment for ventricular fibrillation is defibrillation.
True
An individual should be cleared-Ñ prior to a shock only when convenient.
False
PEA and asystole are considered non-shockable rhythms and follow the same ACLS
algorithm.
True
Transcutaneous pacing should be used on an individual with bradycardia and
inadequate perfusion if atropine is ineffective and the individual is exhibiting severe
symptoms.
True
Low blood pressure may be an indication of hemodynamic instability.
True
Urgent defibrillation is essential for survival in the management of acute strokes.
False
Fibrinolytic therapy within three hours (in some cases 4.5 hours) of first onset of
symptoms is the standard when treating ischemic stroke.
True
100% oxygen is acceptable for early intervention but not for extended periods of time.
True
In a suspected acute stroke individual, you must always immediately obtain IV access.
False
There is never a pulse associated with VF; therefore, you should follow the PEA
algorithm with individuals in VF.
False
If the AED advises no shock, you should still defibrillate because defibrillation often
restarts the heart with no pulse.
False
If transcutaneous pacing fails, there are no other options to consider.
False
Medication is the only treatment for an unstable tachycardic individual.
False
For an individiual in respiratory arrest with a pulse, how often should they be ventilated?
A) Give two breaths every 8 to 9 seconds, or 13 to 15 breaths per minute.
B) Give one breath every 5 to 6 seconds, or 10 to 12 breaths per minute.
, C) Give one breath every 3 to 4 seconds, or 15 to 20 breaths per minute.
D) Give one breath every 8 to 9 seconds, or 6 to 8 breaths per minute.
B) Give one breath every 5 to 6 seconds, or 10 to 12 breaths per minute.
Which item is NOT a basic airway skill?
A) Placement of endotracheal tube (ET tube)
B) Bag-mask ventilation
C) Jaw-thrust maneuver without head extension
D) Head-tilt-chin-lift maneuver
A) Placement of endotracheal tube (ET tube)
Which of the following basic airway adjuncts can be used in a conscious or
semiconscious indivudual (with an intact cough and gag reflex)?
A)Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
B) Endotracheal tube (ET tube)
C) Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)
D) Esophageal-tracheal tube (combitube)
C) Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)
Blood or secretions in the mouth or upper respiratory tract may threaten the airway.
How can they be removed?
A) Bag-mask ventllation
B) Laryngeal tube
C) None of the above
D) Suctioning
D) Suctioning
What item is NOT an example of Advanced Airways?
A) Esophageal-tracheal tube (combitube)
B) Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
C) Endotracheal tube (ET tube) D) Laryngeal mask airway (LMA)
B) Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
The compression-to-ventilation ratio during CPR prior to placement of an advanced
airway is:
A) 15:02
B) 20:01
C) 30:01:00
D) 30:02:00
D) 30:02:00
True statements about AED use in special situations include all of the following
EXCEPT:
A) Do not use an AED in water.
B) Leave medication patches in place and place the AED electrode pads directly over
the patch.
C) Do not place the AED electrode pads directly over an implanted defibrillator or
pacemaker.
D) Extra care in placing electrode pads may be needed in individuals with a hairy chest.
B) Leave medication patches in place and place the AED electrode pads directly over
the patch.
