CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE AND PROCEDURE/Mock board for Criminology Licensure Examination

CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE AND PROCEDURE SET ONE INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no.2 only. 1. Berto, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father. What was the crime committed? a. Murder b. Parricide c. Homicide d. Qualified homicide 2. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latter’s will on suspicion that Bitoy keep unlicensed firearms in his home. What was the crime committed by PO3 Bagsik? a. Trespass to Dwelling b. Violation of Domicile c. Usurpation of Authority d. Forcible Trespassing. 3. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than six months. They live together with the children of Lea from her first husband. Charlie had sexual relationship with Jane, the 14 years old daughter of Lea. Jane Loves Charlie very much. What was the crime committed by Charlie, if any? a. Simple Seduction b. Qualified Seduction c. Consented Abduction d. Rape 4. Prof. Jose gave a failing grade to one of his students, Lito. When the two met the following day, Lito slapped Prof. Jose on face. What was the crime committed by Lito? a. Corruption of Public Official b. Direct Assault c. Slight Physical Injury d. Grave Coercion 5. A warrant of arrest was issued against Fred for the killing of his parents. When PO2 Tapang tried to arrest him, Fred gave him 1 million pesos to set him free. PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting Fred. What was the crime committed by PO2 Tapang? a. Indirect bribery b. Direct bribery c. Corruption of Public Officials d. Qualified Bribery 6. Which of the following is the exemption to the hearsay rule made under the consciousness of an impending death? a. Parol Evidence b. Ante- mortem statement c. Suicide note d. Dead man statute 7. Factum Probans means . a. Preponderance of evidence b. Ultimate fact c. evidentiary fact d. Sufficiency of evidence 8. It refers to a family history or descent transmitted from one generation to another. a. inheritance b. heritage c. pedigree d. culture 9. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the case in the first instance. a. Appellate Jurisdiction b. General Jurisdiction c. Original Jurisdiction d. Exclusive Jurisdiction 10. A person designed by the court to assist destitute litigants. a. Counsel de officio b. Attorney on Record c. Attorney at law d. Special counsel 11. Which of the following is not covered by the Rules on Summary Procedure? a. Violation of rental Laws b. Violation of traffic laws c. The penalty is more than six months of imprisonment d. The penalty does not exceed six months imprisonment 12. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to exercise. a. Jurisdiction b. Jurisprudence c. Venue d. Bench 13. The anti- Bouncing Check law. a. R.A 6425 b. R.A 8353 c. B.P 22 d. R.A 6975 14. The taking of another person’s personal Property, with intent to gain, by means of force and intimidation. a. Qualified theft b. Robbery c. Theft d. Malicious Mischief 15. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of force, violence or intimidation to do something against his will, whether right or wrong. a. Grave Threat b. Grave Coercion c. Direct Assault d. Slander by deed 16. These are persons having no apparent means of subsistence but have a physical ability to work and neglect to apply himself or herself to lawful calling. a. Pimps b. Prostitutes c. Gang members d. Vagrants 17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant noises designed to annoy and insult. a. Tumultuous b. Charivari c. Sedition d. Scandals 18. The unauthorized act of a public officer who compels another person to change his residence. a. Violence of domicile b. Arbitrary detention c. Expulsion d. Direct Assault 19. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another person without legal grounds. a. Illegal detention b. Arbitrary detention c. Forcible abduction d. Forcible detention 20. An offense committed by a married woman through carnal knowledge with a man not her husband who knows her to be married, although the marriage can be later declared void. a. Concubinage b. Bigamy c. Adultery d. Immorality 21. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime. a. 15 – 18 years old b. 18 – 70 years old c. 9 years old and below d. between 9 and 15 years old 22. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of the offense by previous or simultaneous acts. a. Accomplices b. Suspect c. Principal actor d. Accessories 23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute the final sentence after the lapse of certain time fixed by law. a. Prescription of crime b. Prescription of Prosecution c. Prescription of Judgment d. Prescription of Penalty 24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty is suspended. a. Pardon b. Commutation c. Amnesty d. Reprieve 25. Infraction of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of the society. a. Mala Prohibita b. Mala in se c. Private Crimes d. Public Crimes 26. Felony committed by a public officer who agrees to commit an act in consideration of gift and this act is connected with the discharge of his public duties. a. Qualified bribery b. Direct bribery c. Estafa d. Indirect crimes 27. The willful and corrupt assertion of falsehood under oath of affirmation, administered by authority of law on a material matter. a. Libel b. Falsification c. Perjury d. Slander 28. Deliberate planning of act before execution a. Treachery b. Evident Premeditation c. Ignominy d. Cruelty 29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted together in the commission of a crime. a. Gang b. Conspiracy c. Band d. Piracy 30. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to. a. Negligence b. Imprudence c. Omission d.Act 31. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and capturing the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan. a. Misfeasance b. Entrapment c. Inducement d. Instigation 32. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reason of public policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed. a. Impossible crime b. Aggravating circumstances c. Absolutory causes d. Complex Crimes 33. One of the following is an alternative circumstance. a. Insanity b. Intoxication c. Passion or obfuscation d. Evident Premeditation 34. If the accused refuse to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty, what shall be entered for him? a. a plea of not guilty b. a plea of guilty c. a plea of mercy d. a plea of surrender 35. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or information? a. at any time before his arrest b. only after entering his plea c. any time before entering his plea d. Monday morning 36. The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory disposition on the subject to court approval. a. Arraignment b. plea bargaining c. Preliminary Investigation d. Trial 37. The Security given for the release of a person in custody, furnished by him or a bondsman, conditioned upon his appearance before any court as required under the conditions specified by law. a. Subpoena b. Recognizance c. Bail d. Warrant 38. The examination before the competent tribunal, according to the laws of the ,land, of the acts in issue in a case, for the purpose of determining such issue. a. Trial b. Arraignment c. Pre- trial d. judgment 39. The adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or is not guilty of the offense charged, and the imposition of the proper penalty and civil liability provided for by law on the accused. a. Trial b. Pre- trial c. Arraignment d. Judgment 40. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining whether there is a sufficient ground to engender a well founded belief that an offense has been committed and the offender is probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial. a. Pre-trial b. Arraignment c. Preliminary investigation d. Plea bargaining 41. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts. a. Secondary evidence b. Prima Facie evidence c. Corroborative evidence d. Best evidence 42. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is sufficient to maintained the proposition affirmed. a. Secondary evidence b. Prima Facie evidence c. Corroborative d. Best evidence 43. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived from conventional symbols, such as letters, by which ideas are represented on material substances. a. Documentary evidence b. Testimonial evidence c. Material evidence d. Real Evidence 44. When the witness state that he did not see or know the occurrence of the fact. a. Positive Evidence b. Corroborative Evidence c. Secondary Evidence d. Negative Evidence 45. The existence of facts and circumstances to induce a reasonable to believe that the crime has been committed and the respondent is probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial. a. Evidence b. Mistake of fact c. Preliminary investigation d. Probable cause 46. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can make known their perception to others. a. Suspect b. Witness c. Victim d. Informer 47. The unlawful destruction or the bringing forth prematurely, of human fetus before the natural time of birth which results in death. a. Abortion b. Infanticide c. Murder d. Parricide 48. Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the confusion attendant to a quarrel among several persons not organized into groups and the parties responsible cannot be ascertained. a. Alarm and Scandal b. Mysterious homicide c. Death under exceptional circumstances d. Tumultuous affray 49. A question which arises in a case the resolution of which is the logical antecedent of the issue involved in said case and cognizance of which pertains to another tribunal. a. Legal Question b. Juridical Question c. Prejudicial question d. Judicial question 50. The offender has been previously punished for an offense to which the law attaches an equal or greater penalty or two or more crimes to which it attaches a lighter penalty. a. Reiteration b. Recidivism c. Quasi- recidivism d. Habitual Delinquency 51. An act or omission which is a result of a misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not intentional. a. Impossible b. Mistake of facts c. Accidental crime d. Complex crime 52. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than… a. 36 hours b. 24 hours c. 48 hours d. 72 hours 53. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith. a. Ignorantia Legis niminem excusat b. Parens patriea c. Res ipsa loquituer d. Dura lex sed lex 54. An act which would be an offense against persons or property if it was not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment. a. Compound crime b. Impossible crime c. Complex Crime d. Accidental crime 55. The which reimposed the death penalty. a. R.A 5425 b. R.A 8533 c. R.A 7659 d. R.A 8551 56. One who is deprived completely of reason or discernment and freedom of the will at the time of the commission of the crime. a. Discernment b. Insanity c. Epilipsy d. Imbecility 57. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its owner or author. a. Responsibility b. Duty c. Guilt d. Imputability 58. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and although it comes about through some acts of our will, lies beyond the bounds of humanly foreseeable consequences. a. Fortuitous b. Fate c. Accident d. Destiny 59. A sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the offended party, any peace officer or other public officer charged with the enforcement of of the law violated. a. Subpoena b. Information c. Complaint d. Writ 60. This right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice and is intended not to protect the guilty but to prevent as far as human agencies can the conviction of an innocent person. a. Right to due process of law b. Presumption of innocence c. Right to remain Silent d. Right against self- incrimination 61. Known in other countries as the body of principles, practices, usages and rules of action which are not recognized in our country. a. Penal laws b. Special Laws c. Common Laws d. Statutory Laws 62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the crime any of all conditions that would make an act voluntary and hence, through there is no criminal liability there is civil liability. a. Exempting b. Alternative c. Justifying d. Aggravating 63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal and civil liability. a. Exempting b. Alternative c. Justifying d. Aggravating 64. When the offender enjoys and delights in making his making suffers slowly and gradually, causing him unnecessary physical pain in the consummation of the criminal act. a. Ignominy b. Cruelty c. Treachery d. Masochism 65. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been previously convicted by final judgment of another crime embraced in the same title of the Revised Penal Code. a. Recidivism b. Habitual delinquency c. Reiteration d. Quasi- recidivism 66. Alevosia means a. Craft b. Treachery c. Evident Premeditation d. Cruelty 67. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and render judgment after a fair trial. a. Ex-post facto law b. Equal Protection of Law c. Rule of Law d. Due Process of Law 68. A person if within the period of 10 years from the date of his release or last conviction of the crime of serious or less serious physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa, or falsification, he is found guilty of the said crimes a third time or oftener. a. Recidivist b. Quasi- recidivist c. Habitual delinquent d. Hardened Criminal 69. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome. a. Primary b. Best c. Secondary d. Conclusive 70. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome. a. Primary b. Best c. Secondary d. Conclusive 71. These questions suggest to the witness the answer to which an examining party requires. a. Leading b. Misleading c. Stupid d. Hearsay 72. A method fixed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of persons allege to have Committed a crime, and for their punishment in case of the conviction. a. Criminal Law b. Criminal Evidence c. Criminal Procedure d. Criminal Jurisprudence 73. The period of prescription of crimes punishable by death. a. 20 years b. 15years c. 10 years d. 40 years 74. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime. a. Accomplice b. Accessories c. Instigators d. Principal 75. A crime against honor which is committed by performing any act which cast dishonor, discredit, or contempt upon another person. a. Libel b. Slander by deed c. Incriminating innocent person d. Intriguing against honor 76. The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be done. a. Misfeasance b. Malfeasance c. Non-feasance d. Dereliction 77. A sworn statement in writing, made upon oath before an authorized magistrate or officer. a. Subpoena b. Writ c. Warrant d. Affidavit 78. Any other name which a person publicly applies to himself without authority of law. a. Alias b. Common name c. Fictitious name d. Screen name 79. A special aggravating circumstance where a person, after having been convicted by final judgment, shall commit a new felony before beginning to serve such sentence, or while serving the same. a. Quasi- recidivism b. Recidivism c. Reiteration d. Charivari 80. Which of the following is not a person in authority? a. Municipal mayor b. Private School Teacher c. Police Officer d. Municipal Councilor 81. In its general sense, it is the raising of commotions or disturbances on the State. a. Sedition b. Rebellion c. Treason d. Coup d’ etat 82. The length of validity of search warrant from its date. a. 30 days b. 15 days c. 10 days d. 60 days 83. The detention of a person without legal grounds by a public officer or employee. a. Illegal Detention b. Arbitrary Detention c. Compulsory detention d. Unauthorized detention 84. A breech of allegiance to a government, committed by a person who owes allegiance to it. a. Treason b. Espionage c. Rebellion d. Coup ‘d etat 85. A building or structure, exclusively used for rest and comfort. a. Sanctuary b. Prison c. Jail d. Dwelling 86. The mental capacity to understand the difference between right or wrong. a. Treachery b. Premeditation c. Recidivism d. Discernment 87. Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable under the law. a. Estafa b. Murder c. Rebellion d. Rape 88. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which intended. a. Aberratio Ictus b. Error in personae c. Dura Lex Sed Lex d. Praeter Intentionem 89. It means mistake in the blow. a. Aberratio Ictus b. Error in Personae c. Dura Lex Sed Lex d. Praeter Intentionem 90. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its execution and accomplishment are present. a. Attempted b. Frustrated c. Consummated d. Accomplished 91. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of facts that is voluntary but not intentional. a. Absolutory Cause b. Mistake of Facts c. Conspiracy d. Felony 92. Crimes that have three stages of execution. a. Material b. Formal c. Seasonal d. Continuing 93. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the offender are malicious a. Culpable b. Intentional c. Deliberate d. Inculpable 94. It indicates deficiency of perception a. Negligence b. Diligence c. Imprudence d. Inference 95. Acts and omissions punishable by special penal law a. Offenses b. Misdemeanor c. Felonies d. Ordinance 96. A character of Criminal law, making it binding upon all persons who live or sojourn in the Philippines. a. General b. Territorial c. Prospective d. Retroactive 97. A legislative act which inflicts punishment without judicial trial./ a. Bill of attainder b. Bill of rights c. Ex-post Facto Law d. Penal Law 98. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may bound to answer for the commission of an offense. a. Search b. Seizure c. Arrest d. Detention 99. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. What was the crime committed? a. Rebbery b. Farm Theft c. Qualified theft d. Simple theft 100. Pedro, a 19 year old man had sexual intercourse with her 11 years old girlfriend and without threat, force or intimidation. What was the crime committed? a. Child rape b. Qualified Rape c. Statutory rape d. None of these **NOTHING FOLLOWS** CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE AND PROCEDURE SET TWO INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no.2 only. 1. A kind of evidence which shows that the best evidence existed as to the proof of the fact is in question a. Real evidence b. Secondary evidence c. Best evidence d. Res gestae 2. What crime exist when a single act constitutes two or more grave felonies or when an offense is a necessary means for committing the other? a. Complex b. Composite c. Continuing d. Compound 3. What must be considered in determining whether the crime committed is only attempted, frustrated or consummated? a. All of these b. The elements constituting the felony c. The nature of the offense d. The manner of committing the felony 4. A person who gives testimonial evidence to a judiciary tribunal a. Witness b. Defense c. Prosecution d. Clerk of court 5. What crime can be charged of one who retains a minor in his service against the minor’s will and under the pretext of reimbursing himself of a debt incurred by the child/s parents? a. White Slavery b. Exploitation of child labor c. Inducing a minor d. Kidnapping 6. A, a notary public, issued a supposed copy of a deed of sale, when in fact no such deed of sale was prepared by him. A is liable for a. Estafa b. Falsification c. Forgery d. All of these 7. Refers to family history or descent transmitted from one generation to another a. Pedigree b. Inheritance c. Traditional Heritage d. Neither 8. What kind of presumption involves the mental process by which the existence of one fact is inferred from proof of some other facts? a. Conclusive b. Of law c. Disputable d. of fact 9. During the pendency of his criminal case, A died due to heart attack. His untimely death resulted in a. Termination of the proceeding b. Suspension of the case c. Postponement of the case d. Dismissal of the case for lack of respondent 10. How may an ordinary citizen give his opinion regarding regarding of the handwriting of a person a. When he has to testify only as to the mental and emotional state of the one who authored the hand writing b. When it is the handwriting of one whom he has sufficient familiarity c. When he is the questioned document examiner d. When he is graduate of criminology 11. Obligations imposed upon a party to establish their alleged fact by proof are termed as “ Burden of Proof” what is its latin translation? a. Factum Proban b. Factum Probandum c. Owe Probandi d. Owes probandi 12. Can a husband testify against the wife in an adultery case? a. Yes, the privilege of marital communication rule is already abolished b. Yes, under the law she is a competent witness c. No, she is incompetent as a witness d. Yes, because crime charge is one committed by the wife. 13. Logical necessity which resist upon a party at any particular time during the trail to create a prima facie case in his own favor or to overthrow one created against him. a. Res gestae b. Burden of evidence c. Burden of proof d. Estoppel 14. A is supply officer of a municipality. He entered to an agreement with B to supply municipality with some office forms at a price grossly disadvantageous to the municipality. The agreement was that part of the purchase price must be given to A. The transaction did not materialize. A may be liable for a. Attemted estafa b. Frustrated estafa c. Attempted Fraud d. Consummated fraud 15. The probative value or credit given by the court to a particular evidence a. Preponderance of evidence b. Evidentiary fact c. Ultimate fact d. Weight of evidence 16. Which among the following may disqualify a witness a. Capacity of observation b. Capacity of Recollection c. Capacity of Knowledge d. Capacity of Communication 17. That kind of evidence which can not be rebutted or overcome a. Primary b. Real c. Best d. Conclusive 18. Which in the following enumeration is an example of an afflictive penalty? a. Fine b. Arresto Mayor c. Prison Mayor d. Destierro 19. A detained prisoner is allowed to eat and drink in a nearby restaurant on several occasions. He is, however, well- guarded at all times. The warden allowed him to go out of his cell without any consideration whatsoever. The warden may be charged with a. Negligence of duty b. Leniency or Laxity c. Dereliction of duty d. Infidelity 20. Cognizance of certain facts which judges may properly take as fact because they are already known to him a. Cognizance b. Judicial Admission c. Judicial Knowledge d. Judicial Notice 21. What if the offender party is a corporation, how do you indicate it in the complaint or information? a. state the name of the corporation b. leave it blank as error is merely clerical and can be corrected during trial c. Aver it in the charged sheet d. aver that it is legally organized pursuant to SEC rules 22. Exemption to the hearsay rule made under the consciousness of an impending death. a. Parole evidence b. Ante- mortem statement c. Dead man statute d. Post mortem statement 23. What crime is committed against mankind, and whose jurisdiction consequently recognizes no territorial limits? a. Piracy b. Felonies c. Theft d. Suicide 24. Head of State or Ambassadors can NOT be held liable criminally liable in another state or place of assignment under the principles characteristic of criminal law which is a. Prospectivity b. Generality c. Territoriality d. Immunity 25. Refers generally to acts made criminal by special laws a. Felony b. Mala in se c. Mala incest d. Mala Prohibita 26. When several persons are co-accused for the crime committed, what is the requirement that must be satisfied in order that one or more of those accused can qualify as State Witness? a. he appears to be less guilty b. he does not appear to be most guilty c. not more than two accused can be state witness d. he seems to be not guilty 27. Ignorantia Facti Excusat means: a. Ignorance of Law b. Mistake of fact c. Mistake of the blow d. Mistake in identity 28. Under this rule, crimes are not triable in the courts of that country, unless their commission affects the peace and security of the territory or the safety of the state is endangered. a. French Rule b. Spanish Rule c. American Rule d. English Rule 29. What should the court do when the offense is less serious physical injuries and the offense proved is serious physical injuries and the defendant may be convicted only of the offense as charged? a. do not dismiss the action b. do not dismiss the action but should order the filing of a new information c. dismiss the action d. stay with the action and decide accordingly to avoid double jeopardy 30. When the law attaches capital punishment or afflictive penalties the felony is said to be a. Grave b. Light c. Less grave d. Serious 31. When is evidence presented in court for admissibility considered relevant to the issue? a. when it is not exclude by the rules b. when iot has direct bearing and actual connection to the facts and issue c. when it is not repugnant in taste d. when it is not immoral 32. Infraction to the law punishable by Arresto Menor or a fine not exceeding 200 pesos or both. a. Grave b. Light c. Less grave d. Serious 33. What circumstances can be considered aggravating wit the slaying of 80 years old woman a. Abuse of confidence b. Disregard of age and sex c. Neglect of elders d. Disrespect of rank 34. Acts of person which are said to be in accordance with the law, so that such person is deemed not to have transgressed the law and is free from both criminal and civil liability. a. Justifying circumstances b. Mitigating Circumstances c. Exempting Circumstances d. Aggravating Circumstances 35. The rule on summary procedure applies to criminal cases where the penalty prescribed by the law for the offense charged does not exceed a. 3 years b. Six years c. 6 years imprisonment d. 4 years and 2 months 36. In case of oral defamation, where the priest is the only available witness, can a priest testify as to the alleged defamation words given to him by the accused during the confession? a. privilege given by a patient to a doctor b. privilege given to a husband to a wife c. privilege communication given to an attorney by a client d. privilege communication given by a penitent to a priest 37. An aggravating circumstance which generally apply to all crimes such as dwelling, night time or recidivism. a. Generic b. Specific c. Qualifying d. Inherent 38. Who are criminally liable, when having knowledge of the commission of the crime, without having principally participated therein, takes part subsequent to the commission, either in profiting by the effects of the crime or by concealing or destroying the body of the crime? a. Witness b. Accessories c. Principal d. Accomplices 39. They are aggravating circumstance which change the nature of the crime, e.i. homicide to murder in case of treachery a. Generic b. Specific c. Qualifying d. Inherent 40. Which of the following aggravating circumstances may not be offset by mitigating circumstances? a. treachery b. night time c. ignominy d. taking advantage of the superior strength 41. What are the infraction of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a more orderly regulation of the affairs of society? a. Mala prohibita b. Felonies c. Violation d. Mala in se 42. What doctrine allows evidence obtained by the police officers in an illegal search and seizure to be used against the accused? a. Silver platter b. Exclusionary doctrine c. Fruit of the poisonous tree d. Miranda ruling 43. Mr. Ancheta went to the United States. While he was there, he courted Ms. Malu- wang an American. They eventually got married. When Mr. Ancheta returned to the Philippines his wife, Charlyn filed an action against him for violating their marriage. What is the criminal liability of Mr. Ancheta, if any? a. None of these b. Adultery c. Concubinage d. Bigamy 44. What is the liability of the jail guard if the evasion of a prisoner should take place through his negligence? a. delivering prisoners from jail b. evasion through negligence c. reckless imprudence d. conniving with or consenting to evasion 45. A treasury warrant was payable to A or his representative. B took possession of the warrant, wrote the name of A, endorsed it at back and was able to encash it . B is liable for a. Estafa b. All of these c. Falsification d. Forgery 46. A person who has within a period of 10 years from the date of the release or last conviction is said to have been found guilty of the same offense particularly those physical injuries, estafa, theft and robbery is considered as a: a. Recidivist b. Habitual Delinquent c. Delinquent d. Quasi- recidivist 47. What is the means sanctioned by the rules of ascertaining in a judicial proceeding the truth respecting the matter of fact? a. Evidence b. Procedure c. Investigation d. Trial 48. Whenever more than three armed malefactors shall have acted together in the commission of an offense it is deemed to have been committed by: a.. Group b Band c. Brigands d. Team 49. What is the Statement made by the wounded person shortly after he received several bolo stabs narrating therein the whole incident to another which is admissible in evidence as part of : a. res nullus b. res ipsa loquitur c. res judicata d. res gestea 50. A, B, C are boardmates of D. A, B, and C conspire to kill X, a with, because he is perceived to cause misery among many in the barangay. D knew about it all along. After the conspiracy but made no move to report to the autorities. In this case, D is a. is liable for murder b. is an accessory to the crime c. is a conpirator d. incurs no criminal liability 51. “ Aberratio Ictus” in which the perpetrator is criminally liable means a. Mistaken Identity b. mistake in the blow c. Results are less than intended d. Result is greater than intended 52. What acts punishable by law are either intended to directly impute to an innocent person the commission of the crime or which are calculate to blemish the honor or reputation of a person by means of intrigue? a. Oral Defamation b. Blackmail c. Slander d. Incriminatory machinations 53. A, with intent to kill, fired a revolver at B. He inflicted a fatal wound. A brought B to a hospital, and due to timely medical assistance, B survived. What crime ddi A committed? a. Physical Injury b. Attempted Felony c. Frustrated Felony d. No criminal Liability 54. Breech of allegiance to a government, committed by a person who owes allegiance to it. a. Treason b. Adherence to the enemy c. Espionage d. Levying war 55. What is the order in writing issued in the name of the People of the Philippines, signed by a judge and directed to a peace officer commanding him to search for personal property described therein and bring it before the court? a.Warrant of Arrest b. Search warrant c. Subpoena d. Summons 56. It requires the concurrence of two things, that there being an actual assembly of men and for such purpose of executing a treasonable design by force a. Aid or comport b. Adherence to the enemy c. Levying war d. All of the foregoing 57. Under new Constitution, who is empowered to order or change the venue or place of trial in order to avoid miscarriage of justice? a. Executive Judge b. Supreme Court c. Regional trial court d. Regional State Prosecutor 58. What rule is observed when generally, there can be no evidence of a writing, the contents of which is the subject matter inquiry a. Secondary evidence b. Parol evidence c. Corollary evidence d. Best evidence 59. What kind of executive clemency wipes away the guilt of the convicted person, subject to the three limitations to be executed by the President? a. Pardon b. Amnesty c. Reprieve d. Penalty 60. A person having knowledge of the plans to commit treason and fails to disclose such information to the governor, fiscal or mayor is guilty of what crime? a. Treason b. Conspiracy c. Espionage d. Misprison of treason 61. What crime is committed when the offender, acting under a single criminal resolution commits a series of acts in the same place at about the same penal Provision? a. Composite b. Compound c. Continuing d. Complex 62. In what instance can a alibi( the weakest defense) acquire commensurate streght in evidential value? a. when it change the burden of proof b. when evidence of the prosecution is strong c. where no positive and proper identification has been satisfactorily made d. when questions on whether or not accused committed the offense is clear 63. It is a forcible depredation on the high seas without lawful authority and done with animo furandi and in the spirit and intention of universal hostility a. Mutiny b. Piracy c. Espionage d. Sedition 64. What is that rule where an offended party may intervene in the proceeding personally or through a counsel? a. Miranda Rule b. Rule of Facilitation c. Rule of intervention d. Rule of reservation 65. Refers to the resistance to a superior officer, or the raising of commotions and disturbance on board a ship against authority of the commander a. Mutiny b. Piracy c. Espionage d. Sedition 66. What kind of motion may be availed of anytime before arraignment? a. Motion to dismiss b. Motion for review c. Motion for the reconsideration d. Motion to quash 67. Which among the following instances is an example of a qualifying circumstance to a murder? a. Recidivism b. Insanity c. Treachery d. Intoxication 68. What would be nature of the action for a person over nine years of age and under fifteen to incur criminal liability? a. act with discernment b. act carelessly or negligently c. show criminal intent d. show malice 69. Who is a person in authority among the following: a. Policeman b. MMDA Enforcer c. BArangay Captain d. Barangay tonod 70. What kind of aggravating circumstance is present when a person commits any of the crimes against person, employing such means, method of forms in the executin thereof which tend specially to ensure its execution without risk to himself arising from the defense which the offended party might made? a. Capital Punishment b. Complex Crime c. Continuous offense d. Civil interdiction 71. A is known for writing obscene material. One of his writings, entitled “Iyot”, was stolen from his office and was published by someone. The authorities got hold of the obscene magazine. A is a. Not liable at all b. Liable for obscene publication ( as Co- publisher) c. Liable for Pornography d. Liable for the obscene publications ( as author) 72. What should be done in cases of offense against property where the name of the offended party is unknown? a. court must cause the true name to be inserted b. what is pivotal is the name and description of the offender c. the police must label the property in a way that will distinguish it from other d. describe the property subject matter with such particularity as to properly identify, the particular offense charged 73. How should the plea to a complaint or information be made by the accused? a. personally, in open court and of the record b. by the approval of the court and upon written request by the accused c. through counsel in open court and on the record d. personally by written motion Situation 1- A and B are neighbors. During a drinking spree, A punched B without any provocation. B’s injury required medical attendance for a period of 7 days. Immediately thereafter SPO1 T. whose help was sought by B, took the statement of B and did not know what to do. 74. What crime was committed by A? a. slight physical injury b. serious physical injury c. ill treatment d. less serious physical injury 75. Considering the nature of the offense committed by A, SPO1 T should: a. file the case directly by the court b. instruct B to file the matter first before the Barangay C c. file the case before the prosecutor’s office d. file the case himself before the barangay court 76. Assuming that the action of A was death, instead of the mere physical injuries against B, SPO1 T should, in his investigation and report concentrate and stress on: a. whether or not A was drunk at the time b. the Barangay Court has no Jurisdiction over the case c. whether or not B was also drunk d. none of the above 77. Assuming that A was drunk at the time that he committed the offense, his drunkenness would be considered as: a. mitigating circumstance b. aggravating circumstance c. exempting circumstance d. alternative circumstance Situation -2 A and B who are brother-in-laws, are also mortal enemies. One time, A threatened to kill B. A has a common reputation of being a killer. One night in a lighted place, A suddenly stabbed B from behind. Before A could escape, B was able to identify him. As B lay wounded, SPO1 Mahabagin responded and to whom B pointed to A as the one who attacked him. SPO1 arrested B on the basis of such declaration. 78. Based on the situation 2, which of the following best described the statement of A? a. Circumstantial b. Corroborative c. Hearsay d. Direct 79. What crime was committed by A that night time of the stabbing? a. Parricide b. Grave threats c. Homicide d. Murder 80. Assuming that B was dying at the time that he informed SPO1 Mhabagin of the identity of his notorious assailant and believing that he was dying at the time, but he did not actually die, what basis could be used to establish the identity of A? a. Common reputation b. Res gestae c. Dying Declaration d. Declaration against interest 81. In the forgoing case, B’s statement identifying A as his assailant may not be considered a dying declaration because: a. B’s death is indispensable b. The declaration was not written c. No mention was made that B wound was fatal d. B has a grudge against A Situation 3- During custodial investigation at the Central Police District in Quezon City, “A” was informed of his constitutional right, to remain silent and to have competent and independent counsel. He decided to waive his right to counsel and proceed to make a statement admitting commission of a roberry. 82. A’s statement is inadmissible in evidence against him because a. The right to remain silent and to counsel cannot be waived b. It was not made in the presence of the counsel c. The waiver was not made in writing and in the presence of the counsel d. It was not made in writing 83. Assuming that all the conditions in the waiver were properly observed except the right to counsel which was waived because A could not afford the service of one, A’s statement will be a. Admissible because A was informed of his right to counsel but he could not afford to hire one b. Inadmissible because A must be provided with counsel free of charge c. Admissible because A did not insist on his right to counsel and voluntarily waived it d. Admissible in evidence against him because all the conditions were present in the waiver 84. Assuming that the public prosecutor on the basis of the now written confession of A, who waived his right of counsel because he could not afford one, filed the information against him and the judge after trial, convicted A on the basis of his written confession. A would like to appeal his case to a higher court. The appeal should filed- a. with 30 days from the time A’s counsel de officio who was absent of the time of the promulgation received a written copy of the judgment of conviction. b. within 30 days from the date the case was submitted for resolution c. within 15 days from the promulgation of judgment d. within 15 days from the date of pre-trial conference 85. Assuming that A’s appeal was filed 30 days after his counsel de officio learned of the judgment, the should a. Not be given due course, because the judgment which were rendered after trial was obviously correct anyway b. be given due course, because it was filed within the reglamentary period c. not be given due course because the confession was really inadmissible against A and the judgment of conviction must be reversed d. none of these 86. The Judiciary Reorganization Act of 1980 ( BP Blg. 129 ) took effect on a. January 17, 1983 b. August 1, 1983 c. January 1, 1983 d. December 1, 1980 87. Criminal Jurisdiction over the subject matter shall be determined by the a. law enforced at the time of the commission of the offense b. law enforced at the time of the trial c. law enforced at the time of the institution/filing of the offense d. law enforced at the time of the discovery of the offense 88. Criminal procedure is a a. substantive law b. constitutional law c. administrative law d. procedural or remedial law 89. The stage of a judicial proceeding whereby the accused shall be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation against him, in compliance of the mandate of the consultation and the rules and in order to fix the identity of the accused is a. criminal investigation b. pre-trial conference c. preliminary investigation d. Arraignment and plea 90. Defined as the taking of a person into custody in order that he may bound to answer the commission of the crime a. none of these b. custody c. detention or imprisonment d. investigation 91. Under the law, the warrant of arrest shall remain valid unless a. After the lapse of 10 days from its issuance b. It is served or lifted c. After the lapse of the period for the Police to execute the same d. After the lapse of the period for the Police to make his report 92. The procedure which allows the affidavit of the parties of their witness to constitute as their oral testimony in the case, subject however to cross examination a. Revised rule in summary procedure b. Revised rules on criminal procedure c. Revised rules on evidence d. Revised Penal Code 93. The right of an accused to bail is a matter of right in those cases- a. falling within the jurisdiction of the RTC before or after conviction, except capital offense b. falling within the jurisdiction of the MTC before or after conviction c. falling within the jurisdiction of the RTC where the penalty of the offense does not exceed 20 years imprisonment d. all of these 94. Preliminary investigation is required in those criminal cases where the penalty provide by law for the offense charged is a. over 6 years imprisonment regardless of the amount of the fine b. exceeding 6 years imprisonment irrespective to the amount of fine c. at least 4 years, 2 months and one day of imprisonment irrespective of the amount of fine d. not exceeding 6 years imprisonment irrespective of the amount of fine 95. Violation of City or Municipal Ordinance are within the a. concurrent jurisdiction of the RTC and MTC b. exclusive original jurisdiction of the RTC c. exclusive jurisdiction of the Family Court d. exclusive original jurisdiction of the MTC 96. The process of adjudication of the disputes in the barangay level whereby the Punong Barangay or the Pangkat Member shall endeavor to convince or encourage the parties to settle their dispute amicably a. Arbitration b. Confrontation c. Compromise d. Mediation/conciliation 97. The power or authority of a court to try, hear and decide a class of criminal case brought before it a. criminal jurisprudence b. criminal jurisdiction c. criminal procedure d. criminal due process of law 98. If no criminal action has yet been instituted, a motion to quash a search warrant and/ or suppress evidence obtained thereby the Police shall be filed in and resolve by the a. court which has jurisdiction over the place where the offense was committed b. court that issued the search warrant c. court were the suspect reside d. court within the judicial region of the place where crime was committed 99. The personnel of court who shall take charge of the business of the court, supervises all the other staff of the court or the alter ego of the judge in all official businesses of the court in his absence. a. court interpreter b. clerk of the court c. legal researcher d. personal secretary of the judge 100. The law providing the rights of person arrested, detained or under custodial investigation is a. R.A 7659 b. R.A 8493 c. R.A 7438 d. R.A 7691 **NOTHING FOLLOWS** LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION SET ONE INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no.2 only. 1. The amount and nature of the demands of the Police service are not the same on all 3 shifts. It is therefore necessary to make available maximum manpower at the time the Police Service is of greatest demand. This is organization by: a. Clientele b. Purpose c. Time d. Process 2. The PNP has a program which ensures the deployment of the policemen in the busy and crime prone areas. This is called a. Patrol deployment program b. Roving Patrol Program c. Patrol and visibility program d. Police patrol program 3. All regional appointments of the commissioned officers commence with the rank of : a. Senior Police Officer 1 b. Inspector c. Police Officer III d. Senior Inspector 4. In busy and thickly populated streets like those in Divisoria, police patrol is very necessary. Since there are several types of patrol, which of the following will you recommend: a. Horse Patrol b. Mobile Patrol c. Foot Patrol d. Helicopter Patrol 5. It is the product resulting from the collection, evaluation, analysis, and interpretation of all available information which concerns one or more aspects of criminal activity and which is immediately or potentially significant to police planning. a. Investigation b. Information c. Data d. Intelligence 6. These are work programs of line divisions which related to the nature and extent of the workload and the availability of resources. a. Administrative plan b. Operational plan c. Strategic plan d. tactical plan 7. It is the premier educational institution for the police, fire and jail personnel. a. Philippine Milatary Academy (PMA) b. Development Academy of the Philippines c. Philippine College of Criminology (PCCr) d. Philippine Public Safety College (PPSC) 8. A crew which is assigned to a mobile car usually consist of . a. A driver and intelligence agent b. A driver and traffic man c. A driver and a recorder d. A driver, recorder and supervisor 9. An industrial complex must establish its first line of physical defense. It must have a. The building itself b. Perimeter barriers c. Communication barriers d. Windows barriers 10. All of the following are members of the People’s Law Enforcement Board ( PLEB), Except: a. Three member chosen by the peace and order council from among of the respected members of the community. b. Any barangay Captain of the City/Municipality concerned chosen by the association of the Barangay Captains. c. Any member of the Sangguniang Panglungsod/Pambayan d. A Bar member chosen by the integrated bar of the Philippines (IBP) 11. It is the circumspect inspection of a place to determine its suitability for a particular operational Purpose. a. Inspection b. Surveillance c. Survey d. Casing 12. In the civil service system, merit and fitness are the primary consideration in the . a. Two-party system b. Evaluation System c. Promotional system d. Spoils System 13. Registration of a security agency must be done at the . a. Securities and Exchange Commission b. National Police Commission c. Department of the National Defense d. PNP Criminal Investigation Group 14. Bicycle Patrol has the combined advantage of since they can be operated very quietly and without attracting attention. a. Reduced speed and greater are covered b. Mobility and wide area coverage c. Shorter travel time and faster response d. Mobility and stealth 15. The budget is a in terms of expenditure requirements. a. Tactical plan b. Financial plan c. Work plan d. Control plan 16. The term used for the object of surveillance is a subject while the investigator conduct the surveillance is: a. Rabbit b. Surveillance c. Traffic enforcement d. Patrol 17. It is the Police Function which serves as the backbone of the police service. In all types of police situations, there is a specific unit assigned to undertake this function in view of its importance. a. Vice control b. Criminal Investigation c. Traffic Management d. Patrol 18. It is the weakest link in security chain. a. Managers b. Barriers c. Personnel d. Inspection 19. Which of the following is considered as the most important factor in formulating an effective patrol strategy? a. Training of the station commander b. Adequacy of resources of the Police Station c. Rank of the Patrol Commander d. Salary rates of Police Personnel 20. Who among the following have summary disciplinary powers over errant police member? a. District Director b. Provincial Director c. Chief of Police d. Chief, PNP 21. You are the Patrol Supervisor for the morning shift. You don’t have enough men to cover all the patrol beats. Which of the following will you implemented? a. Assigned roving mobile patrol with no foot patrol b. Assigned mobiles patrol only in strategic plan c. Maintain your patrolmen at the station and just wait for calls for Police assistance d. Assigned foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats but assign a roving mobile patrol to cover beats which are not covered by foot patrol 22. The father of organized Military espionage was: a. Akbar b. Alexander the Great c. Genghis khan d. Frederick the Great 23. Which of the following is the most common reason why informer can give information to the Police? a. Wants to be know to the Policeman b. Monetary reward c. As a good citizen d. Revenge 24. To improve delegation, the following must be done, Except: a. Establish objectives and standards b. Count the number of Supervisor c. Require completed work d. Define authority and responsibility 25. What administrative support units conducts identification and evaluation of Physical Evidences related to crimes, with emphasis on their medical, chemical, biological and physical nature. a. Logistic Service b. Crime Laboratory c. Communication and Electronic Service d. Finance Center 26. Those who are charged with the actual fulfillment of the agency’s mission are . a. Staff b. Supervision c. Management d. Line 27. When the subject identifies or obtain knowledge that the investigation is conducting surveillance on him, the latter is: a. Cut out b. Sold out c. Burnt out d. Get out 28. Small alley like those in squatter’s area of Tondo can best penetrated by the Police through: a. Foot Patrol b. Mobile Patrol c. Highway Patrol d. Helicopter 29. Some of the instructions in foot surveillance are the following, Except a. stop quickly and look behind b. drop paper, never mind what happens to the paper c. window shop, watch reflection d. retrace steps 30. On many occasion, the bulk of the most valuable information comes from: a. business world b. newspaper clippings c. an underworld informant d. communication 31. Highly qualified Police Applicants such as engineers, nurses and graduates of forensic Sciences can enter the police service as officer through: a. Regular Promotion b. Commissionship c. Lateral Entry d. Attrition 32. Police Inspector Juan Dela Cruz is the Chief of Police of a Municipality. HE wants his subordinates to be drawn closer to the people of the different barangays. He should adopt which of the following projects? a. COPS on the blocks b. Oplan bakal c. Oplan Sandugo d. Complan Pagbabago 33. What should be undertake by a Security Officer before he can prepare a comprehensive security program for his industrial plan? a. Security conference b. Security check c. Security survey d. Security education 34. This patrol method utilizes, disguise, deception and lying in wait rather than upon high-visibility patrol techniques. a. Low- visibility patrol b. Directed deterrent patrol c. Decoy patrol d. High- visibility patrol 35. It enforce traffic laws and regulations to ensure the safety of motorist and pedestrians and attain orderly traffic. a. Civil relation unit b. Traffic Operation Unit c. Traffic Management Command d. Aviation Security Command 36. A method of collecting information wherein the investigator merely uses his different senses. a. Observation b. Casing c. Research d. Interrogation 37. In stationary surveillance, the following must be observed, EXCEPT a. never meet subject face to face b. avoid eye contact c. recognize fellow agent d. if burnt out drop the subject 38. Pedro is a thief who is eying at the handbag of Maria. PO1 Santos Reyes is standing a few meters from Maria. The thief desire to steal is not diminished by the presence of Police officer but the for successful theft is? a. Ambition b. Feeling c. Intention d. Opportunity 39. Graduates of the Philippine National Police Academy (PNPA) are automatically appointed to the rank of : a. Senior Superintendent b. Inspector c. Senior Police Officer 1 d. Superintendent 40. PNP in service training programs are under of the responsibility of the: a. PNP Directorate for plans b. PNP Directorate for Human Resource and Doctrine Development c. PNP Directorate for Personnel and Records Management d. PNP Directorate for Controller ship 41. One way of extending the power of the Police Observation is to get information from the persons within the vicinity. In the Police work this is called: a. data gathering b. Field Inquiry c. Interrogation d. Interview 42. Dogs have an acute sense of thus, their utilization in tracking down lost persons or illegal drugs. a. Smell b. Hearing c. Eating d. Drinking 43. Intelligence on makes heavy use of geographic information because law enforcement official must know exact locations to interdict the flow of drugs. a. Logistic b. Human Cargo Trafficking c. Narcotics Trafficking d. Economic Resource 44. Which of the following is most ideally suited to evacuation and search and rescue duties? a. Motorcycle b. Helicopter c. Patrol Car d. Bicycle 45. A method of collection of information wherein the investigator tails or follows the person or vehicle. a. Research b. Undercover Operation c. Casing d. Surveillance 46. This is a person who does detective work for hire, reward or commission, other than the member of the AFP, BJMP, Provincial Guard, PNP or any law enforcement agency of the government. a. Secret Agent b. “Tiktik” c. Private Detective d. All of these 47. The uprightness in character, soundness of moral principles, honesty and freedom from moral delinquencies is referred to as: a. Integrated b. loyalty c. Moral d. All of these 48. Going east while foot patrolling and turning right after reaching the end of your beat and turning right after reaching the other end of your road and again turning right until you completed the cycle by reaching back to your origin patrolling. What patrol pattern have you applied? a. Clockwise b. Straightway c. Counter Clockwise d. Criss-cross 49. Which Theory of patrol state that police visibility increases the opportunity to apprehend criminals by soothing them and letting them believe that their crimes will not be detected? a. Low profile theory b. High Visibility c. Theory of Omnipresence d. Team Policing 50. With air force capability, patrol operation that covers large park areas, grassy fields or wooded areas requires use of a. Bike Patrol b. Horse Patrol c. Marine Patrol d. Helicopter Patrol 51. Which of the following refers to the long range planning? a. Intermediate b. Strategic c. Medium d. Short 52. The Operational plan which is designed to met everyday or year round needs is called a. meeting unusual needs b. extra office c. regular operating programs d. special operating programs 53. Which of the following is the oldest type of Patrol? a. horse b. foot c. Canine d. Police 54. The act of expelling a squatter by the legal process is called: a. demolition b. squadron c. eviction d. tear down 55. Which of the following is not a commission officer? a. Inspector b. Senior Inspector c. Asst. Chief d. Chief Superintendent e. All of the Above 56. Which of the following words has the same meaning as the word credibility? a. Ability b. Capability c. Believability d. Vulnerability e. All of these 57. Which of the following best defines the word self-reliant? a. Observation b. Crime prevention c. Called for serving d. Criminal Apprehension 58. All but one are the primarily line operation in Police Organization a. patrol b. records c. investigation d. traffic 59. Criminals can hear the sound of helicopter coming and so element of surprise is lost which one of the of air Patrol. a. Advantages b. Features c. Disadvantages d. Importance e. Errors 60. What is the Patrol used to locate prowlers, burglars hiding in large buildings or stores, and control unruly crowds and riots? a. foot b. horse c. bicycle d. dog 61. Which of the following laws established the Police Organization under DILG? a. R.A 5487 b. R.A 8551 c. R.A 1174 d. R.A 6975 62. Who is the important officer in the Police Organization? a. General b. Investigator c. Patrol Officer d. Traffic Officer e. The Chief of Police 63. Which of the following is the oldest warning device? a. trumpet b. horn c. radio d. siren 64. What type of cover uses actual or true background? a. Artificial b. Multiple cover c. Natural d. Cover within a cover 65. What is the principle of organization suggesting that communication should ordinarily go upward and downward through establish channels in the hierarchy? a. Chain of Command b. Span of Control c. Unity of command d. Delegation of Authority 66. What is the Optional retirement for officer and new officers of the Police Service? a. 15 years b. 25 years c. 30 years d. 20 years e. 35 years 67. Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having qualified as such, are automatically deputized as representatives of the a. NAPOLCOM b. DND c. PLEB d. none of these 68. It is constitutionally and legally mandated to administer and control the Philippine National Police. a. DILG b. DND c. NAPOLCOM d. DFA 69. It is the central receiving entity for any citizen’s complaint against the members and officers of the PNP. a. DILG b. NAPOLCOM c. PLEB d. IAS e. Ombudsman 70. When we say that a commander is directly responsible for any act or omission of his subordinates in relation to the performance of their official duties, we are referring to: a. Chain of Command b. Delegation of Responsibility c. Command Responsibility d. Span of Control e. Responsible parenthood 71. A police strategy which aims to directly involve members of the community in the maintenance of peace and order by the Police Officers. a. Integrated Police System b. Comparative Police System c. Police Visibility d. Community Oriented Policing System ( COPS) 72. No person in an organization can do all the tasks necessary for accomplishing group objective. Also, no one should exercise all the authority for making decisions. This refers to a. Chain of Command b. Command Responsibility c. Unity of Command d. Delegation of Authority e. Span of Control 73. Under R.A 6975, a police officer is entitled to a longevity pay equivalent to how many percent(%) of his monthly basic salary for every five years of service, to be reckoned from the date of his original appointment in the Police, fire, jail or other allied services? a. 2 percent b. 5 percent c. 10 percent d. 15 percent e. 20 percent 74. This term refers to the period when a Police Officer is actively engaged in the performance of his duty. a. off duty b. off limits c. on call d. on duty e. on the way 75. The act of temporarily denying an officer the privilege of performing his Police Duties in the consequence of an offense and violation of rules and regulations. a. Dismissal b. Restriction c. Suspension d. Reprimand e. Incarceration 76. The credential extended by the civil service commission / National Police Commission for the purpose of conferring status for permanent appointment in the Police Service. a. Police credibility b. Police visibility c. Criminology Board Examination d. Police Patrol examination e. Police Eligibility 77. In the history of the Police Force, who is the first Director General of the Philippine National Police? a. Gen. Cesar Nazareno b. Gen. Raul Imperial c. Gen. Umberto Rodriquez d. Gen. Recaredo Sarmiento 78. The premier educational institution for the training, human resource development and continuing education of all the personnel of BJMP, BFP, and PNP. a. PNPA b. PCCr c. PNTC d. PPSC 79. Under the law, the City/ Municipal jail warden should have a rank of . a. Inspector b. Chief Inspector c. Senior Inspector d. Superintendent 80. The required rank for the chief of Jail Bureau? a. Chief Superintendent b. Director General c. Director d. Deputy Director General 81. It exercises supervision and control over the provincial jails. a. BJMP b. Bureau of Prison c. Department Of Justice d. Provincial Government 82. The required rank for the head of the fire Bureau. a. Chief Superintendent b. Director General c. Director d. Deputy Director General 83. It exercise supervision and control over all City and Municipal jails. a. BJMP b. Bureau of Prison c. Department of Justice d. Local Government 84. The annual reservation percentage quota for women in the PNP recruitment is . a. 25% c. 10 % b. 5% d. 20 % 85. Which of the following administers and attends to case involving crimes against chastity? a. CIDG b. DSWD c. Women’s Desk d. Homicide Division 86. They are automatically deputized as NAPOLCOM representatives to exercise supervision and control over the PNP units. a. Chief of Police b. Judges c. Local Government Executives d. Fiscals 87. They have the authority to recommend to the Provincial Director the transfer, reassignment of PNP members outside of their town residences. a. Regional Director b. Priests c. Chief of Police d. Mayors 88. The head of a local peace and order council is the . a. Judge b. Chief of Police c. Mayor d. Governor 89. The utilization of units or elements, of the PNP for the purpose of protection of lives and properties, enforcement of laws and maintenance of peace and order. a. Employment b. Deployment c. Assignment d. Designation 90. The orderly and organized physical movement of elements or units of the PNP. a. Employment b. Deployment c. Assignment d. Designation 91. One of the following exercises control and supervision over the PNP units during elections. a. NBI c. COMELEC b. Ombudsman d. DILG 92. The number of eligible for which the Regional Director may recommend for Provincial Director to the Governor is . a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 4 ** END OF SET ONE** LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION SET TWO INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no.1 only. 1. A Chinese Philosopher who once said: “ If you know your enemy and know yourself, you need not fear the result of a hundred battles” a. Confucius b. Chiang Kai Shek c. Sun Tzu d. Wong Mhan Fei Hong 2. May be defined as the product resulting from the collecting information concerning an actual and potential situation and condition relating to foreign activities and to foreign activities