SSEPs Practice Questions and Answers 2023 with complete
solution
When recording a posterior tibial nerve SSEP, the Fpz ‐ C5s channel records
A- subcortical near‐field potentials
B- the Erb's point potential
C- stationary lumbar potentials
D- subcortical far ‐ field potentials
D- subcortical far ‐ field potentials
In the 10 ‐ 20 system of electrode placement, the point 20% (of the nasion ‐inion
distance) anterior to Cz is called
A- Fz
B- Fpz
C- C1
D- Pz
A- Fz
An electrode measured 20% lateral to Cz on the right using 10 ‐ 20 system is
A- T3
B- A2
C- C4
D- C3
C- C4
P14 is a far ‐ field, subcortically generated response which probably reflects
A- caudal medial lemniscal activity
B- activity from the precentral gyrus
C- passage of the afferent volley
D- a stationary cervical potential
A- caudal medial lemniscal activity
If over three hours the PTN cortical response attenuates while subcortical is stable:
A- Do a wake ‐ up test
B- Stimulate peroneal nerve
C- Keep monitoring subcorticals
D- Inform the surgeon monitoring is no longer reliable
C- Keep monitoring subcorticals
In general, filter settings for SEP recordings
A- should always be 30 ‐ 3000 Hz
B- can be narrower for cortical than peripheral responses
C- can be narrower for peripheral than cortical responses
D- should always include 60 Hz band pass filters
B- can be narrower for cortical than peripheral responses
The initial waveform recorded of a near ‐ field PTN cortical potential is
A- of very low amplitude due to the significant distance between the generator and
recording electrode
B- positive due to electrotonic depolarization of the membrane under the recording
electrode
,C- always obscured by stimulus artifact
D- negative due to depolarization of membrane potentials
B- positive due to electrotonic depolarization of the membrane under the recording
electrode
A patient is admitted to the operating room diagnosed with a herniated cervical disc at C
5/6. The most appropriate nerve(s) to monitor during the resulting surgical procedure
would be the:
A- ulnar nerve
B- median and posterior tibial nerves
C- median and auditory nerves
D- peroneal and ulnar nerves
B- median and posterior tibial nerves
Somatosensory evoked potentials are most likely to be highly variable and less reliable
in patients with
A- myopathy
B- neuromuscular disease
C- a history of nicotine abuse
D- alcoholism
B- neuromuscular disease
Lower extremity SEPs are transmitted through the
A- gracilis nucleus
B- the superior olivary complex
C- cuneate nucleus
D- the lateral lemniscus
A- gracilis nucleus
Stimulation of the motor pathway at the spinal cord can be achieved with little
movement in the surgical field by
A- decreasing muscle relaxants
B- increasing the stimulation duration
C- slowing the stimulation rate
D- increasing the stimulation rate enough to produce muscle tetany
D- increasing the stimulation rate enough to produce muscle tetany
Which of the following upper extremity somatosensory responses is considered a
"stationary potential"?
A- N18
B- P14
C- N13
D- N20
C- N13
The use of the 60 Hz notch filter is discouraged while recording because it can
A- filter slow activity, distorting the response
B- cause the recording electrodes to form a salt bridge
C- produce a risk to the patient
D- produce ringing activity that can contaminate the appearance of the response
D- produce ringing activity that can contaminate the appearance of the response
, When monitoring with SSEPs, dural or direct cord recordings are advantageous
because:
A- the waveforms better reflect cortical responses to stimulation
B- they present less discomfort to the patient than scalp leads
C- they have less chance of artifact during cauterization
D- the waveforms are higher in amplitude and require fewer averages
D- the waveforms are higher in amplitude and require fewer averages
Electrical amplitude of the SEP is
A- 1000 uV to 10,000 uV
B- 10 to 100 uV
C- 0.1 to 10 uV
D- 100 uV to 1000 uV
C- 0.1 to 10 uV
An advantage of referential, as opposed to bipolar recording of spinal cord
somatosensory evoked potentials, is
A- the ease of electrode placement
B- avoiding cancellation of the potentials as a result of recording from adjacent levels
C- the elimination of electromyographic artifact from the paraspinous muscles
D- less invasion of the surgical field
B- avoiding cancellation of the potentials as a result of recording from adjacent levels
What is the main advantage of asynchronous bilateral stimulation?
A- Less patient movement
B- Reduction of stimulus artifact
C- Differentiation of local vs. systemic effects
D- Faster data acquisition
C- Differentiation of local vs. systemic effects
Which of the following is the best monitoring strategy for a C7 fracture:
A- MN and PTN
B- Sural and saphenous
C- MN and peroneal
D- Ulnar and PTN
D- Ulnar and PTN
Median nerve SEP produces a wave at the brachial plexus designated
A- N20
B- P23
C- N9
D- N11
C- N9
The SEP reaches adult form and latency by
A- 6 months
B- birth
C- 18 months
D- 8 years
D- 8 years
SEP stimulating electrodes should be
A- placed with the negative electrode proximal
solution
When recording a posterior tibial nerve SSEP, the Fpz ‐ C5s channel records
A- subcortical near‐field potentials
B- the Erb's point potential
C- stationary lumbar potentials
D- subcortical far ‐ field potentials
D- subcortical far ‐ field potentials
In the 10 ‐ 20 system of electrode placement, the point 20% (of the nasion ‐inion
distance) anterior to Cz is called
A- Fz
B- Fpz
C- C1
D- Pz
A- Fz
An electrode measured 20% lateral to Cz on the right using 10 ‐ 20 system is
A- T3
B- A2
C- C4
D- C3
C- C4
P14 is a far ‐ field, subcortically generated response which probably reflects
A- caudal medial lemniscal activity
B- activity from the precentral gyrus
C- passage of the afferent volley
D- a stationary cervical potential
A- caudal medial lemniscal activity
If over three hours the PTN cortical response attenuates while subcortical is stable:
A- Do a wake ‐ up test
B- Stimulate peroneal nerve
C- Keep monitoring subcorticals
D- Inform the surgeon monitoring is no longer reliable
C- Keep monitoring subcorticals
In general, filter settings for SEP recordings
A- should always be 30 ‐ 3000 Hz
B- can be narrower for cortical than peripheral responses
C- can be narrower for peripheral than cortical responses
D- should always include 60 Hz band pass filters
B- can be narrower for cortical than peripheral responses
The initial waveform recorded of a near ‐ field PTN cortical potential is
A- of very low amplitude due to the significant distance between the generator and
recording electrode
B- positive due to electrotonic depolarization of the membrane under the recording
electrode
,C- always obscured by stimulus artifact
D- negative due to depolarization of membrane potentials
B- positive due to electrotonic depolarization of the membrane under the recording
electrode
A patient is admitted to the operating room diagnosed with a herniated cervical disc at C
5/6. The most appropriate nerve(s) to monitor during the resulting surgical procedure
would be the:
A- ulnar nerve
B- median and posterior tibial nerves
C- median and auditory nerves
D- peroneal and ulnar nerves
B- median and posterior tibial nerves
Somatosensory evoked potentials are most likely to be highly variable and less reliable
in patients with
A- myopathy
B- neuromuscular disease
C- a history of nicotine abuse
D- alcoholism
B- neuromuscular disease
Lower extremity SEPs are transmitted through the
A- gracilis nucleus
B- the superior olivary complex
C- cuneate nucleus
D- the lateral lemniscus
A- gracilis nucleus
Stimulation of the motor pathway at the spinal cord can be achieved with little
movement in the surgical field by
A- decreasing muscle relaxants
B- increasing the stimulation duration
C- slowing the stimulation rate
D- increasing the stimulation rate enough to produce muscle tetany
D- increasing the stimulation rate enough to produce muscle tetany
Which of the following upper extremity somatosensory responses is considered a
"stationary potential"?
A- N18
B- P14
C- N13
D- N20
C- N13
The use of the 60 Hz notch filter is discouraged while recording because it can
A- filter slow activity, distorting the response
B- cause the recording electrodes to form a salt bridge
C- produce a risk to the patient
D- produce ringing activity that can contaminate the appearance of the response
D- produce ringing activity that can contaminate the appearance of the response
, When monitoring with SSEPs, dural or direct cord recordings are advantageous
because:
A- the waveforms better reflect cortical responses to stimulation
B- they present less discomfort to the patient than scalp leads
C- they have less chance of artifact during cauterization
D- the waveforms are higher in amplitude and require fewer averages
D- the waveforms are higher in amplitude and require fewer averages
Electrical amplitude of the SEP is
A- 1000 uV to 10,000 uV
B- 10 to 100 uV
C- 0.1 to 10 uV
D- 100 uV to 1000 uV
C- 0.1 to 10 uV
An advantage of referential, as opposed to bipolar recording of spinal cord
somatosensory evoked potentials, is
A- the ease of electrode placement
B- avoiding cancellation of the potentials as a result of recording from adjacent levels
C- the elimination of electromyographic artifact from the paraspinous muscles
D- less invasion of the surgical field
B- avoiding cancellation of the potentials as a result of recording from adjacent levels
What is the main advantage of asynchronous bilateral stimulation?
A- Less patient movement
B- Reduction of stimulus artifact
C- Differentiation of local vs. systemic effects
D- Faster data acquisition
C- Differentiation of local vs. systemic effects
Which of the following is the best monitoring strategy for a C7 fracture:
A- MN and PTN
B- Sural and saphenous
C- MN and peroneal
D- Ulnar and PTN
D- Ulnar and PTN
Median nerve SEP produces a wave at the brachial plexus designated
A- N20
B- P23
C- N9
D- N11
C- N9
The SEP reaches adult form and latency by
A- 6 months
B- birth
C- 18 months
D- 8 years
D- 8 years
SEP stimulating electrodes should be
A- placed with the negative electrode proximal
