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Hanger: Mock Orthotics Written Exam 2023 Questions and Answers with complete solution

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Hanger: Mock Orthotics Written Exam 2023 Questions and Answers with complete solution Maximum dorsiflexion occurs during which phase of gait? a. Initial contact b. Mid-swing c. Terminal Stance d. Push Off c. Terminal Stance A single gait cycle is defined as the activity that occurs from: a. Heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side b. Double limb support on one side to double limb support on the contralateral side c. Heel off on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side d. Heel off on one side to heel strike on the contralateral side a. Heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side During which phase of gait are the hip extensors most active? a. Loading Response b. Midstance c. Preswing d. Terminal Stance a. Loading Response Which muscle most closely duplicates the function of the tibialis anterior? a. Tibialis Posterior b. Peroneus Longus c. Extensor Hallicus Longus d. Extensor Digitorum Longus c. Extensor Hallicus Longus Which of the following is often the result of an irregular birth? a. Gower's sign b. Down Syndrome c. Erb's Palsy d. Spina Bifida c. Erb's Palsy Which of the following is inflammation of the outer covering of the brain and spinal cord? a. Cerebral Palsy b. Meningitis c. Multiple Sclerosis d. Pleuritis b. Meningitis A patient presents to your office with bossing of the right posterior cranium and flattening on the left posterior cranium. How would you classify this? a. Right posterior brachycephalic b. Right posterior plagiocephaly c. Left posterior brachycephalic d. Left posterior plagiocephaly

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Hanger: Mock Orthotics Written Exam 2023 Questions
and Answers with complete solution
Maximum dorsiflexion occurs during which phase of gait?
a. Initial contact
b. Mid-swing
c. Terminal Stance
d. Push Off
c. Terminal Stance
A single gait cycle is defined as the activity that occurs from:
a. Heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side
b. Double limb support on one side to double limb support on the contralateral side
c. Heel off on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side
d. Heel off on one side to heel strike on the contralateral side
a. Heel strike on one side to heel strike on the ipsilateral side
During which phase of gait are the hip extensors most active?
a. Loading Response
b. Midstance
c. Preswing
d. Terminal Stance
a. Loading Response
Which muscle most closely duplicates the function of the tibialis anterior?
a. Tibialis Posterior
b. Peroneus Longus
c. Extensor Hallicus Longus
d. Extensor Digitorum Longus
c. Extensor Hallicus Longus
Which of the following is often the result of an irregular birth?
a. Gower's sign
b. Down Syndrome
c. Erb's Palsy
d. Spina Bifida
c. Erb's Palsy
Which of the following is inflammation of the outer covering of the brain and spinal cord?
a. Cerebral Palsy
b. Meningitis
c. Multiple Sclerosis
d. Pleuritis
b. Meningitis
A patient presents to your office with bossing of the right posterior cranium and
flattening on the left posterior cranium. How would you classify this?
a. Right posterior brachycephalic
b. Right posterior plagiocephaly
c. Left posterior brachycephalic
d. Left posterior plagiocephaly

,c. Left posterior brachycephalic
What is the primary target organ in rheumatoid arthritis?
a. Bone
b. Collagen
c. Ligament
d. Cartilage
d. Cartilage
What is the lubricant filled sac which, if removed, results in increased friction
a. Bursa
b. Synovium
c. Ganglia
d. Nucleus Pulposis
a. Bursa
What is the superior margin of the paraspinal bars on a Taylor TLSO?
a. L1
b. Spine of the scapula
c. Inferior angle of the scapula
d. Superior angle of the scapula
b. Spine of the scapula
Which pathology is most likely to be fit with free knee joints?
a. L2 spinal cord injury
b. Damage to the femoral nerve
c. Moderate knee flexion contracture
d. Genu varum deformity
d. Genu varum deformity
Which type of scoliosis is most likely the result of a leg length discrepancy?
a. Neuromuscular scoliosis
b. Congenital scoliosis
c. Nonstructural scoliosis
d. Idiopathic scoliosis
c. Nonstructural scoliosis
Which would you most expect to see in a patient with a plantarflexion contracture?
a. Late heel rise at terminal stance
b. Genu recurvatum at midstance
c. Increased knee flexion at loading response
d. Reduced knee flexion at midswing
b. Genu recurvatum at midstance
True dorsiflexion and plantarflexion occur in what plane?
a. Sagittal
b. Coronal
c. Frontal
d. Transverse
a. Sagittal
What orthosis would best restore upper extremity function for a patient with a spinal
cord injury above the C6 nerve root?
a. Cock up splint

, b. Mobile arm support
c. Wrist driven WHO
d. HO with thumb post
c. Wrist driven WHO
What is most appropriate for a median nerve injury at the wrist?
a. WHO
b. WHO w/ C bar
c. HO
d. WHO with thumb post
d. WHO with thumb post
The primary function of the brachioradialis is:
a. Elbow flexion, wrist extension
b. Elbow Flexion
c. Supination, wrist extension
d. Wrist radial deviation
b. Elbow Flexion
In addition to the deltoid, the axillary nerve innervates the:
a. Teres minor
b. Teres major
c. Short head of the Triceps brachii
d. Subscapularis
a. Teres minor
Which of the following statements is most accurate?
a. Coding should be done based on your experience as a clinician
b. It is the office administrator's responsibility to determine accurate coding
c. Coding decisions should accurately reflect appropriately provided services
d. Correctly completed coding should generate the maximum revenue
c. Coding decisions should accurately reflect appropriately provided services
The axis of rotation of the hip joint is located:
a. Anterior & superior to the greater trochanter
b. Posterior & superior to the greater trochanter
c. Anterior & inferior to the greater trochanter
d. Posterior & inferior to the greater trochanter
a. Anterior & superior to the greater trochanter
Which is not considered an upper motor neuron disease or injury?
a. Multiple Sclerosis
b. Cerebral Palsy
c. Diabetic Neuropathy
d. Cerebrovascular Accident
c. Diabetic Neuropathy
Aponeurosis is:
a. A flat broad tendon
b. A thin tendon sheath
c. A membrane dividing muscle compartments
d. A synovial joint lining
a. A flat broad tendon

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