Select All That Apply NCLEX Practice
#1
NURSESLABS-SATA-1-001
A patient is admitted to the same-day surgery unit for liver biopsy. Which of the
following laboratory tests assesses coagulation? Select all that apply.
A. Partial thromboplastin time.
B. Prothrombin time.
C. Platelet count.
D. Hemoglobin
E. Complete Blood Count
F. White Blood Cell Count
Correct Answer: A, B, and C.
Prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and platelet count are all included
in coagulation studies. The hemoglobin level, though important information prior
to an invasive procedure like liver biopsy, does not assess coagulation.
Option A: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is the time it takes for a
patient’s blood to form a clot as measured in seconds. It is used to
measure the activity of the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade. PTT
tests the function of all clotting factors except factor VII (tissue factor) and
factor XIII (fibrin stabilizing factor).
Option B: Prothrombin time (PT) is one of several blood tests routinely
used in clinical practice to evaluate the coagulation status of patients. More
specifically, PT is used to evaluate the extrinsic and common pathways of
coagulation, which would detect deficiencies of factors II, V, VII, and X, and
low fibrinogen concentrations.
Option C: Platelet count is being assessed to determine the number of
platelets in a sample of the blood as part of a health exam; to screen for,
diagnose, or monitor conditions that affect the number of platelets, such as
a bleeding disorder, a bone marrow disease, or other underlying
conditions.
, Option D: Hemoglobin is used to evaluate the hemoglobin content of your
blood as part of a general health checkup; to screen for and help diagnose
conditions that affect red blood cells (RBCs); if there is anemia (low
hemoglobin) or polycythemia (high hemoglobin), and to assess the severity
of these conditions and to monitor response to treatment.
Option E: The complete blood count (CBC) is a group of tests that evaluate
the cells that circulate in blood, including red blood cells (RBCs), white
blood cells (WBCs), and platelets (PLTs). The CBC can evaluate your overall
health and detect a variety of diseases and conditions, such as
infections, anemia and leukemia.
Option F: WBC count is used to screen for or diagnose a variety of
conditions that can affect the number of white blood cells (WBCs), such as
an infection, inflammation or a disease that affects WBCs; to monitor
treatment of a disorder or to monitor therapy that is known to affect WBCs.
NURSESLABS-SATA-1-002
A patient is admitted to the hospital with suspected polycythemia vera. Which of
the following symptoms is consistent with the diagnosis? Select all that apply.
A. Weight loss.
B. Prolonged clotting time.
C. Hypertension.
D. Headaches.
E. Polyphagia.
F. Pruritus.
Correct Answer: B, C, D, and F.
Polycythemia vera is a condition in which the bone marrow produces too many
red blood cells. This causes an increase in hematocrit and viscosity of the blood.
Patients can experience headaches, dizziness, and visual disturbances. Bleeding is
also a complication, possibly because the platelets are often very large and
somewhat dysfunctional. The bleeding can be significant and can occur in the
form of nosebleeds, ulcers, frank GI bleeding, hematuria, and
intracranial hemorrhage.
, Option A: Weight loss is not a manifestation of polycythemia vera. Weight
loss may result from early satiety or from the increased myeloproliferative
activity of the abnormal clone.
Option B: Patients with polycythemia vera are at increased risk
for thrombosis that may result in CVAs (strokes, brain attacks) or
myocardial infarctions (MIs); thrombotic complications are the most
common cause of death.
Option C: Cardiovascular effects include increased blood pressure and
delayed clotting time. Thrombotic complications (1%) include venous
thrombosis or thromboembolism and an increased prevalence
of stroke and other arterial thrombosis.
Option D: Physical complaints can include fatigue, headache, dizziness,
tinnitus, vision changes, insomnia, claudication, pruritus, gastritis, and early
satiety. Subsequent sludging of blood flow and thrombosis lead to poor
oxygen delivery, with symptoms that include headache.
Option E: Early satiety can occur in patients with splenomegaly, because of
gastric filling being impaired by the enlarged spleen or, rarely, as a
symptom of splenic infarction.
Option F: Generalized pruritus is caused by histamine release due to an
increased number of basophils. Aquagenic pruritus, which occurs during or
after a hot shower, is a complaint in 40% of patients. The mechanism is
likely from mast cell and basophil degranulation, causing a histamine
surge.
NURSESLABS-SATA-1-003
The nurse is teaching the client how to use a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) to
administer a Corticosteroid drug. Which of the following client actions indicates
that he is using the MDI correctly? Select all that apply.
A. The inhaler is held upright.
B. Head is tilted down while inhaling the medication.
C. Client waits 5 minutes between puffs.
D. Mouth is rinsed with water following administration.
E. Client lies supine for 15 minutes following administration.
Correct Answer: A & D.
, In using a corticosteroid MDI, remove the cap and hold the inhaler upright, stand
or sit up straight, shake the inhaler, tilt your head back slightly, put the inhaler in
the mouth, press down on the inhaler quickly, breathe in slowly for 3 to 5
seconds, hold the breath for 10 seconds, breathe out slowly, repeat puffs as
prescribed, rinse the mouth, and gargle using water or mouthwash after each use.
Option A: Keep the chin up and the inhaler upright (not aimed at the roof
of the mouth or the tongue). Use a spacer/valve-holding chamber (the best
way, useful for all patients) by putting the inhaler into the end with the
hole and the mouthpiece end in the mouth. If there is no spacer, hold the
inhaler 1 to 2 inches (or two-finger widths) in front of an open mouth.
Option B: Head is tilted up during inhalation of the medication. Start
breathing in slowly through the mouth and press down on the inhaler one
time. If using a spacer or valved-holding chamber, press down on the
inhaler before starting to breathe in. Breathe in slowly.
Option C: For inhaled quick-relief medicine (like albuterol), wait about 1
minute between puffs. There is no need to wait between puffs for other
medicines.
Option D: If the client is using this inhaler for a corticosteroid preventer
medication, with or without a spacer, rinse the mouth with water and spit
after inhaling the last dose to reduce the risk of side effects.
Option E: There is no need to lie supine after administration of the
medication. If more than one dose is needed, repeat all the steps.
NURSESLABS-SATA-1-004
The nurse is teaching a client with polycythemia vera about potential
complications from this disease. Which manifestations would the nurse include in
the client’s teaching plan? Select all that apply.
A. Hearing loss
B. Visual disturbance
C. Headache
D. Orthopnea
E. Gout
F. Weight loss
#1
NURSESLABS-SATA-1-001
A patient is admitted to the same-day surgery unit for liver biopsy. Which of the
following laboratory tests assesses coagulation? Select all that apply.
A. Partial thromboplastin time.
B. Prothrombin time.
C. Platelet count.
D. Hemoglobin
E. Complete Blood Count
F. White Blood Cell Count
Correct Answer: A, B, and C.
Prothrombin time, partial thromboplastin time, and platelet count are all included
in coagulation studies. The hemoglobin level, though important information prior
to an invasive procedure like liver biopsy, does not assess coagulation.
Option A: Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is the time it takes for a
patient’s blood to form a clot as measured in seconds. It is used to
measure the activity of the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade. PTT
tests the function of all clotting factors except factor VII (tissue factor) and
factor XIII (fibrin stabilizing factor).
Option B: Prothrombin time (PT) is one of several blood tests routinely
used in clinical practice to evaluate the coagulation status of patients. More
specifically, PT is used to evaluate the extrinsic and common pathways of
coagulation, which would detect deficiencies of factors II, V, VII, and X, and
low fibrinogen concentrations.
Option C: Platelet count is being assessed to determine the number of
platelets in a sample of the blood as part of a health exam; to screen for,
diagnose, or monitor conditions that affect the number of platelets, such as
a bleeding disorder, a bone marrow disease, or other underlying
conditions.
, Option D: Hemoglobin is used to evaluate the hemoglobin content of your
blood as part of a general health checkup; to screen for and help diagnose
conditions that affect red blood cells (RBCs); if there is anemia (low
hemoglobin) or polycythemia (high hemoglobin), and to assess the severity
of these conditions and to monitor response to treatment.
Option E: The complete blood count (CBC) is a group of tests that evaluate
the cells that circulate in blood, including red blood cells (RBCs), white
blood cells (WBCs), and platelets (PLTs). The CBC can evaluate your overall
health and detect a variety of diseases and conditions, such as
infections, anemia and leukemia.
Option F: WBC count is used to screen for or diagnose a variety of
conditions that can affect the number of white blood cells (WBCs), such as
an infection, inflammation or a disease that affects WBCs; to monitor
treatment of a disorder or to monitor therapy that is known to affect WBCs.
NURSESLABS-SATA-1-002
A patient is admitted to the hospital with suspected polycythemia vera. Which of
the following symptoms is consistent with the diagnosis? Select all that apply.
A. Weight loss.
B. Prolonged clotting time.
C. Hypertension.
D. Headaches.
E. Polyphagia.
F. Pruritus.
Correct Answer: B, C, D, and F.
Polycythemia vera is a condition in which the bone marrow produces too many
red blood cells. This causes an increase in hematocrit and viscosity of the blood.
Patients can experience headaches, dizziness, and visual disturbances. Bleeding is
also a complication, possibly because the platelets are often very large and
somewhat dysfunctional. The bleeding can be significant and can occur in the
form of nosebleeds, ulcers, frank GI bleeding, hematuria, and
intracranial hemorrhage.
, Option A: Weight loss is not a manifestation of polycythemia vera. Weight
loss may result from early satiety or from the increased myeloproliferative
activity of the abnormal clone.
Option B: Patients with polycythemia vera are at increased risk
for thrombosis that may result in CVAs (strokes, brain attacks) or
myocardial infarctions (MIs); thrombotic complications are the most
common cause of death.
Option C: Cardiovascular effects include increased blood pressure and
delayed clotting time. Thrombotic complications (1%) include venous
thrombosis or thromboembolism and an increased prevalence
of stroke and other arterial thrombosis.
Option D: Physical complaints can include fatigue, headache, dizziness,
tinnitus, vision changes, insomnia, claudication, pruritus, gastritis, and early
satiety. Subsequent sludging of blood flow and thrombosis lead to poor
oxygen delivery, with symptoms that include headache.
Option E: Early satiety can occur in patients with splenomegaly, because of
gastric filling being impaired by the enlarged spleen or, rarely, as a
symptom of splenic infarction.
Option F: Generalized pruritus is caused by histamine release due to an
increased number of basophils. Aquagenic pruritus, which occurs during or
after a hot shower, is a complaint in 40% of patients. The mechanism is
likely from mast cell and basophil degranulation, causing a histamine
surge.
NURSESLABS-SATA-1-003
The nurse is teaching the client how to use a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) to
administer a Corticosteroid drug. Which of the following client actions indicates
that he is using the MDI correctly? Select all that apply.
A. The inhaler is held upright.
B. Head is tilted down while inhaling the medication.
C. Client waits 5 minutes between puffs.
D. Mouth is rinsed with water following administration.
E. Client lies supine for 15 minutes following administration.
Correct Answer: A & D.
, In using a corticosteroid MDI, remove the cap and hold the inhaler upright, stand
or sit up straight, shake the inhaler, tilt your head back slightly, put the inhaler in
the mouth, press down on the inhaler quickly, breathe in slowly for 3 to 5
seconds, hold the breath for 10 seconds, breathe out slowly, repeat puffs as
prescribed, rinse the mouth, and gargle using water or mouthwash after each use.
Option A: Keep the chin up and the inhaler upright (not aimed at the roof
of the mouth or the tongue). Use a spacer/valve-holding chamber (the best
way, useful for all patients) by putting the inhaler into the end with the
hole and the mouthpiece end in the mouth. If there is no spacer, hold the
inhaler 1 to 2 inches (or two-finger widths) in front of an open mouth.
Option B: Head is tilted up during inhalation of the medication. Start
breathing in slowly through the mouth and press down on the inhaler one
time. If using a spacer or valved-holding chamber, press down on the
inhaler before starting to breathe in. Breathe in slowly.
Option C: For inhaled quick-relief medicine (like albuterol), wait about 1
minute between puffs. There is no need to wait between puffs for other
medicines.
Option D: If the client is using this inhaler for a corticosteroid preventer
medication, with or without a spacer, rinse the mouth with water and spit
after inhaling the last dose to reduce the risk of side effects.
Option E: There is no need to lie supine after administration of the
medication. If more than one dose is needed, repeat all the steps.
NURSESLABS-SATA-1-004
The nurse is teaching a client with polycythemia vera about potential
complications from this disease. Which manifestations would the nurse include in
the client’s teaching plan? Select all that apply.
A. Hearing loss
B. Visual disturbance
C. Headache
D. Orthopnea
E. Gout
F. Weight loss
