NCSBN Practice Questions 76-90

NCSBN Practice Questions 76-90 An 18 month-old weighing 22 pounds is admitted to the pediatric unit with a diagnosis of dehydration. A replacement bolus of normal saline at 20 mL/kg is ordered to be administered intravenously over 40 minutes. In mL/hour, what will be the setting for the IV delivery system? Ans- 300 Using ratio proportion:First, convert 22 pounds to kilograms (22/2.2) = 10 kg20 mL/kg = 20 x 10 kg = 200 mL200 mL/40 minutes = x mL/60 minutes (in an hour)200 x 60 = 12000/40 = 300 mL/hrUsing dimensional analysis:20 mL/kg x 1 kg/2.2 lb x 22 lb x 60 min/hr x 1/40 min = 300 mL/hr The mother of a 2 month-old baby calls a pediatrician's nurse two days after the first DTaP, inactivated polio vaccine (IPV), Hepatitis B and Haemophilus influenzae type B (HIB) immunizations. She reports that the baby feels very warm, cries inconsolably for as long as three hours, and has had several shaking spells. Which immunization would the nurse expect to be primarily responsible with these findings? A. DTaP B. IPV C. Hepatitis B D. HIB Ans- A DTaP immunization is a vaccine that protects against diptheria, tetanus and pertussis (whooping cough). The majority of reactions described in this question occur with the administration of the DTaP vaccination. Contraindications to giving repeat DTaP immunizations include the occurrence of severe side effects after a previous dose, as well as signs of encephalopathy within seven days of the immunization. A client diagnosed with angina has been instructed about the use of sublingual nitroglycerin. Which statement made by the client is incorrect and indicates a need for further teaching? A. "I'll call the health care provider if pain continues after three tablets five minutes apart." B. "I will rest briefly right after taking one tablet." C. "I understand that the medication should be kept in the dark bottle." D. "I can swallow two or three tablets at once if I have severe pain." Ans- D Clients must understand that just one sublingual tablet should be taken at a time and placed under the tongue. After rest and a five-minute interval, a second and then eventually a third tablet may be necessary. The nurse is working with victims of domestic abuse. The nurse should understand which of these factors is a reason why domestic violence or emotional abuse remains extensively undetected? A. The expenses due to police and court costs are prohibitive B. Little knowledge is known about batterers and battering relationships C. There are typically many series of minor, vague complaints D. Few people who have been battered seek medical care Ans- C Signs of domestic violence or emotional abuse may not be clearly manifested and include many series of a minor complaints such as headache, abdominal pain, insomnia, back pain and dizziness. These may be covert indications of violence or abuse that go undetected. These complaints may be vague and reflect ambivalence about the disclosure of any violence or abuse. The nurse is obtaining an aerobic wound culture from a client with stage two pressure injury. The nurse first removes a gauze dressing and observes a moderate amount of purulent drainage on the dressing and then the nurse performs hand hygiene. What is the next correct step in the procedure? A. Swab the gauze dressing that was removed from the wound B. Irrigate the wound with normal saline C. Obtain a culture by rotating a sterile swab in the open wound D. Remove wound exudate from the wound edges with a cotton tip applicator Ans- B After removing the dressing and performing hand hygiene, the wound needs to be irrigated to remove surface pathogens before the nurse can obtain a wound culture. Cultures are not obtained from wound exudate on the dressing or wounds that have not been irrigated since the exudate may be contaminated with normal skin flora. The nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing frightening hallucinations that are markedly increased at night. The client's partner asks to stay a few hours beyond the visiting time, in the client's private room. What would be the best response by the nurse? A. "Yes, staying with the client and orienting the client to the surroundings may decrease any anxiety." B. "No, your presence may cause the client to become more anxious." C. "No, it would be best if you brought the client some reading material that the client could read at night." D. "Yes, would you like to spend the night when the client's behavior indicates that the client is or will be frightened?" Ans- A Encouragement of a family member or a close friend to stay with the client in a quiet surrounding cannot only help increase orientation, but can also minimize confusion and anxiety. The visitor could also report to the nurse any unusual findings of the client. This would be the most supportive approach for this client. The RN, who is functioning as the charge nurse, needs to determine shift assignments. How will the charge nurse determine which client assignments are appropriate for the licensed practical nurse (LPN)? A. Ask the LPN about prior experience caring for clients with similar diagnoses B. Determine how many nursing assistants are available to help the LPN with client care C. Refer to the list of technical tasks LPNs are trained to perform D. Review the procedure manual with the LPN prior to making an assignment Ans- A The definition of assignment is the routine care, activities and procedures that are within the authorized scope of practice of the RN or LPN/LVN. The RN must determine the needs of the clients and make assignments not only based on scope of practice, but also education, demonstrated competency and skill level. Regardless if the LPN received education and training to perform specific skills, the RN needs to determine the LPN's experience with caring for clients with similar diagnoses. While the RN is responsible for ensuring an assignment given to a delegatee is carried out completely and correctly, the LPN must be able to perform the skills or tasks independently. The nurse is caring for a school-aged child with a diagnosis of secondary hyperparathyroidism after treatment for chronic renal disease. Which serum lab data should receive priority attention by the nurse? A. Osmolality and sodium B. Blood urea nitrogen and magnesium C. Calcium and phosphorus D. Glucose and potassium Ans- C The parathyroid regulates the calcium and phosphorus serum levels. Calcium and phosphorous levels will be elevated in hyperfunction of this gland until the client is stabilized. To recall this information think of a see-saw. Associate that calcium is first in the alphabet and thus calcium follows the direction of the abnormality - hyper or hypo function - of the parathyroid. Put the calcium on one side and the phosphorus on the other side of the see-saw. The nurse is caring for a client who just had a central venous catheter line inserted at the bedside. Which of these assessments requires immediate attention by the nurse? A. Pallor in the extremities B. Increased temperature by one degree C. Involuntary coughing spells D. Dyspnea at rest Ans- D Complications of central catheter insertion include pneumothorax and hemothorax. Air embolism is another potential complication. Dyspnea, shallow respirations, sudden sharp chest pain that worsens with coughing or deep breathing are indications of pneumothorax. Other potential complications of central catheters may include thrombosis, local or systemic infection, or even cardiac tamponade (if the central line perforates the heart). When considering the options listed, the client who is dyspneic after central line insertion would be the greatest concern for the nurse. The nurse is providing preprocedural education to the client preparing for a barium enema. What statement made by the client indicates a need for further education? A. "I will need to drink plenty of fluids and eat foods high in fiber after the procedure." B. "I will use the prescribed laxative before the procedure." C. "I will not eat or drink anything after midnight before the procedure." D. "A barium enema is used to examine the upper and lower GI tracts." Ans- D A barium enema involves filling the large intestine (lower GI tract) with diluted barium liquid while x-ray images are taken. After the procedure, a small amount of barium will be immediately expelled and the remainder will be excreted in the stool. Because barium liquid may cause constipation, clients should eat foods high in fiber and drink plenty of fluids to help expel the barium from the body. A client admitted with heart failure is experiencing severe shortness of breath and states, "I feel like something is terribly wrong!" The client is restless and begins to cough up large amounts of pink frothy sputum. The client's skin is a dusky grayish color and the oxygen saturation levels have decreased from 92% to 76% in the last hour. What is the first action the nurse should take? A. Check vital signs B. Administer the PRN ordered oxygen C. Call the health care provider D. Place the bed in high Fowler's position Ans- B When dealing with a medical emergency, the rule is to assess airway first, then breathing, and then circulation. Starting oxygen is the priority. The other actions should also be implemented as quickly as possible, including activation of the rapid response team. The client is experiencing an acute episode of fulminant pulmonary edema, likely as a result of a new and severe cardiac event and possible cardiogenic shock. Emergency assessment and intervention is indicated to prevent cardiac arrest and possible death. There is an order for a continuous lidocaine infusion at a rate of 4 mg/minute to treat PVCs. The IV solution contains 2 grams of lidocaine in 500 mL of D5W. The infusion pump delivers 60 microdrops/mL. What rate in microdrops/minute would deliver 4 mg of lidocaine/minute? Report the response using a whole number. Ans- 60 Dimensional analysis (DA): Remember in DA, you always want to start your equation with what's called for in the solution. In this case, you want to know microdrops/drops/minute = 4 mg/min X 1 g/1000 mg X 500 mL/2 g X 60 microdrops/mL = 4 X 500 X 60/1000 X 2 = /2000 = 60 microdrops/mLAnother way to solve for X:What you have: 2 grams (2000 mg) lidocaine in 500 mL AND you are using a microdrip set (60 microdrops/mL)What you want/need: 4 mg lidocaine to infuse/minute4 mg/min X 500 mL/2000 mg X 60 (microdrops)/min = 60 microdrops/minute The nurse is reviewing client assignments at the beginning of the shift. Which task could be safely assigned to an unlicensed assistive person (UAP)? A. Stay with a client during the self-administration of insulin B. Clean and apply a dressing to a small pressure ulcer on the leg C. Empty a client's colostomy bag D. Monitor a client's response to passive range of motion exercises Ans- C If the UAP has demonstrated competency in the task, s/he may empty a client's colostomy bag. This is an uncomplicated, routine task with an expected outcome. The other tasks involve one or more parts of the nursing process and cannot be assigned to an UAP. The school nurse is screening the children for scoliosis. At what time of development should the nurse expect to see early findings of scoliosis? A. During the years when children begin to run and jump B. During a preadolescent growth spurt C. In early infancy before 8 months of age D. When a child begins to play competitive sports Ans- B Idiopathic scoliosis is seldom apparent before 10 years of age and is most noticeable at the beginning of the preadolescent growth spurt. It is more common in females than in males. The home care nurse is admitting a new client with a diagnosis of COPD, atrial fibrillation and gout. After reviewing the client's medication list, the nurse would arrange f