Walden NRNP 6531 Primary Care of Adults Across the Lifespan Midterm
Exam Spring 2022
1. What is the purpose of clinical research trials in the spectrum of
translational research? Examination of safety and effectiveness of various
interventions
2. What is the purpose of Level II research?
To describe relationships among characteristics or variables
3. The care provided by APRNs is not limited by setting but by patient care
needs.
A. B. Tru
e
4. APRN Fals Consensus Model/LACE include all except:
e Licensure
A.
B. Accreditation
C. Certification
D. It’s the one that stars with an E (Education)
5. All of the following are core quality competencies expected of APRNs
except:
A. Uses best evidence to improve care
B. Assumes advanced leadership role
C. Applies skills in peer review to promote culture of excellence
D. Evaluates organizational structures to improved Not
care – sure??
6. What was an
important finding of the Advisory Board survey of 2014 about primary care
preferences of patients?
A. Associations with area hospitals B. Costs of ambulatory care
C. Ease of access to care.
D. The ratio of providers to patients
7. To reduce adverse events associated with care transitions, the Centers for
Medicare and Medicaid Service have implemented which policy?
A. Mandates for communication among primary caregivers and
hospitalists
, B. Penalties for failure to perform medication reconciliations at time of
discharge
C. Reduction of payments for patients readmitted within 30 days after
discharge
D. Requirements for written discharge instructions for patients and d.
caregivers
8. Rules proposed by the various State Boards of Nursing must be approved by
the state Legislatures.
A. True
B. False
9. To reduce adverse events associated with care transitions, the Centers for
Medicare and Medicaid Service have implemented which policy?
10. What was an important finding of the Advisory Board survey of 2014 about
primary care preferences of patients?
11. The Consensus Model for APRN regulation consists of which of the
following roles? A. CNM
B. CRNA
C. APN
D. CNS
E All the Above
A, B & C F. only
12. In reviewing the Total Percentage of Body surface area for adult burn
patients each, leg, arm and head are noted evaluated at 9%.
A. True
B. False
13. What is the initial approach when obtaining a biopsy of a potential
malignant melanoma lesion?
A. Excisional biopsy
B. Punch biopsy
C. Shave biopsy
D. Wide excision
,14. Which of the following are independent practice competencies for APRNs?
A. Prescribes medications
B. Functions as an independent practitioner
C. Employs screening and diagnostic strategies to arrive at diagnoses
D. Manages health/illness strategies of patients and families over
time.
E. All the Above
F. A, C & D only
15. A female patient is diagnosed with androgenetic alopecia. Which
medication will the primary health care provider prescribe? a. Anthralin
b. Cyclospori
ne
c. Finasterid
ed
Minoxidil
16. Agnes is a 72 y/o grandmother who comes to the clinic with an acute onset
of severe eye pain. She has been having headaches, nausea and vomiting,
and seeing halos around lights. Eye exam reveals cupping of optic nerve the
pupil is oval and the cornea is cloudy. Her most likely diagnosis is:
17. Mikey is a 19 y/o male who is brought to the clinic because he has a fever,
sore throat, pain on swallowing and mildly enlarged submandibular nodes.
The most likely diagnosis for Mikey is:
18. A 50-year-old, previously healthy patient has developed gastritis. What is
the most likely cause of this condition?
a. H. pylori infection
b. NSAID use
c. Parasite infestation
d. Viral gastroenteritis
19. Which diagnostic test will the provider safely order for a 30-year-old
woman reporting right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and
vomiting?
a. Abdominal computed tomography (CT) with contrast
, b. Abdominal ultrasound
c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the abdomen
20. A patient, who first developed acute diarrhea 2 weeks ago, presents to
clinic reporting profuse watery, bloody diarrheal stools 6 to 8 times daily.
The provider notes a toxic appearance with moderate dehydration. Which
test is indicated to diagnose this problem? a. Qualitative and
quantitative fecal fat
b. Stool collection for 24-hour stool pH
c. Stool sample for C. difficile toxin
d. Wright stain of stool for white blood cells
21. A patient with a positive HbeAg indicates the patient has chronic Hepatitis
B. A. True
B. False
22. Classic pain of acute pancreatitis is severe midgastric pain that refers to the
midback. A. True I think B. False
23. A patient with hemoptysis and no other symptoms has a normal chest
radiograph (CXR), computed tomography (CT), and fiberoptic bronchoscopy
studies. What is the next action in managing this patient?
24. Jeremy is an 18 y/o male who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of
periumbilical pain. Over the past 24 hours he has had bouts of nausea and
diarrhea and pain at McBurney’s point. Which of the following assessments
would aide in confirming Jeremy’s diagnosis:
A. Psoas Sign
B. Obturator Sign
C. Murphy’s Sign
D. All the Above
E. A & B only
25. A patient diagnosed with cirrhosis develops ascites. Which medication will
be ordered initially to improve symptoms?
a. Cephalosporin
b. Furosemide
Exam Spring 2022
1. What is the purpose of clinical research trials in the spectrum of
translational research? Examination of safety and effectiveness of various
interventions
2. What is the purpose of Level II research?
To describe relationships among characteristics or variables
3. The care provided by APRNs is not limited by setting but by patient care
needs.
A. B. Tru
e
4. APRN Fals Consensus Model/LACE include all except:
e Licensure
A.
B. Accreditation
C. Certification
D. It’s the one that stars with an E (Education)
5. All of the following are core quality competencies expected of APRNs
except:
A. Uses best evidence to improve care
B. Assumes advanced leadership role
C. Applies skills in peer review to promote culture of excellence
D. Evaluates organizational structures to improved Not
care – sure??
6. What was an
important finding of the Advisory Board survey of 2014 about primary care
preferences of patients?
A. Associations with area hospitals B. Costs of ambulatory care
C. Ease of access to care.
D. The ratio of providers to patients
7. To reduce adverse events associated with care transitions, the Centers for
Medicare and Medicaid Service have implemented which policy?
A. Mandates for communication among primary caregivers and
hospitalists
, B. Penalties for failure to perform medication reconciliations at time of
discharge
C. Reduction of payments for patients readmitted within 30 days after
discharge
D. Requirements for written discharge instructions for patients and d.
caregivers
8. Rules proposed by the various State Boards of Nursing must be approved by
the state Legislatures.
A. True
B. False
9. To reduce adverse events associated with care transitions, the Centers for
Medicare and Medicaid Service have implemented which policy?
10. What was an important finding of the Advisory Board survey of 2014 about
primary care preferences of patients?
11. The Consensus Model for APRN regulation consists of which of the
following roles? A. CNM
B. CRNA
C. APN
D. CNS
E All the Above
A, B & C F. only
12. In reviewing the Total Percentage of Body surface area for adult burn
patients each, leg, arm and head are noted evaluated at 9%.
A. True
B. False
13. What is the initial approach when obtaining a biopsy of a potential
malignant melanoma lesion?
A. Excisional biopsy
B. Punch biopsy
C. Shave biopsy
D. Wide excision
,14. Which of the following are independent practice competencies for APRNs?
A. Prescribes medications
B. Functions as an independent practitioner
C. Employs screening and diagnostic strategies to arrive at diagnoses
D. Manages health/illness strategies of patients and families over
time.
E. All the Above
F. A, C & D only
15. A female patient is diagnosed with androgenetic alopecia. Which
medication will the primary health care provider prescribe? a. Anthralin
b. Cyclospori
ne
c. Finasterid
ed
Minoxidil
16. Agnes is a 72 y/o grandmother who comes to the clinic with an acute onset
of severe eye pain. She has been having headaches, nausea and vomiting,
and seeing halos around lights. Eye exam reveals cupping of optic nerve the
pupil is oval and the cornea is cloudy. Her most likely diagnosis is:
17. Mikey is a 19 y/o male who is brought to the clinic because he has a fever,
sore throat, pain on swallowing and mildly enlarged submandibular nodes.
The most likely diagnosis for Mikey is:
18. A 50-year-old, previously healthy patient has developed gastritis. What is
the most likely cause of this condition?
a. H. pylori infection
b. NSAID use
c. Parasite infestation
d. Viral gastroenteritis
19. Which diagnostic test will the provider safely order for a 30-year-old
woman reporting right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea, and
vomiting?
a. Abdominal computed tomography (CT) with contrast
, b. Abdominal ultrasound
c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the abdomen
20. A patient, who first developed acute diarrhea 2 weeks ago, presents to
clinic reporting profuse watery, bloody diarrheal stools 6 to 8 times daily.
The provider notes a toxic appearance with moderate dehydration. Which
test is indicated to diagnose this problem? a. Qualitative and
quantitative fecal fat
b. Stool collection for 24-hour stool pH
c. Stool sample for C. difficile toxin
d. Wright stain of stool for white blood cells
21. A patient with a positive HbeAg indicates the patient has chronic Hepatitis
B. A. True
B. False
22. Classic pain of acute pancreatitis is severe midgastric pain that refers to the
midback. A. True I think B. False
23. A patient with hemoptysis and no other symptoms has a normal chest
radiograph (CXR), computed tomography (CT), and fiberoptic bronchoscopy
studies. What is the next action in managing this patient?
24. Jeremy is an 18 y/o male who comes to the clinic with a chief complaint of
periumbilical pain. Over the past 24 hours he has had bouts of nausea and
diarrhea and pain at McBurney’s point. Which of the following assessments
would aide in confirming Jeremy’s diagnosis:
A. Psoas Sign
B. Obturator Sign
C. Murphy’s Sign
D. All the Above
E. A & B only
25. A patient diagnosed with cirrhosis develops ascites. Which medication will
be ordered initially to improve symptoms?
a. Cephalosporin
b. Furosemide
