MFT Practice Set 2023 Exam# 100
Questions and Answers
A young woman comes to therapy alone. She has been dating a
man for almost a year and they recently began having sexual
relations. Although the woman is sexually aroused during
intercourse, she is unable to achieve orgasm through either
intercourse or clitoral stimulation. The woman says that, while
this is her first experience with intercourse, she has masturbated
to orgasm several times. In treating the woman a therapist using
Masters and Johnson's approach to sex therapy is most likely to
recommend that the woman use which of the following
techniques?
Select one:
a. The bridge technique
b. The stop-start technique
c. Sensate focus
d. The squeeze technique - -Although many questions that ask
you to choose an intervention are "best answer" questions, this is
a "one-correct-answer" question because Masters and Johnson
suggest specific procedures for treating each sexual
dysfunction.Answer C is correct: In treating secondary Orgasmic
Disorder, Masters and Johnson emphasize the sexual value
system and recommend giving the couple permission to be
sexual, using sensate focus with constant communication of likes
and dislikes to the partner, genital play, penile containment
without thrusting, and, finally, coitus.Answer A is incorrect: Be
careful: this is associated with Kaplan's treatment for secondary
Orgasmic Disorder.Answer B is incorrect: This is associated with
Kaplan's treatment for Premature Ejaculation.Answer D is
incorrect: This technique is associated with Masters and
Johnson, but is used to treat male sexual dysfunction, such as
Premature Ejaculation.
The correct answer is: Sensate focus
-Based on the initial evaluation of a 15-year-old boy, a clinician
believes the nature and number of his symptoms suggest a DSM-
5 diagnosis of Attention-Deficit or Hyperactivity Disorder,
,predominantly inattentive presentation. Before assigning the
diagnosis, the clinician will want to confirm that some symptoms
were present before the boy was _____ years of age and that he
exhibits them in at least _____ settings.
Select one:
a. 7; 2
b. 12; 2
c. 6; 3
d. 10; 3 - -Answer B is correct: For a diagnosis of ADHD, the
DSM-5 requires that "several inattentive or hyperactive-
impulsive symptoms were present prior to age 12" (p. 60) and
that symptoms are present in at least two settings.
Answer A is incorrect: This answer describes the DSM-IV-TR
requirements for the diagnosis.
The correct answer is: 12; 2
-Bipolar I Disorder is distinguished from Bipolar II Disorder by
the presence of which kind of episode?
Select one:
a. Manic episode
b. Psychotic episode
c. Mixed episode
d. Depressed episode - -This is another straightforward recall
question about diagnosis.Answer A is correct: The presence of a
manic episode rules out Bipolar II Disorder. The criteria for
diagnosing Bipolar I Disorder include one or more manic
episodes.Answer B is incorrect: With psychotic features is a
specifier for Bipolar I Disorder, but psychotic episodes are not
one of the types of episodes associated with the Bipolar
Disorders.
The correct answer is: Manic episode
-Charles and Martha bring their two children to therapy. The
parents are concerned with how disrespectful the youngest child
is to the mother. Whenever she tries to discipline him, he
engages in name-calling and has threatened violence. The
therapist asks the mother to recall a recent event that occurred
and notes that the husband rolls his eyes and looks away as she
begins to speak. When the therapist calls attention to the
,husband's response, the youngest child immediately lashes out at
his mother. A structural therapist would view this interaction as:
Select one:
a. Conflict-detouring.
b. Reciprocal inhibition.
c. Equifinality.
d. Nonsummativity. - -Answer A is correct: Conflict-detouring
occurs when conflict from one subsystem is detoured to another
subsystem. This is often what is occurring in situations where
there is a family scapegoat. Reciprocal inhibition is a Behavioral
Family therapy term that describes the pairing of responses that
are incompatible with anxiety to the previously anxiety-
producing stimuli (e.g. systematic desensitization) (B).
Equifinality means that the same results may arise from different
origins. For example, an inhibited child may develop from
experiences of physical abuse or emotional abuse (C).
Nonsummativity is the concept that a system cannot by analyzed
by isolated segments: "The whole is greater than the sum of its
parts" (D).
The correct answer is: Conflict-detouring.
-Cindy and Tom Thomas come to counseling with their 6-year-
old son, Michael, who was adopted from a Romanian orphanage
three years ago. Michael has been slow to learn English, is
behind at school, and often doesn't seem focused or socially
engaged. Cindy and Tom tell you they often fight about Michael
and Tom says, "I think that Cindy spoils him and now he doesn't
want to do anything himself." Your next step would be to:
Select one:
a. Refer Michael for psychological and psychiatric testing.
b. Refer Cindy and Tom to a parenting class.
c. Normalize Michael's cultural adjustment process.
d. Get a release to speak with his teacher. - -Answer A is correct:
It is important to refer Michael for a psychological and
psychiatric evaluation. Because Michael's prenatal and first three
years of care are questionable, it cannot be assumed that his
problems are acculturation issues or weak parenting. In recent
years there have been many couples who have been stunned to
find children who were adopted from abroad were not properly
, cared for during their formative years and permanent cognitive
deficits have been the result. Russian and Romanian adoptions
have been under specific scrutiny in this regard. Referring Cindy
and Tom to a parenting class would not address any possible
existing organic or psychological problems. Because Michael's
prenatal and first three years of care are questionable, it cannot
be assumed that his problems are strictly the result of trial and
error parenting attempts (B). Helping to normalize Michael's
bicultural adjustment for his parents is not enough in this case
(C). Getting a release to speak with Michael's teacher might be
somewhat helpful, but it doesn't address the possible organic
problems this child may be having as a result of prenatal or early
neglect or abuse (D).
The correct answer is: Refer Michael for psychological and
psychiatric testing.
-Clementine, an 18-year-old high school senior, is referred for
therapy by her physician. She went to see her doctor due to
constipation and menstrual irregularity. Though slightly
underweight, Clementine talks excessively about being fat and
unattractive. When prompted by the MFT, she admits to thinking
that food is a "tyrant" in her life. She also discloses that she
sometimes "gorges on food" to a point where she feels sick and
throws up, but is quick to add that she does this no more than a
couple of times a week. Based on this information, the most likely
diagnosis for Clementine is:
Select one:
a. Anorexia Nervosa, binge eating or purging type.
b. Bulimia Nervosa.
c. Major Depressive Disorder with atypical features.
d. Body Dysmorphic Disorder. - -The information presented in
this question suggests that Clementine has an eating
disorder.Answer A is incorrect: Anorexia and Bulimia share some
features (e.g., disturbed body image), but a person with Anorexia
refuses to maintain weight over a minimal normal level for her
height and age.Answer B is correct: The primary clue indicating
that Clementine has Bulimia, rather than Anorexia, is that she is
only slightly underweight. Other signs of Bulimia include her lack
of control over eating ("food is a tyrant"); her preoccupation with
Questions and Answers
A young woman comes to therapy alone. She has been dating a
man for almost a year and they recently began having sexual
relations. Although the woman is sexually aroused during
intercourse, she is unable to achieve orgasm through either
intercourse or clitoral stimulation. The woman says that, while
this is her first experience with intercourse, she has masturbated
to orgasm several times. In treating the woman a therapist using
Masters and Johnson's approach to sex therapy is most likely to
recommend that the woman use which of the following
techniques?
Select one:
a. The bridge technique
b. The stop-start technique
c. Sensate focus
d. The squeeze technique - -Although many questions that ask
you to choose an intervention are "best answer" questions, this is
a "one-correct-answer" question because Masters and Johnson
suggest specific procedures for treating each sexual
dysfunction.Answer C is correct: In treating secondary Orgasmic
Disorder, Masters and Johnson emphasize the sexual value
system and recommend giving the couple permission to be
sexual, using sensate focus with constant communication of likes
and dislikes to the partner, genital play, penile containment
without thrusting, and, finally, coitus.Answer A is incorrect: Be
careful: this is associated with Kaplan's treatment for secondary
Orgasmic Disorder.Answer B is incorrect: This is associated with
Kaplan's treatment for Premature Ejaculation.Answer D is
incorrect: This technique is associated with Masters and
Johnson, but is used to treat male sexual dysfunction, such as
Premature Ejaculation.
The correct answer is: Sensate focus
-Based on the initial evaluation of a 15-year-old boy, a clinician
believes the nature and number of his symptoms suggest a DSM-
5 diagnosis of Attention-Deficit or Hyperactivity Disorder,
,predominantly inattentive presentation. Before assigning the
diagnosis, the clinician will want to confirm that some symptoms
were present before the boy was _____ years of age and that he
exhibits them in at least _____ settings.
Select one:
a. 7; 2
b. 12; 2
c. 6; 3
d. 10; 3 - -Answer B is correct: For a diagnosis of ADHD, the
DSM-5 requires that "several inattentive or hyperactive-
impulsive symptoms were present prior to age 12" (p. 60) and
that symptoms are present in at least two settings.
Answer A is incorrect: This answer describes the DSM-IV-TR
requirements for the diagnosis.
The correct answer is: 12; 2
-Bipolar I Disorder is distinguished from Bipolar II Disorder by
the presence of which kind of episode?
Select one:
a. Manic episode
b. Psychotic episode
c. Mixed episode
d. Depressed episode - -This is another straightforward recall
question about diagnosis.Answer A is correct: The presence of a
manic episode rules out Bipolar II Disorder. The criteria for
diagnosing Bipolar I Disorder include one or more manic
episodes.Answer B is incorrect: With psychotic features is a
specifier for Bipolar I Disorder, but psychotic episodes are not
one of the types of episodes associated with the Bipolar
Disorders.
The correct answer is: Manic episode
-Charles and Martha bring their two children to therapy. The
parents are concerned with how disrespectful the youngest child
is to the mother. Whenever she tries to discipline him, he
engages in name-calling and has threatened violence. The
therapist asks the mother to recall a recent event that occurred
and notes that the husband rolls his eyes and looks away as she
begins to speak. When the therapist calls attention to the
,husband's response, the youngest child immediately lashes out at
his mother. A structural therapist would view this interaction as:
Select one:
a. Conflict-detouring.
b. Reciprocal inhibition.
c. Equifinality.
d. Nonsummativity. - -Answer A is correct: Conflict-detouring
occurs when conflict from one subsystem is detoured to another
subsystem. This is often what is occurring in situations where
there is a family scapegoat. Reciprocal inhibition is a Behavioral
Family therapy term that describes the pairing of responses that
are incompatible with anxiety to the previously anxiety-
producing stimuli (e.g. systematic desensitization) (B).
Equifinality means that the same results may arise from different
origins. For example, an inhibited child may develop from
experiences of physical abuse or emotional abuse (C).
Nonsummativity is the concept that a system cannot by analyzed
by isolated segments: "The whole is greater than the sum of its
parts" (D).
The correct answer is: Conflict-detouring.
-Cindy and Tom Thomas come to counseling with their 6-year-
old son, Michael, who was adopted from a Romanian orphanage
three years ago. Michael has been slow to learn English, is
behind at school, and often doesn't seem focused or socially
engaged. Cindy and Tom tell you they often fight about Michael
and Tom says, "I think that Cindy spoils him and now he doesn't
want to do anything himself." Your next step would be to:
Select one:
a. Refer Michael for psychological and psychiatric testing.
b. Refer Cindy and Tom to a parenting class.
c. Normalize Michael's cultural adjustment process.
d. Get a release to speak with his teacher. - -Answer A is correct:
It is important to refer Michael for a psychological and
psychiatric evaluation. Because Michael's prenatal and first three
years of care are questionable, it cannot be assumed that his
problems are acculturation issues or weak parenting. In recent
years there have been many couples who have been stunned to
find children who were adopted from abroad were not properly
, cared for during their formative years and permanent cognitive
deficits have been the result. Russian and Romanian adoptions
have been under specific scrutiny in this regard. Referring Cindy
and Tom to a parenting class would not address any possible
existing organic or psychological problems. Because Michael's
prenatal and first three years of care are questionable, it cannot
be assumed that his problems are strictly the result of trial and
error parenting attempts (B). Helping to normalize Michael's
bicultural adjustment for his parents is not enough in this case
(C). Getting a release to speak with Michael's teacher might be
somewhat helpful, but it doesn't address the possible organic
problems this child may be having as a result of prenatal or early
neglect or abuse (D).
The correct answer is: Refer Michael for psychological and
psychiatric testing.
-Clementine, an 18-year-old high school senior, is referred for
therapy by her physician. She went to see her doctor due to
constipation and menstrual irregularity. Though slightly
underweight, Clementine talks excessively about being fat and
unattractive. When prompted by the MFT, she admits to thinking
that food is a "tyrant" in her life. She also discloses that she
sometimes "gorges on food" to a point where she feels sick and
throws up, but is quick to add that she does this no more than a
couple of times a week. Based on this information, the most likely
diagnosis for Clementine is:
Select one:
a. Anorexia Nervosa, binge eating or purging type.
b. Bulimia Nervosa.
c. Major Depressive Disorder with atypical features.
d. Body Dysmorphic Disorder. - -The information presented in
this question suggests that Clementine has an eating
disorder.Answer A is incorrect: Anorexia and Bulimia share some
features (e.g., disturbed body image), but a person with Anorexia
refuses to maintain weight over a minimal normal level for her
height and age.Answer B is correct: The primary clue indicating
that Clementine has Bulimia, rather than Anorexia, is that she is
only slightly underweight. Other signs of Bulimia include her lack
of control over eating ("food is a tyrant"); her preoccupation with
