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Math 3589 Introduction to Financial Mathematics Homework Assignment #8 Solutions Ohio State University

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Introduction to Financial Mathematics Homework Assignment #8 Solutions Exercise 16. Consider the two period binomial model, with the stock price at time t = 0, S0 = 4, the “up factor” u = 2, “down factor” d = 1/2, and risk free interest rate r = 1/4 so that ˜p = 1/2. Assume in each period the probability P[H] = 3/4. Solve the two-period investors problem for ∆i , i = 0, 1, if U(x) = −2e −x and X0 = 10. Solution. Let f(x1, x2, x3, x4) = 9 16 −2e −x4  + 3 16 −2e −xx  + 3 16 −2e −x2  + 1 16 −2e −x1  and g(x1, x2, x3, x4) = 16 25  1 4 x4 + 1 4 x3 + 1 4 x2 + 1 4 x1  − 10 = 0. For ¯x = (x1, x2, x3, x4), define the Lagrangian function L(¯x, λ) = f(¯x) − λg(¯x) = −18 16 e −x4 − 6 16 e −x3 − 6 16 e −x2 − 2 16 e −x1 − λ  16 100 (x4 + x3 + x2 + x1) − 10 . And we find the 5 equations    ∂ ∂x1 L(¯x, λ) = 2 16 e −x1 − 16 100λ = 0 ∂ ∂x2 L(¯x, λ) = 6 16 e −x2 − 16 100λ = 0 ∂ ∂x3 L(¯x, λ) = 6 16 e −x3 − 16 100λ = 0 ∂ ∂x4 L(¯x, λ) = 18 16 e −x4 − 16 100λ = 0 ∂ ∂λL(¯x, λ) = 16 100 (x4 + x3 + x2 + x1) − 10 = 0. (0.1) From here we see that x2 = x3, and setting the first and second equal, we see 2 16 e −x1 = 6 16 e −x2 =⇒ e −x1 = 3e −x2 =⇒ −x1 = ln(3) − x2 =⇒ x1 = x2 − ln(3). Similarly, 18 16 e −x4 = 6 16 e −x2 =⇒ 3e −x4 = e −x2 =⇒ x4 = x2 + ln(3). Plugging these into the last equation, we get 16 100 (4x2) = 10 =⇒ x2 = 12 Solving for x4, we find x4 ≈ 16.7236 and x1 ≈ 14.526. Now we find ∆1[H] = ln(3) 12 ≈ 0.091, ∆1[T] = ln(3) 3 ≈ 0.366 and ∆0 = X1[H] − X1[T] S1[H] − S1[T] = 4 5 1 2 125 8 + ln(3) +

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Math 3589
Introduction to Financial Mathematics

Homework Assignment #11



1. Prove that a symmetric random walk is a martingale.
Proof: Let {Mn }∞
n=0 be a symmetric random walk. Then

1 1
En [Mn+1 ] = (Mn + 1) + (Mn − 1) = Mn .
2 2



2. Prove that a symmetric random walk is a Markov process.
Proof: Let {Mn }∞ n=0 be a symmetric random walk and let f (x) be any
function of a dummy variable x. Then
1 1
En [f (Mn+1 )] = En [f (Mn + Xn+1 )] = f (Mn + 1) + f (Mn − 1) = g(Mn ).
2 2



3. Prove that the first passage time, τm , m = 0, 1, 2, . . . is a stopping time.
Proof: It’s clear from the definition that τm takes only the values 0, 1, . . .
and ∞. Furthermore, if τm = n for a sequence ω1 . . . ωj . . ., then this means
that the number of heads minus the number of tails in the first n coin-tosses
is m, and that this is not true for any smaller value of n. In particular, no
information about any coin-tosses after the n-th is used in determining τm ,
so τm satisfies the second condition for a stopping time:

τm (ω1 . . . ωn ωn+1 . . . ) = n ⇐⇒ τm (ω1 . . . ωn ω
en+1 . . . ) = n

for all sequences which agree on the first n tosses.

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