RCIS Practice Test 2023 with 100% correct questions and answers

What is the formula for calculating cardiac output? CO= HR x SV What is stroke volume related to? preload Preload is most impacted by..... Increased filling volumes A patient with chronic untreated hypertension would demonstrate.... Increased afterload Vascular resistance/pressure is most influenced by.... Radius of the vessel The formula for BP is.... BP = CO x SVR What component of a Pulmonary Capillary Wedge pressure indicates Mitral insufficiency V wave An elevated RVEDP is found in which pathology RV infarct If the RA waveform is 2x the normal value, where would this be demonstrated in the physical assessment JVD What is the most common cause of Pulmonic stenosis Congenital The Blue proximal part of the swan is located how far from the distal tip of the swan 30 cm When performing a thermodilution cardiac output, the operator injects 10 cc of saline into the _____ and the temperature change is measured in the ______ RA, PA Equalization of RVEDP and LVEDP are found in restrictive pericarditis Signs of Right sided heart failure include JVD Based on these oxygen saturations, what type of shunt is present? SVC sat= 67% IVC sat= 71% RA sat= 85% RV sat= 85% PA sat= 85% LA sat= 98% LV sat= 98% AO sat= 98% L to R ASD What type of ASD, located in the middle 1/3 of the atrial septum (the former site of the fossa ovalis) is called Ostium Secundum What is the Flamm's equation 3(SVC) + 1(IVC)/4 The formula used to calculate MAP is 1 (systolic) + 2 (diastolic)/3 What are the four anomalies associated with Tetralogy of Fallot Pulmonic stenosis, over riding aorta, RVH, VSD Which fetal anomaly is characterized by a large VSD over which a large single great vessel arises Truncas Arteriosus Pulsus Paradoxus is a sign of Cardiac Tamponade What does RAD stand for Radiation absorbed dose What component of the X-ray system converts light rays into images Image intensifier What is the maximum annual dose of radiation one can receive annually 5 REM Lead protection should be at least how many millimeters of lead .5 What is the minimum safe distance to position oneself from the X-ray source 6 feet In an X-ray tube what is the charge on the cathode and the anode Cathode: positive Anode: negative Which view exposes the operator to the greatest amount of radiation Lateral What converts x-rays into an image Image Intensifier The contrast that is best for a patient is low osmolality Radiolucent means X-rays are permitted to pass through Radiopaque means X-rays are not permitted to pass through ReoPro works on IIb/IIIa receptors Heparin potentiates the action of Antithrombin Fibrinogen is converted to Fibrin by the action of Thrombin There are _________ known pathways to imitate the clotting cascade 2 Aspirin inhibits the action of Arachidonic Acid Which agent is not an antiplatelet Heparin If a patient has diabetes and renal failure with a creatinine of 2.0 what would you give fluids to hydrate If a patient is taking NPH insulin, which medication should not be given Protamine Which medication is most commonly given to a patient with SVT Adenosine True/False If a patient has a creatinine greater than 1.4 contrast volume should be minimized True Lidocaine converts from 2GM in 500cc to 4 mg in 1 cc Dopamine concentration 1600 mcg/ml in 250cc yields a concetration of 400 mg in 250cc The best short acting medication/anxietolytic to sedate a patient is Versed/Midazolam The drug of choice for treating coronary spasm is NTG Amiodarone is used to treat Atrial and ventricular arrhythmias What medication is used as a preload and afterload reducer NTG Diabetic patients have a greater incidence of developing _______ post contrast administration Renal failure Which rhythm is most likely to become lethal Mobitz 2 The Impella catheter most closely resembles Pigtail When performing an LV angiogram with the LV injector, what is the purpose of setting a "rate of rise" It makes for a smoother injection, less catheter whip, limits ectopy An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads II, III, and AVF. What type of infarct would you suspect inferior wall An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads V5, V6, Lead 1, and AVL. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded Cx How do you test the defibrillator discharge into the defibrillator (dummy load) What happens if you deliver a shock to a patient on the T Wave You could put them into Vfib In 1st degree heart block, where is the conductive delay AV node What is the normal PR interval .12-.20 If a patient is attached to the monitor, V tach is rhythm, the patient has no pulse and is not responding, what should you do Unsymchronized cardioversion If a patient is on a monitor in SVT, SBP is 70, the patient is diaphoretic, dusky and SOB. What should you do Do immediate synchronized cardioversion A common complication of placing a pacing electrode/wire is Perforation/Preicardial Effusion/Tamponade A pacing generator that paces in both chambers, senses in the ventricle, and inhibits QRS complexes is a DVI A pacing generator that paces both chambers, senses both chambers, and triggers or inhibits is a DDD A pacing generator that paces in the atria, senses the atria, and inhibits pacing is a AAI What is the formula for calculating SVR Mean OR- Mean RA/CO Which cardiac output would be most accurate in a patient with tricuspid regurgitation FICK Which right heart pressure best reflects LV preload PCWP Which balloon is used for valvuloplasty inoue Aortic stenosis demonstrates a pressure that is elevated in the left ventricle and a pressure that is lower in the Aortic arch Calculate the cardiac output of a patient with the following data Arterial O2 sat= 98% Pulmonary artery O2 = 74% RV O2 sat= 71% Hgb= 14.7 PCWP= 12 O2 consumption= 250 ml/min Constant= 1.36 RA= 5 Mean gradient= 70 5.2 L/min Calculate the stroke volume on this patient ESV= 35 EDV= 85 BP= 120/74 EF= 40% HR= 70 50 cc Calculate an Aortic valve area with the following information HR= 85 Mean gradient= 64 CO= 4.2L/min BP= 136/74 Sep= .37 .37 cm2 Calculate the regurgitant fraction of a patient who has a thermal CO of 4.1L/min and an angiographic CO of 5.4L/min 24% This patient has a cardiac output of 5.1L/min. Calculate the SVR of this patient with the following data Mean PA= 24 Mean RA= 5 Mean PCWP= 15 Mean AO= 95 1411 dynec/sec/cm-5 If a patient has a pulsatile mass below the sheath site, and a bruit is a present, what should be suspected Pseudoaneurysm An abdominal aortic pulsation greater than 3.0 cm can be a finding for what Aortic aneurysm Back pain not relieved NTG, morphine or oxygen and not associated with EKG changes can indicate Aortic dissection Which stent is self expanding Wall stent A catheter has a diameter of 2.66mm. What French size is it BFR In relation to a coronary lesion where should the wire not be placed A. As distal as possible B. In the nearest side branch C. In a distal side branch D. Proximal to the lesion E. All of the above All of the above Which lesion is best addressed with a Rotoblador Calcified Which catheter should be used to cannulate an LAD with a high take off Amplatz Landmarks for an internal jugular approach include Head of the sternocledomastoid muscle and the clavicular head When performing a myocardial biopsy where are the tissue samples taken from RV Hypokinetic means decreased movement In the formula BP= HR x SV x Systematic Vascular Resistance, Dobutamie acts as an ____, to ____ by increasing____ Inotrope, increase stroke volume, contractility Which of the following are Angiostensin Receptor Blockers (ARBS) A. Lisiopril B. Losartan C. Metoprolol D. Valstartan Losartan and Valstartan NTG works to decrease preload when given during an MI by dilating Veins What is the function of low dose dopamine, 1-5mcg/kg/min Improves renal function and urine output If the patient complains of pain down the leg when attempting to cannulate the right femoral artery, which way do you move the needle Medial Coronary arteries perfuse best during Diastole What is the purpose of the IABP Increased coronary perfusion, decreased afterload An IMA catheter most nearly resembles a IR 4 What is the recommended rate of Burr rotation when using a Rotoblador 160,000-210,000 Overtightening of the Tuohy Borst will prevent balloon inflation or deflation The best device for management of an acute thrombus in a vessel is Angioget Which device employs the use of sterile heperinilized saline to evacuate thrombus Angioget What are the signs and symptoms of a retroperitoneal blood back or flank pain, drop in blood pressure, tachycardia, drop in Hgb and Hct Calcified lesions are best managed with which device Cutting/scoring balloon When using a temporary pacer, where is the lead placed RV When performing a myocardial biopsy post heart transplant, the biopsy is performed to evaluate potential for rejection of the transplanted heart The drive to breath in a person with no respiratory diseases is Elevated CO2 The drive to breath in a person with COPD is Decreased O2 The greatest risk when performing myocardial biopsy is Perforating of the RV When using the Rotoblador, when should the burr start rotating just proximal to the lesion Akinetic meaans no movement at all Dyskinetic means disorganized movement An ABI measures the difference between brachial and ankle systemic blood pressure The dorsalis pedal pulse is located on the anterior foot The posterior tibial pulse is located near the medial malleolus The site of myoxma is in the LA The best catheter to cross a stenotic aortic valve is AL2 What medications are commonly given when performing a radial procedure NTG, Verapamil, Heparin The Allen's Test assesses the flow in the blood flow in the radial and ulnar arteries The IABP catheter should be placed above the renal artery and below the left subdivision Which of the following symptoms after the use of a closure device warrants evaluation loss of pulses in the foot If the heart rate slows, what happens to stroke volume increases what happens to myocardial contractile force (dp/dt) when the heart rate slows down Increases The Eustachian valve is located between the inferior vena cava and the right atrium The Amplatzer Septal Occluder device is used to Close a PFO Function of the percutamneous Impella Evacuates 2.5 LPM from the LV; delivers it to the ascending aorta, improves CO, increases SV, improves coronary perfusion The head hunter catheter is used to visualize the left and right ICA and ECA The fossa ovalis is located between the RA and LA What is the most common cause of renal artery stenosis Atherosclerosis Renal artery stenosis is most commonly found in the proximal renal artery FFR measures pressure distal to a stenosis True/False when interpreting FFR, an FFR of .80 means that a stenosis causes a 20% drop in blood pressure distal to a lesion True True/False FFR expresses the maximal flow down a vessel in the presence of a stenosis compared to the maximal flow in the absence of a stenosis True True/False When considering FFR, values greater than .75-.80 indicate a non-significant stenosis and lower values indicate a significant stenosis True True/False When considering FFR, a significant stenosis (70%) may yield an FFR .80 if there is significant collateral flow to the vessel with the lesion in it True True/False Pulses alternans is a sign of left sided heart failure True True/False Prior to mitral valvuloplasty a TEE is needed as atrial thrombus is an absolute contraindication True How would you monitor heparin therapy if ACT is not available PT/PTT An elevated PCWP, orthopnea, increased LVEDP, and decreased O2 sat are signs of left sided heart failure What is the NYHA classification of a patient on a ventricle assist device IV-Severe limitation of activity; symptomatic at rest A washer that is visulaized on fluoroscopy is placed to mark the proximal vein graft An ABI measures the difference between the _____ and _____ pulses and a reading of ____ indicates a flow limiting lesion left brachial and left pedal; .7 Cannulation of the femoral artery should be one finger breath below the inguinal fold Choose the correct answers about a pseudo aneurysm (PSA) A. PSA occurs when an arterial puncture does not seal B. Pulsatile blood tracks into the perivascular space C. Blood is contained by the perivascular structure D. Takes on the appearance of a SAC E. Is the result of cannulating needle penetrating the anterior and posterior vessel walls F. All of the Above All of the Above Treatment of a PSA includes A. Thrombin injection into the SAC B. Ultrasound guided compression C. Surgical management D. All of the above All of the above PSA's occur most commonly when the puncture site is the (Choose all that apply) A. CFA B. SFA C. External iliac artery D.Given inadequate compression time SFA, external iliac artery, given inadequate compression time Physical signs of PSA may include (Choose all that apply) A. Palpable pulsatile mass B. Presence of a systolic bruit C. Significant site pain D. Loss of pulse in the opposite legg A. Palpable pulsatile mass B. Presence of a systolic bruit C. Significant site pain Which of the following are not associated with a retroperitoneal blood Cannulation 1 finger breath below the inguinal fold Which organ system is responsible for metabolic changes in pH Kidneys Which of the following organ systems cannot cause changes in pH (Choose all that apply) A. GI/endocrine B. Liver/pancreas C. Heart/vascular D. Kidneys/Lungs A. GI/endocrine B. Liver/pancreas C. Heart/vascular Which of the following are necessary prior to correcting an ASD (Choose all that apply) A. Documentation using the ICE catheter B. Evaluation using a sizing balloon C. Identifying the shunt to be in the ostium secundum D. Identifying the shunt to be in the ostium premium A. Documentation using the ICE catheter B. Evaluation using a sizing balloon C. Identifying the shunt to be in the ostium secundum Identify all of the following that pertain to the crushing stent technique A. Created for lesions in a side branch B. Created for lesions in a bifurcation C. The first stent is positioned in the side branch with about 1/3 of its length protruding into the main branch D. A second stent is positioned in the main branch E. The side branch stent is deployed first F. The main branch stent is deployed second crushing the portion of the side branch stent in the main branch All of the Above Contraindications for closure devices include (Choose all that apply) A. PVD B. Diabetes C. Cannulation above the inguinal fold D. Cannulation in the profunda All of the above The incidence of vascular complications increases when the groin stick is how far below the inguinal fold (Choose all that Apply) A. 1 cm B. 2-3 cm C. 3-4 cm D. 4 cm B. 2-3 cm C. 3-4 cm D. 4 cm The PR interval is .26. the conduction delay is not in the (Choose all that apply) A. SA node B. AV node C. Bundle of His D. Purkinje fibers A. SA node C. Bundle of His D. Purkinje fibers