1000 MCQ's Dental ADC Waysem Latest Update 2023 Completely Solved

1. For lower premolars, the purpose of inclining the handpiece lingually is to, A. Avoid buccal pulp horn B. Avoid lingual pulp horn C. Remove unsupported enamel D. Conserve lingual dentine - ANSWER A. Avoid buccal pulp horn Explanation 1- avoid BUCCAL pulp horn 2- conserve ling. dentine So take A and B if available 2. For an amalgam restoration of a weakened cusp you should, A. reduce cusp by 2mm on a flat base for more resistance B. reduce cusp by 2mm following the outline of the cusp C. reduce 2mm for retention form - ANSWER B. reduce cusp by 2mm following the outline of the cusp Explanation F cusp = 0.5-1.5 mm acc. to occlusion. Cracked cusp = FLAT BASE 3. Before filling a class V abrasion cavity with GIC you should, A. Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water and weak acid B. Dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anything C. Acid itch cavity then dry thoroughly - ANSWER A. Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water and weak acid Explanation also scraping with actual cavity prep. 4. Which of the following statement about the defective margins of amalgam restorations is true? A. The larger the breakdown, the greater the chance of decay. - ANSWER A. The larger the breakdown, the greater the chance of decay. Explanation the larger the gap between the restoration and the tooth, the more the chance for rec. decay -- replace don't repair. 5. The retention pin in an amalgam restoration should be placed, A. Parallel to the outer wall B. Parallel to the long axis of tooth - ANSWER A. Parallel to the outer wall Explanation RULE OF "2" ??? 6. The most common cause of failure of the IDN "Inferior Dental Nerve" block is, A. Injecting too low B. Injecting too high - ANSWER A. Injecting too low Explanation Failure of inferior alveolar nerve block: 1- Anatomical: -accessory nerve supply (MH nerve, cervical cutaneous nerve C1, C2) -variable, variation in course of nerve OR foramen position, -bifid alveolar nerve or mandibular canal 2- Pathological: infection, inflammation, previous surgery; trismus 3- Pharmacological: chronic alcohol abuse, chronic narcotic drug abuse; 4- Psychological: fear, anxiety, apprehension; 5- Poor technique: this is the most common reason for failure. There are three most commonly occurring problems with this technique: -Inadequate mouth opening. -Improper needle placement: a) too low. b) too far forward (laterally) or backward (medially) of the target area (need to insert the needle just medial to the pterygomandibular raphe à depth of 20 to 25 mm) -Haste: Waiting three to five minutes after the injection before starting the procedure. 7. Which one of the following is used in water fluoridation: A. SnF B. 1.23% APF C. H2SiF D. CaSiF - ANSWER C. H2SiF Explanation Water fluoridation: 1- Hydrofluosilicic acid = H2SiF6 (not H2SiF2) 2- Sodium silicofluoride = Na2SiF6 3- Sodium fluoride = NaF 8. The best way to clean a cavity before the placement of GIC is, A. H2O2 B. Phosphoric Acid C. Polyacrylic acid - ANSWER C. Polyacrylic acid Explanation also called: -Polycarboxylic acid -Polyalkenoic acid 9. The most mineralised part of dentine is, A. Peritubular dentine - ANSWER A. Peritubular dentine Explanation NOT intertubular & NOT interglobular dentine. 10. A 45 years-old patient awoke with swollen face, puffiness around the eyes, and oedema of the upper lip with redness and dryness. When he went to bed he had no swelling, pain or dental complaints. Examination shows several deep silicate restorations in the anterior teeth but examination is negative for caries, thermal tests, percussion, palpation, pain, and periapical area of ramififaction. The patient's temperature is normal. The day before he had a series of gastrointestinal x-rays at the local hospital and was given a clean bill of health. The condition is: A. Acute periapical abscess B. Angioneurotic oedema C. Infectious mononucleosis D. Acute maxillary sinusitis E. Acute apical periodontitis - ANSWER B. Angioneurotic oedema Angioedma (Type I Allergy) reaction to contrast media. 11. Internal resorption is, A. Radiolucency over unaltered canal B. Usually in a response to trauma C. Radiopacity over unaltered canal - ANSWER B. Usually in a response to trauma 12. On replantation of an avulsed tooth you could A. Surface resorption, external resorption B. Internal resorption C. Inflammatory resorption D. Replacement resorption E. A, C and D F. All of the above - ANSWER E. A, C and D Explanation (B) Internal resorption doesn't follow avulsion/replantation. 16. What is the sequence from superficial to the deepest in dentine caries? A. Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparative dentine B. Zone of bacterial penetration, reparative dentine, demineralisation, sclerosis. C. Zone of bacterial penetration, sclerosis, reparative dentine, demineralisation. - ANSWER A. Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparative dentine Explanation Zones of Dentine Caries (from superficial to deep): Decomposed dentine (V) Bacterial penetration (IV) Demineralisation (III) Dentinal sclerosis (II) Fatty degeneration (I) -- Reparative dentine (in pulp) 17. The nerve supply of the pulp is composed of which type of nerve fibres? A. Afferent & sympathetic - ANSWER A. Afferent & sympathetic Explanation 1-Autonomic nerve fibers (sympathetic only): They innervate the smooth muscle cells of the arterioles and therefore function in regulation of blood flow in the capillary network. 2-Afferent (sensory) fibers: These arise from trigeminal n. Dentin sensitivity is explained by the 'hydrodynamic theory' = Movement of fluid in DT à activation of small, myelinated Aδ fibers causing sharp pain. Injury and inflammation later lead to the activation of unmyelinated C fibers (dull ache sensation), which are found in the Sub-odontoblastic layer and the deep pulp. 13. The percentage of total dentine surface / dentinal tubules 0.5mm away from pulp is, A. 20% B. 50% - ANSWER The diameter and density of dentinal tubules (DT) are greatest near the pulp. DT have a diameter of 3 μm near the pulp, 1.2 μm in the middle of the dentin, and 0.8 μm at DEJ. -Total DT = 21% of total coronal dentine volume. -At pulp -- DT = 27% -At DEJ -- DT = 19% *SO, IF ASKING ABOUT DENTINE/DT SURFACE AREA AT THE PULP = 70% *IF ASKING ABOUT DT/DENTINE = 27% 16. What is the sequence from superficial to the deepest in dentine caries? A. Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparative dentine B. Zone of bacterial penetration, reparative dentine, demineralisation, sclerosis. C. Zone of bacterial penetration, sclerosis, reparative dentine, demineralisation. - ANSWER A. Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparative dentine Explanation Zones of Dentine Caries (from superficial to deep): Decomposed dentine (V) Bacterial penetration (IV) Demineralisation (III) Dentinal sclerosis (II) Fatty degeneration (I) -- Reparative dentine (in pulp) 17. The nerve supply of the pulp is composed of which type of nerve fibres? A. Afferent & sympathetic - ANSWER A. Afferent & sympathetic Explanation 1-Autonomic nerve fibers (sympathetic only): They innervate the smooth muscle cells of the arterioles and therefore function in regulation of blood flow in the capillary network. 2-Afferent (sensory) fibers: These arise from trigeminal n. Dentin sensitivity is explained by the 'hydrodynamic theory' = Movement of fluid in DT à activation of small, myelinated Aδ fibers causing sharp pain. Injury and inflammation later lead to the activation of unmyelinated C fibers (dull ache sensation), which are found in the Sub-odontoblastic layer and the deep pulp. 18. Which direction does the palatal root of the upper first molar usually curve towards? A. Facial / buccal/ B. Lingual C. Mesial D. Distal - ANSWER A. Facial / buccal/ Explanation This is why exo movement should be more BUCCALLY to avoid fracturing P root. 19. What is the common appearance of vertical tooth fracture? A. Perio abscess like appearance B. Displacement of fragments - ANSWER A. Perio abscess like appearance Explanation J-shaped lesion = endo-perio lesion. 20. Which of the following would be ONE possible indication for indirect pulp capping? A. Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure. B. Removal of caries has exposed the pulp C. When carious lesion has just penetrated DEJ - ANSWER A. Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure. Explanation B may indicate DIRECT pulp capping. 21. Following trauma to tooth, the next day there was no response to pulp tests you should? A. Review again later B. Start endodontic treatment C. Extraction of tooth - ANSWER A. Review again later Explanation Follow up as it can be false negative following trauma. 22. What is the main purpose of performing pulp test on a recently traumatised tooth? A. Obtain baseline response B. Obtain accurate indication about pulp vitality - ANSWER A. Obtain baseline response Explanation For future comparison 23. What is the main function of EDTA in endodontics? A. Decalcification of dentine B. Cleaning debris from root cana - ANSWER A. Decalcification of dentine Explanation The currently used regime in RC obturation is utilising resin-based SEALER (AH26) which is best used after ETDA 17% irrigation (as a chelating/decalcifying agent) to remove inorganic materials. 24. What is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for sedation? A. Patient commonly complain of post operative headache B. An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is given one hour preoperatively C. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects D. Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours post operatively E. As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with Flumazepil - ANSWER A. Patient commonly complain of post operative headache Explanation C is also correct, but not PROFOUND AMNESIA! 25. Which of the following is TRUE in regard to high risk patient? A. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient B. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV patient C. Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient D. Level of virus in the saliva is not significant for Hepatitis B patient E. The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood means that active disease is not present - ANSWER B. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from Explanation D is also true, but HERE IT'S LESS IMPORTANT 26. Your employer makes an attempt to update office sterilization procedures; what would you recommend as the BEST method to verify that sterilization has occurred? A. Use spore test daily B. Use indicator strips in each load and colour change tape on each package C. Use indicator strips daily and spore test weekly D. Use colour change tape daily and spore test monthly E. Use colour change tape in each load and spore tests weekly - ANSWER E. Use colour change tape in each load and spore tests weekly Explanation Chem./Colour indicator EACH LOAD & Biologic (spore test) indicator WEEKLY. -In Spore test -- The preferred test organism for steam sterilization is Geobacillus stearothermophilus. NB: Helix test = Bowie-Dick test must be run each day follow HOLLOW INSTRUMENTS/POTUR LOADS. 27. A 65 years-old woman arrived for dental therapy. shows that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis. Tanticipated in the routine dental therapy is: A. Extreme susceptibility to pain B. Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhage C. Recurring oral infection D. Increased tendency to syncope E. Difficulty in achieving adequate local anaesthesia - ANSWER B. Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhage Explanation LIVER DISEASE = DEFECIENT CLOTTING 28. Loss of sensation in the lower lip may be produced by, A. Bell's palsy B. Traumatic bone cyst C. Trigeminal neuralgia D. Fracture in the mandible first molar region E. Ludwig's angina - ANSWER D. Fracture in the mandible first molar region 29. Patient received heavy blow to the right body of the mandible sustaining a fracture there. You should suspect a second fracture to be present in, A. Symphysis region B. Left body of the mandible C. Left sub-condylar region D. Right sub-condylar region E. sub-condylar region - ANSWER C. Left sub-condylar region 30. Signs and symptoms that commonly suggest cardiac failure in a patient being assessed for oral surgery are, A. Elevated temperature and nausea B. Palpitations and malaise C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea D. Erythema and pain E. Pallor and tremor - ANSWER C. Ankle oedema and dyspnoea Explanation Pitting Oedema due to decreased venous return. Short breath & Pulmonary oedema 31. A cyst at the apex of an upper central incisor measuring 1 cm in diameter is visualized in radiograph and confirmed by aspiration biopsy; which method of treatment would you consider? A. Extraction of the central incisor and retrieving the cyst through the socket B. Exteriorizing the cyst through the buccal bone and mucosa C. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by tooth removal. D. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by endodontic treatment. E. Routine orthograde endodontic treatment followed by observation. - ANSWER D. Making a mucoperiosteal flap and removing the cyst through an opening made in the alveolar bone, followed by endodontic treatment. Explanation D is correct, HOWEVER THE RCT SHOULD BE DONE BEFORE THE APICECTOMY. 32. A persistent oroantral fistula for a 12 weeks period following the extraction of a maxillary first permanent molar is best treated by, A. Further review and reassurance since it will most probably heal spontaneously B. Antibiotic therapy and nasal decongestants C. Curettage and dressing of the defect D. Excision of the fistula and surgical closure E. Maxillary antral wash out and nasal antrostomy. - ANSWER D. Excision of the fistula and surgical closure Explanation long standing OAC -- becomes epithelialized -- OAF -- needs surg. correction. 33. The most significant finding in clinical evaluation of parotid mass may be accompanying, A. Lympha adenopathy B. Nodular consistency C. Facial paralysis D. Slow progressive enlargement E. Xerostomia - ANSWER C. Facial paralysis Explanation -Most common malig. S.G. tumor = MUCOEPIDERMOID CARCINOMA, esp. MINOR S. Gs. -Most common malig. PAROTID tumor = ADENOID CYSTIC CARCINOMA. 34. As far as surgical removal of wisdom teeth is concerned, which of the following is true? A. Prophylactic prescription of antibiotic reduces dramatically the chances of infection B. Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve C. Prophylactic prescription of dexamethasone will dramatically reduces post operative swelling D. Inferior dental nerve injury is unlikely since the nerve passes medial to the wisdom tooth root E. The use of vasoconstrictors in local anaesthetics will increase the chances of infection. - ANSWER B. Raising a lingual flap will increases the incidence of neurapraxia but will reduce the incidence of neurotmesis with respect to the lingual nerve Explanation Raising a ling. flap will decrease chances for serious damage to the ling. nerve. 35. Endogenous morphine like substances which can control pain are known as,** A. Bradykinins B. Peptides C. Prostaglandins D. Serotonins E. Enkephalins - ANSWER E. Enkephalins Explanation Endogenous Opioids = Enkephalins, Endorphin & Dynorphins 36. Platelets play an important role in haemostasis; which of the following describes this role? A. They convert fibrinogen to fibrin B. They agglutinate and plug small, ruptured vessels C. They initiate fibrinolysis in thrombosis D. They supply fibrin stabilizing factors E. They supply proconvertin for thromboplastin activation - ANSWER B. They agglutinate and plug small, ruptured vessels Explanation Platelet AGGREGATION is the 2nd stage of Hemostasis. Platelets aggregate (by TxA2) to form platelet plug which adheres to B.V. wall by VWF. 37. Suppuration is mainly the result of the combined action of four factors; which of the following is not one of these factors? A. Necrosis B. Presence of lymphocytes C. Collection of neutrophils D. Accumulation of tissue fluid E. Autolysis by proteolytic enzymes - ANSWER B. Presence of lymphocytes Explanation Lymphocytes present only in the outer fibrous capsule of a chr. abscess (not in the suppuration process). 38. Which of the following lesions CANNOT BE classified as an intra-epithelial lesion?** A. Herpes simplex infections B. Pemphigus vulgaris C. Herpangina D. Lichen planus E. Hand, foot and mouth disease - ANSWER D. Lichen planus Explanation Intra-epith. lesions include: 1- viral infections (Herpes viruses as HSV,VZV and also Coxsackie Virus). 2- PV 3- EM N.B.: ALL CHARACTERISED BY "ACANTHOLYSIS" esp. PV 39. In regard to HIV infection, which of the following is the earliest finding? A. Kaposi sarcoma on the palate B. Reduced haemoglobin C. Infection with pneumocystic carinii D. Reduction in white cells count E. B cell lymphoma - ANSWER D. Reduction in white cells count Explanation Decreased CD4+ (T-helper lymphocytes) 40. Which of the following is NOT CHARACTERISTIC of trigeminal neuralgia?** A. The pain usually last for few seconds up to a minute in the early stages of the disease B. The pain is usually unilateral C. Patient characteristically have sites on the skin that when stimulated precipitate an attack of pain D. An attack of pain is usually preceded by sweating in the region of the forehead E. It is a paroxysmal in nature and may respond to the treatment with Carbamazepine - ANSWER D. An attack of pain is usually preceded by sweating in the region of the forehead Explanation D = Frey's (Auriculotemporal ) Synd. in which surg. damage to the Auriculotemp. nerve (parasymp. supply to sweat & salicvary glands) -- sweating & salivation when eating or thinking of food. ALL the other options are characteristics of trig. neuralgia. 41. Benign migratory glossitis or Geographic Tongue, manifests itself in the oral cavity as, A. Irregularly outlined areas of hyperkeratosis of the dorsal surface of the tongue B. Furrows outlined the dorsal surface radiating out from a central groove in the centre of the tongue C. Loss (atrophy) of filiform papillae in multiple irregularly outlined areas D. Irregularly outlined erythematous area of hyper trophic fungiform E. A fibrinous exudate on the dorsal surface F. Grooves (fissures) radiating from a central fissure G. Irregular area in the midline of the tongue - ANSWER C. Loss (atrophy) of filiform papillae in multiple irregularly outlined areas Explanation Fungiform p. don't show hypertrophy but they become more prominent when filiform p. degenerate. 42. Which one of the following is true about oral hairy leukoplakia? A. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the dorsal of the tongue B. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the lateral side of the tongue C. Usually caused by Candida species D. Always associated with trauma to the lateral side of the tongue E. Always associated with pernicious anaemia - ANSWER B. Associated with HIV virus infection and is commonly seen on the lateral side of the tongue Explanation Caused by EBV Histo.: KOILOCYTES 43. Which of the following have a tendency to recur if not treated? A. Giant cell granuloma B. Lipoma C. Fibrous epulis D. Haematoma E. Pulp polyps - ANSWER A. Giant cell granuloma Explanation Also LIPOMA but less recurrence & rare in oral cavity (tongue is the most common site). 44. Basal cell carcinoma is characterised by, A. Rapid growth and metastasis B. Local cutaneous invasion C. Inability to invade bone D. Poor prognosis E. Radiation resistance F. Can not metastasise to the bone - ANSWER B. Local cutaneous invasion Explanation Rarely metastasize (Best Prognosis). But can invade bone. 45. Carcinoma of the tongue has a predilection for which of the following sites?** A. Lateral border anteriorly B. Anterior dorsal surface C. Posterior dorsal surface D. Lateral border posteriorly E. No preferred location - ANSWER D. Lateral border posteriorly Explanation L.N. metastasis esp. if involves base of tongue (post. 1/3). 46. A patient presents complaining of a stomach upset 48 hours after starting a course of antibiotic for oral infection, this is an example of, A. Type I allergic reaction B. Nervous disorder C. Side effect of the drug D. Type IV hypersensitivity reaction E. Pyloric stenosis - ANSWER C. Side effect of the drug Explanation Clindamycin is the most common example (causes Pseudo-membranous colitis). Also Metronidazole & Tetracycline. 47. Trichloroacetic acid, a strong acid, has been used by dentists for chemical cautery of hypertrophic tissue and aphthous ulcers; its mechanism of action is A. Thermodynamic action B. Activation of tissue enzymes C. Osmotic pressure D. Protein precipitation (PPT) E. Neutralization - ANSWER D. Protein precipitation (PPT) Explanation Not used anymore 48. Which of the following adverse reaction of oral contraceptives is the most common and the most serious A. Hypotension B. Hepatotoxicity C. Uterine neoplasia D. Thromboembolism disorder E. Decreased resistance to infection - ANSWER D. Thromboembolism disorder Explanation Thrombosis esp. limbs Less common side effect is Hypertension. rarely cause cancer (Breast & Uterus). 49. A patient who has been taking quantities of aspirin might show increased post operative bleeding because aspirin inhibits:** A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation B. Synthesis of prostacyclin and prevents platelet aggregation C. Synthesis of prostaglandin and prevents production of blood platelets D. Thrombin and prevents formation of the fibrin network E. Increase the absorption of vitamin K and prevents synthesis of blood clotting factors - ANSWER A. Synthesis of thromboxane A2 and prevents platelet aggregation Explanation In small doses aspirin inactivates "irreversibly" platelet enzyme cyclooxygenase, hence thromboxane A2 is not synthesised. The effect of enzyme inactivation lasts till the life of platelet (8-10 days), so new platelets required to control bleeding (i.e. if aspirin is to be stopped -- min. 7 days. N.B. Aspirin can affect clotting if taken in high doses. 50. A patient who recently had a calculus removed from the kidney presented with radiolucent area in the left maxilla with clinical evidence of swelling. The disease that you would immediately suggest is, A. Diabetes B. Thyrotoxicosis C. Hyperparathyroidism D. Osteoporosis E. Adrenal insufficiency - ANSWER C. Hyperparathyroidism Explanation Hypercalcemia due to increased PTH. 51. Typical features of Down's syndrome (Mongolism) do not include: A. Multiple immunodeficiencies B. Sever caries but minimal periodontal disease C. Susceptibility to infections D. Multiple missing teeth and malocclusion E. Hepatitis B carriage in institutionalised patients - ANSWER B. Sever caries but minimal periodontal disease Explanation Reverse is true. Also has: -increased incidence of leukemia -congenital hear disease -microdontia & retrognathism 52. The patient whom you are about to treat states that he has Von Willebrand's disease. Which one of the following preoperative haematological analyses may reflect this disease: A. Bleeding time and factor VIII level B. Bleeding time and factor IX level C. Bleeding time and factor X level D. Platelet count E. Thromboplastin generation time - ANSWER A. Bleeding time and factor VIII level Explanation Hemophilia A = Fac. VIII Hemophilia B = Fac. IX Hemophilia C = Fac. XI Pseudohemophilia = vWF Fac. VIII = VIIIc + vWF vWF disease affects platelets adhesion [BT] & clotting (VIIIc) [APTT] 53. A 22 years-old woman has acute gingival hypertrophy, spontaneous bleeding from the gingiva and complains of weakness and anorexia. Her blood analysis was as follows: HB=12gm, Neutrophils=90%, Monocytes=1%, Platelets=, WBC=, Lymphocytes=9%, Eosinophils=0% The most likely diagnosis is: A. Myelogenous leukaemia B. Infectious mononucleosis /glandular fever/ C. Thrombocytopenic purpura D. Gingivitis of local aetiological origin E. Pernicious anaemia /Vitamin B12 deficiency/ - ANSWER A. Myelogenous leukaemia Explanation Types of leukemia: acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) chronic myeloid leukemia (CML) Acute types more in children & more serious. 54. The tonsillar lymph node is situated at the level of, A. Angle of the mandible B. C6 vertebrae C. Jugulodigastric crossing D. Clavicle E. Jugulo-omohyoid crossing - ANSWER A. Angle of the mandible Explanation Palatine tonsils are present at Sides of Oropharynx, between palatoglossaland palatopharyngeal arches; AT THE LEVEL OF MANDIBULAR ANGLE. 55. Exposure of the patient to ionising radiation when taking a radiograph is NOT REDUCED by: A. The use of fast film B. The addition of filtration C. Collimation of the beam D. The use of an open and lead lined cone E. Decreasing the kilovoltage KvP - ANSWER E. Decreasing the kilovoltage KvP Explanation Because decreasing KvP will require more exposure time (more radiation). 56. X-ray films have an emulsion on one or both sides of a support material. The emulsion contains particles of, A. Silver nitrate crystal B. Metallic silver in gelatine C. Silver bromide in gelatine D. Silver nitrate in gelatine E. Potassium bromide in gelatine - ANSWER D. Silver nitrate in gelatine Explanation Silver halide (usually bromide) 57. The inverse Square Law is concerned with intensity of radiation using type D film of 200mm target to film distance, the exposure time was 0.25s. What would be the exposure for the same situation with 400mm target to film distance? A. 0.5s B. 1.0s C. 2.0s D. 0.25s E. 0.125s - ANSWER B. 1.0s Explanation Inverse square law: I1/I2 = D22/D12 -If you double the distance of the target -- exposure = X4 -If you triple the distance of the target -- exposure = X9 58. You wish to purchase a dental X ray machine and have the choice between 60kVp and 70kVp machines. With single change from 60kVp to 70kVp what would the approximate affects on exposure time? A. No effect B. Half the time C. Double D. Quarter E. Triple the time - ANSWER B. Half the time Explanation Half value layer 59. When no radiation shield is available, the operator should stand out of the primary x ray beam and a distance from the patient's head of at LEAST: A. 0.5 metres B. 1 metre C. 1.5 metres D. 2 metres E. 3 metres - ANSWER D. 2 metres Explanation Ideally 6 feet = 180 cm The operator of the dental unit must stand at least six feet from the useful beam or behind a protective barrier. Stand at an angle of from 90 to135 degrees from the central ray. Do NOT stand in the path of the primary x-ray beam. 60. The obturating material of choice for primary teeth following complete pulpectomy is, A. Zn phosphate cement and formcresol combination paste B. Quick setting hydroxide cement C. Zinc oxide and eugenol cement D. Gutta-percha E. Polycarboxylate cement - ANSWER C. Zinc oxide and eugenol cement Explanation Obturation of primary teeth must not interfere with the normal exfoliation of the tooth this requires Resorbable material EXCEPT if there is no permanent successor. Materials used in primary teeth: -ZnO/E -Iodoform paste 61. When primary molars are prepared for stainless steel crowns, should the depth for reduction of the proximal surface be similar to the depth of the buccal and lingual surfaces? A. Yes; reduction of all wall is similar for best retention B. No, proximal reduction is greater to allow the crown to pass the contact area C. No, the buccal surfaces has the greatest reduction to remove the cervical bulge D. Yes, all undercuts are uniformly removed so that the steel crown can be seated E. No, because of lateral constriction, the lingual surface needs greatest reduction - ANSWER B. No, proximal reduction is greater to allow the crown to pass the contact area Explanation Corrected to B. Buccal reduction is slight to retain cervical bulge for retention (Cameron page 81). Greatest reduction is the occlusal = 1.5 m 62. 8 years old child who has sustained a fracture of maxillary permanent central incisor in which 2mm of the pulp is exposed; presents for treatment three hours after injury. Which of the following should be considered? A. Remove the surface 1-2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide B. Place calcium hydroxide directly on the exposed pulp C. Pulpotomy using formocresol D. Pulpectomy and immediate root filling E. Pulpectomy and apexification - ANSWER A. Remove the surface 1-2 mm of pulp tissue and place calcium hydroxide Explanation Cvek "partial" pulpotomy using Ca(OH)2 or MTA -- for APEXOGENESIS. 63. Which primary teeth are LEAST affected with the nursing bottle syndrome? A. Maxillary molars B. Maxillary and mandibular canines C. Mandibular incisors D. Maxillary incisors E. Mandibular molars - ANSWER C. Mandibular incisors Explanation Early childhood caries (ECC) lower As & Bs least affected due to being covered by tongue during suckling. 64. Which of the following anomalies occurs during the initiation and proliferation stages of tooth development A. Amelogenesis imperfecta B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta C. Enamel hypoplasia D. Oligodontia E. Ankylosis - ANSWER D. Oligodontia Explanation Refer to my presentation No. 7 (Q. 12) 65. Which is the right sequence of the histological stages of tooth development? A. Initiation, proliferation, histodifferentiation, morphodifferentiation, mineralization B. Proliferation, initiation, histodifferentiation, morphodifferentiation, mineralization C. Proliferation, morphodifferentiation, histodifferentiation, mineralization D. Initiation, proliferation, morphodifferentiation, histodifferentiation, mineralization - ANSWER A. Initiation, proliferation, histodifferentiation, morphodifferentiation, mineralization Explanation Refer to my presentation No. 7 (Q. 12) 66. A healthy 6 years-old child presents with carious maxillary second primary molar with a necrotic pulp. Which treatment would be preferred? A. Extraction B. Indirect pulp treatment C. Pulpotomy D. Pulpectomy E. Antibiotic coverage - ANSWER D. Pulpectomy Explanation Unless there's furcation/apical RL or swelling -- extraction. NB: pulpectomy is difficult to acheive in primary molars. 67. To produce a stable correction of an upper labial segment in lingual crossbite; it is essential to: A. Use fixed appliances B. Have adequate overbite C. Treat during growth D. Use posterior capping E. Increase vertical dimension - ANSWER B. Have adequate overbite Explanation Self-retaining; usually no relapse. 68. Which of the following is a typical consequence of dental crowding, assuming no primary tooth has been lost prematurely? (in this question we take into considration the time of eruption) A. Overlapping of lower incisors B. Palatal displacement of upper canines C. Impaction of 15 and 25 between first premolars and first molars D. Mesial tipping of 16 and 26 E. Rotation of 16 and 26 - ANSWER A. Overlapping of lower incisors Explanation B- canine usually in Buccal displacement C, D & E -- if premature loss of 55 & 65 69. The lamina dura is seen on periapical radiographs as: A. Usual radiolucency between tooth root and surrounding bone as a thin white line B. Cribriform plate of bone making the tooth socket C. Dense crestal bone consistent with a healthy periodontal status D. Pattern of radiopaque lines in supporting alveolar bone - ANSWER D. Pattern of radiopaque lines in supporting alveolar bone Explanation A could be correct if not saying RL Otherwise it's D. N.B. "cribriform plate" is a histologic term. SO, Lamina Dura = Thin white (RO) line lining the socket (alv. process). The RL line bet. root & socket is the PDL space. 70. Which of the following organisms are pathognomonic of acute necrotic ulcerative gingivitis? A. Spirochaetes and fusobacterium SP B. Spirochaetes and eikenella corrodes C. Polymorphs and lymphocytes D. Actinobacillus actinomycetes comitans oral capnocytophaga E. Porphyromonas gingivalis and prevotella intermedia - ANSWER A. Spirochaetes and fusobacterium SP 71. In testing for mobility, which of the following statement is true: A. Heavy pressure must sometimes be used to test mobility B. Only lateral mobility is significant in diagnosis and treatment of chronic inflammatory periodontal disease C. Hyper mobility indicates that the tooth supporting structures have been weakened D. During the periodontal examination each tooth should be tested individually for hyper mobility E. Reliance on radiograph is essential - ANSWER D. During the periodontal examination each tooth should be tested individually for hyper mobility Explanation D 100% Also C is correct Take both if available. 72. Which of the following is true regarding gingivosis (Desquamative gingivitis) A. It is caused by hormononal imbalance B. Is seen only at or after menopause C. Is frequently caused by lichen planus D. Is a variant pregnancy gingivitis E. Is related to nutritional disturbance - ANSWER C. Is frequently caused by lichen planu Explanation Not a disease entity, but a sign of systemic disease ( 2L & 2 P commonly) 73. The treatment of Localised Juvenile Periodontitis is frequently supplemented with tetracycline because the flora involved is predominant: A. Aerobic B. Strictly anaerobic C. Facultative anaerobic or microaerophilic D. Resistant to other antibiotic - ANSWER C. Facultative anaerobic or microaerophilic 4. The most accurate way to evaluate the effectiveness of root planning is by: A. Inspect the root surface with an instrument for root smoothness B. Use air for visual inspection C. Activate a curette against root surface and listen for a high pitched sound which indicates a smooth, hard surface. D. Evaluate the soft tissue at the end of the appointment for a decrease oedema and bleeding E. Evaluate the soft tissues 10 to 14 days later. - ANSWER E. Evaluate the soft tissues 10 to 14 days later. Explanation absence of BOP A is correct if asking about how to check SRP tech. was properly done. 75. Probe pressure at the sulcus of pocket should not be more than enough to: A. Feel the top of the crestal bone B. Balance the pressure between fulcrum and grasp C. Define the location of the apical and the calculus deposit D. Feel the coronal end of the attached tissues E. Limit the lateral pressure - ANSWER D. Feel the coronal end of the attached tissues Explanation probing pressure = 25 g 76. A curette may be inserted to the level of the attached gingiva with minimal trauma to the tissues because of: A. Has a round base B. Is easy to sharpen C. Has rounded cutting edges D. Provides good tactile sensitivity E. Has two cutting edges - ANSWER A. Has a round base Explanation D is correct for detecting calculus and also for minimizing trauma to pocket wall. 77. Tetracycline hydrochloride conditioning of root surfaces in periodontal surgery is to: A. Sterilise the root surface B. May enhance binding of fibronectin and fibroblast C. Aids in re-mineralising the root surface D. Assist the binding of lamina dura E. Prevents post operative infections - ANSWER B. May enhance binding of fibronectin and fibroblast Explanation root conditioning materials: 1- citric acid (commonest) 2- tetracycline 3- EDTA 78. Of all the factors that increase the resistance of teeth to dental caries, THE MOST EFFECTIVE is, A. The general nutrition of a child during the period of tooth formation B. The intake of fluoride during the period of enamel mineralization and maturation C. Periodic topical fluoride application by dental health care following tooth eruption D. Sufficient intake of calcium and Vitamin D during the period of enamel mineralization and maturation - ANSWER C. Periodic topical fluoride application by dental health care following tooth eruption Explanation topical Fl is far more effective than systemic Fl (Cameron). 79. When the enamel of the tooth is exposed to preparation containing high concentrations of fluoride the major reaction is: A. Sodium fluoride B. Calcium fluoride C. Stannous fluoride D. Fluoroapatite - ANSWER D. Fluoroapatite Explanation High conc. solution -- Fluoroapatite CPP-ACP -- CaF2 80. Several approaches have been suggested to increase the fixation of professionally applied topical fluoride, which of the following statements IS INCORRECT regarding increasing the fixation? A. Increase concentration of fluoride in solutions B. Raise the PH of the fluoride solution C. Increase the exposure time to topical fluoride D. Pre-treat the enamel with 0.5% phosphoric acid E. Use NH4F rather than NaF at a lower PH - ANSWER B. Raise the PH of the fluoride solution Explanation Acidic (low) PH help increasing effectiveness of top. Fl 81. Biopsy is least useful in the diagnosis of, A. Geographic tongue B. Aphthous ulcer C. Cysts D. Granuloma E. Myeloma - ANSWER B. Aphthous ulcer Explanation least useful in RAU Can be useful in Geographic tongue. 82. In the inferior alveolar block the needle goes through or close to which muscles: ????? A. Buccinator and superior constrictor B. Medial and lateral pterygoid C. Medial pterygoid and superior instructor D. Temporal and lateral pterygoid E. Temporal and medial pterygoid - ANSWER A. Buccinator and superior constrictor Explanation Malamed handbook of LA 83. The extraction of maxillary deciduous molar in 5 years old child; you should use: A. Mostly towards the apex pressure and some movement B. Rotation C. Distal pressure and movement D. Labial-lingual movement - ANSWER D. Labial-lingual movement Explanation with more buccal movement to avoid fracturing the buccaly curved palatal root. 84. What is the purpose of making a record of protrusive relation and what function does it serve after it is made? A. To register the condylar path and to adjust the inclination of the incisal guidance. B. To aid in determining the freeway space and to adjust the inclination of the incisal guidance. C. To register the condylar path and to adjust the condylar guides of the articulator so that they are equivalent to the condylar paths of the patient. D. To aid in establishing the occlusal vertical dimension and to adjust the condylar guides of the articulator so that they are equivalent to the condylar paths of the patient. - ANSWER C. To register the condylar path and to adjust the condylar guides of the articulator so that they are equivalent to the condylar paths of the patient. Explanation American Decks II - prosthodontics 85. the pulp horn most likely to be exposed in the preparation of large cavity in permanent molar tooth is, A. Mesio-Lingual in upper first molars B. Mesio-Buccal in upper first molars C. Disto-buccal in lower first molars D. Mesio-Lingual in lower first molars E. Mesio- Buccal in lower first molar - ANSWER B. Mesio-Buccal in upper first molars Explanation it's B dental anatomy books E in American decks! 86. The main factor controlling a decision to increase the occlusal height of teeth for extensive oral reconstruction is whether, A. The inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatment B. There will be sufficient tooth bulk in the abutment teeth for proper retention of the crowns C. At least two third of the original alveolar process will remain for adequate periodontal support D. The aesthetic appearance of the patient will improve sufficiently to warrant the planned reconstruction - ANSWER A. The inter occlusal distance will be physiologically acceptable after treatment Explanation Zarb prosthodontics 87. In planning and construction of a cast metal partial denture the study cast, A. facilitate the construction of custom/special trays B. minimize the need for articulating C. provide only limited information about inter ridge distance, which is best assessed clinically D. can be used as a working cast when duplicating facilities are not available - ANSWER A. facilitate the construction of custom/special trays Explanation Zarb prosthodontics 88. Periodontal damage to abutment teeth of partial denture with distal extension can best be avoided by, A. Applying Stressbreakers B. Employing bar clasps on all abutment teeth C. Maintaining tissue support of the distal extension D. Clasping at least two teeth for each edentulous area E. Maintaining the clasp arms on all abutment teeth at the ideal degree of tension - ANSWER C. Maintaining tissue support of the distal extension Explanation American decks 89. Which of these muscles may affect the borders of mandibular complete denture, A. Mentalis B. Lateral pterygoid C. Orbicularis oris D. Levator angulioris E. Temporal - ANSWER C. Orbicularis oris Explanation Zarb prosthodontics 90. Jaw relation of an edentulous patient has been established. The maxillary cast has been mounted on an articulator without a face bow. You decide to increase the occlusal vertical dimension by 4mm this will necessitate, A. Opening the articulator 4mm B. A new centric relation to be recorded C. A change in the condylar guide settings D. An increase in the rest vertical dimension - ANSWER B. A new centric relation to be recorded Explanation A correct if face bow is used. Zarb prosthodontics 91 Wrong answer, Please check 91. Following extraction of the molar teeth **(wrong answer) A. The ridge height is lost more from the maxilla than from the mandible B. The maxillary ridge will get more bone lost from the palatal aspect than the buccal C. The mandibular arch is relatively narrower than the maxillary arch D. Compared with the pre-resorption state, the mandibular ridge will lose more bone from the lingual aspect than the buccal one. - ANSWER 91 Wrong answer, Please check D. Compared with the pre-resorption state, the mandibular ridge will lose more bone from the lingual aspect than the buccal one Explanation Max -- more lab/buc resorption Mand -- more ling. resorption Zarb prosthodontics 92. Which of the following is a major disadvantage to immediate complete denture therapy, A. Trauma to extraction site B. Increased potential of infection C. Impossibility for anterior try in D. Excessive resorption of residual ridge - ANSWER C. Impossibility for anterior try in Explanation Zarb prosthodontics 93. For dental caries to progress in dentine, A. The dentine must contain soluble collagen B. Enamel must contain glycoproteins C. Diet must contain simple carbohydrate D. Diet must contain polysaccharides E. Pulp must contain complement - ANSWER C. Diet must contain simple carbohydrate Explanation for bacteria to utilize it. 94. Streptococcus mutans utilises which subtract to form dextran, Refer to Boucher Microbiology A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Sucrose D. Amylopectin E. Dextrans - ANSWER C. Sucrose most cariogenic Carb 95. At birth, some calcified dental tissues are presented, A. All deciduous teeth and all permanent incisors B. All deciduous teeth and permanent central incisors C. All deciduous teeth and the first permanent molars D. Deciduous teeth only - ANSWER C. All deciduous teeth and the first permanent molars and sometimes lower centrals Explanation my presentation No. 7 96. which one of the following statement is correct, A. The remnants of Ameloblast contribute to the primary enamel cuticle B. the last secretion of the odontoblast is cementum X C. The last secretion of the ameloblast is the acquired of enamel cuticle D. The remnants of odontoblast form the primary enamel cuticle - ANSWER C. The last secretion of the ameloblast is the acquired of enamel cuticle Explanation BERKOVITZ Oral Histology: -It's called primary enamel cuticle not acquired. -Also C is correct if having "primary" instead of "acquired" 97. The principle muscle responsible for the opening of the mouth is, A. Mylohyoid B. Anterior temporal C. Posterior temporal D. Anterior belly of digastric - ANSWER D. Anterior belly of digastric Explanation Lat. pterygoid is also an opener. 98. Loss of tooth in mixed dentition affects A. Same quadrant B. The relevant jaw C. The whole mouth D. The relevant quadrant - ANSWER C. The whole mouth Explanation Cameron 99. What are the points that determine the facial line in cephalometric points, (The angle of the convex facial line): A. Nasion, subnasale, pogonion. B. Sella, nasion, pogonion - ANSWER A. Nasion, subnasale, pogonion. Explanation S = Sella: the midpoint of Sella Turcica N = Nasion: the extreme anterior point on the frontonasal suture SNA = Spina nasalis anterior: extreme anterior point on maxilla SNP = Spina nasalis posterior: extreme posterior point on maxilla Point A: the deepest point in the curvature of the maxillary alveolar process Point B: the deepest point in the curvature of the mandibular alveolar process Pg = Pogonion: the extreme anterior point of the chin Me = Menton: the extreme inferior point of the chin Gn = Gnathion: the midpoint between pogonion and menton Go = Gonion: the midpoint of the mandibular angle between ramus and corpus mandibulae 100. What is the main purpose of using Stress breakers: A. To distribute the load between teeth and ridges B. To distribute the load between the clasps and the face end of the saddle C. It relieves the abutment tooth of occlusal loads that may exceed their physiologic strength - ANSWER C. It relieves the abutment tooth of occlusal loads that may exceed their physiologic strength Explanation Decks 101. What is Miller's theory about A. Acidogenic micro-organism B. Proteolytic - ANSWER A. Acidogenic micro-organism 102. A tooth under occlusal trauma shows A. Bone resorption B. Necrosis of the pulp C. Hypercementosis D. Triangulation E. All of the above - ANSWER E. All of the above 103. Which is the more retentive form for an anterior bridge A. ¾ partial veneer crown ?????????????????????????? no accurate answer??????????????????????????? B. Class V inlay C. Pinlay Veneer D. Class III inlay with pins - ANSWER no accurate answer???????????????????? 104. What would not cause an airway obstruction A. Laryngeal muscles paralysis B. Flexion of the neck C. Airway obstruction D. Extension of the neck - ANSWER D. Extension of the neck Explanation Head tilt chin lift maneuverer clears airway 105. As far as localised alveolar osteitis is concerned; which one of the following is true? A. The incidence in the mandible and maxilla is similar B. The prophylactic prescription of antibiotics prior to extraction reduces the incidence. C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology D. Purulent exudate must be seen for a diagnosis and irrigation is mandatory E. Zinc oxide eugenol and alvogyl dressing promote a rapid bone growth - ANSWER C. Excessive fibrinolysis is the likely aetiology Explanation Dry socket 106. A patient with impacted canine; by moving the X ray tube distally the canine moves distally too; where do you expect the impacted canine: A. Labially impacted B. Palatally impacted - ANSWER B. Palatally impacted Explanation SLOB principle 107. A 10 years-old boy presents with small greyish white lesion surrounded by a red halos on the soft palate and tonsillar pillars, small vesicles are found. He hasfever and pain in the ear. The MOST probable diagnosis is? A. Herpangina - ANSWER A. Herpangina Explanation But fever is rare with Coxsackie Virus 108. The SNA angle on cephalogram, best signifies the relationship of, A. Mandible to cranial base B. Maxilla to cranial base C. Maxilla to mandible D. Mandible to porion E. Maxilla to Frankfort plane - ANSWER B. Maxilla to cranial base Explanation Angles : SNA-- max. to cranial base relation SNB-- mand. to cranial base relation ANB-- max. to mand. relation 109. A child has sustained a traumatic exposure of primary central incisor, he presents to you for treatment two days after the injury. Which of the following should be considered? ? A. Pulpotomy and Ca(OH)2 ??????????????????????? B. Pulpotomy and formocresol C. Direct pulp capping D. Pulpectomy (RCT) - ANSWER D. Pulpectomy (RCT) Explanation obturate with ZnO/E 110. 8 years old child presents with all permanent incisors erupted, but yet only three permanent first molars are erupted. Oral examination reveals a large gingival bulge in the un-erupted permanent area. A panoramic radiograph shows the alveolar emergence of the un-erupted permanent first molar crown and three fourth tooth developments, there are no other radiographic abnormalities. The most appropriate diagnosis and treatment plan in such situation would be:** A. Dentigerous cyst; surgical enucleation. B. Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure C. Ankylosis of the molar, removal of the first molar to allow the second one to erupt into its place. D. Ankylosis of the molar, surgical soft tissues exposure and luxation of the molar E. Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure and orthodontic traction - ANSWER B. Idiopathic failure of eruption, surgical soft tissues exposure Explanation Berkovitz 111. Patient presents with rapidly progressive root caries on many teeth. Which of the following laboratory results would be a possible indicator of this? A. Stimulated salivary secretion rate of 1.5ml/min B. S. mutans concentration of 10 -5 C. A plaque sample containing 5% S. mutans organism/ml D. A lactobacilli concentration of 10 5 E. Salivary buffering PH 5.5 - ANSWER D. A lactobacilli concentration of 10-5 Lactobacillus count test. there's not single test for S mutans. Dento-cult test strip (for both L & S mutans) 112. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of Down's syndrome? A. Decreased neutrophil function B. Macroglossia C. Macrodontia D. An increased susceptibility to periodontal disease E. Congenitally missing teeth - ANSWER C. Macrodontia Microdontia is present 113. The MOST common carcinoma in the mouth is, A. Epidermoid carcinoma /Squamous Cell Carcinoma/ B. Carcinoma of the lips - ANSWER A. Epidermoid carcinoma /Squamous Cell Carcinoma/ Repeat as 110 - ANSWER Repeat as 110 115. twelve years old child presents with symptoms of widespread gingivitis with bleeding and general malaise for several weeks. How would you manage this patient? A. Prescribe Metronidazole 100mg B. Locally debride, give oral hygiene instruction and prescribe H2O2 mouth wash. C. Give a prophylaxis with ultra sonic scaling D. Refer for haematological screening E. Advise for bed rest with supportive and palliative treatment - ANSWER D. Refer for haematological screening mostly leukemia (acute) 116. What is the affect of office dental prophylaxis of regular six month intervals on children's oral health? A. Reduce caries incidence by approximately 30% B. Provide a long term improvement in oral hygiene C. Provide a short term improvement in oral hygiene D. Prevent gingivitis E. Reduce the need for patient cooperation - ANSWER C. Provide a short term improvement in oral hygiene 117. Plaque is considered as an infection because: A. Antibiotic therapy prevents or stop its formation B. Indication of bacterial activity C. It is common to both animal and human - ANSWER B. Indication of bacterial activity Explanation ???? more options? 118. Which of the following is true in relation to dental decay? A. Foods that require vigorous mastication will increase salivary flow and reduce PH B. Tooth brushing immediately after meals is most effective because demineralisation has already started C. Food that encourage the mastication will increase the number of lymphocytes in saliva and thus reduce decay D. Vigorous mastication will increase plaque PH and lead to reduce of decays E. The Stephan Curve describes an increase in PH during a meal with resultant of demineralisation 119. The BEST treatment for alveolar abscess: - ANSWER D. Vigorous mastication will increase plaque PH and lead to reduce of decays Explanation 119. The BEST treatment for alveolar abscess: A. Endontic treatment or extraction B. Incision and drainage alone C. Extraction D. Endodontic - ANSWER A. Endontic treatment or extraction Explanation If I & D through RCT or exo -- correct If it has the word "alone" -- mostly they mean soft tissue incision -- so TAKE A 120. In developing plaque; the adhesive polymer produced by streptococcus mutans is synthesis from: A. Glucose B. Fructose C. Sucrose D. Lactose - ANSWER C. Sucrose 121. Fluoridation is the adjustment of the fluoride content of a community water supply to optimum levels for caries prevention. Which of the following statement is correct? A. Tooth decay declines by 90% to 95% B. Tooth decay declines by 45% to 55% C. Greater reduction in smooth surface caries from in pit and fissures D. Fluoridation increases vulnerability to osteoporosis - ANSWER C. Greater reduction in smooth surface caries from in pit and fissures Explanation 20-40% 122. Clinical /Proximal in some papers/ caries on radiographs are seen: A. Smaller than the real one B. Larger than the real one C. The same size - ANSWER A. Smaller than the real one Explanation usually the clinical caries is larger and deeper than it appears in the x-ray 123. A cusp fracture immediate to Class II inlay can be detected by, A. History B. Visually C. Radiograph D. Percussion E. Touching the tip of the cusp / Pressure on the cusp/ - ANSWER E. Touching the tip of the cusp / Pressure on the cusp/ Explanation biting test 124. Recession of gingiva of several anterior teeth caused by exposure and softened cementum; what would you do? A. Scrap the soften cementum and apply fluoride B. Scrap the soften cementum and use GIC C. Class V amalgam - ANSWER B. Scrap the soften cementum and use GI Explanation to avoid pulpal damage, decay & sensitivity 125. Patient with class II division II; the lateral incisor is missing. You want to make a fixed bridge which of the following is suitable: A. Rocket bridge using central incisor as abutment B. Cantilever using central incisor C. Fixed bridge using the central incisor and bicuspid - ANSWER C. Fixed bridge using the central incisor and bicuspid Explanation heavy bite (Class II Div 2) 1 & 3 abut. 126. When repairing a fracture of a lower complete denture, which statement is correct: A. Self curing will distort the denture B. Cold curing will not be strong enough because of small area of attachment C. There is a possibility of occlusal disharmony - ANSWER C. There is a possibility of occlusal disharmony 127. In regard to Electrical Vitalometer: A. To test recently erupted teeth B. Check response for an electrical stimulant C. Reveal potential necrosis - ANSWER B. Check response for an electrical stimulant Explanation EPT 28. When preparing a class III cavity for composite restoration; in which situation should acid itching be used: A. Always should be performed to minimise marginal leakage B. Should not be performed because it might damage the adjacent tooth C. When extra retention is required D. Only in situations where cavity is shallow to avoid pulp irritation - ANSWER A. Always should be performed to minimise marginal leakage Explanation No composite without etch, even if using all-in-one bonding -- it is preferable to etch & rinse separately. 129. In which situation is the translucency of a tooth lost: A. Death of the pulp B. Complete calcification of pulp chamber C. Hyperaemia D. Pulp stone E. All of the above - ANSWER E. All of the above Explanation Also after RCT. N.B. in pulp stone, the translucency is not completely lost. 130. Which pin system has proven to be the most retentive A. Self tapping threaded pin B. Friction peak pin C. Cemented pin - ANSWER A. Self tapping threaded pin Explanation Functional & Physiologic factors 131. Reconstructing the occlusal anatomy is based on: A. Functional factors B. Depth of restoration on a tooth C. Necessity to restore normal anatomy - ANSWER A. Functional factors Explanation Functional & Physiologic factors 132. How do you prepare the floor of pulp chamber in molars: A. Swab and dry with cotton wool and excavate B. Use round bur to flatten the floor C. Under cut walls D. Use flat end fissure bur to make it levelled - ANSWER A. Swab and dry with cotton wool and excavate Explanation Critical area ... don't use burs to avoid perforations. 133. When do you finish composite resin restorations: A. Immediately after curing B. After 24 hours C. A week after placement - ANSWER A. Immediately after curing Explanation GIC -- immediate Amalgam -- in 24 hrs to to polish 134. Café au lait spots are seen in: A. Von Willebrand's disease B. Recklinghausen C. Neurofibroma - ANSWER B. Recklinghausen Explanation Von Recklinghausen's disease is a genetic disorder characterized by the growth of tumors on the nerves (multiple Neurofibromatosis). The disease can affect the skin and cause bones deformities. Cafe au lait spots present in: -Albright synd (F.D. of bone). -Von Recklinghausen's disease (multiple neurofibroma). 135. Von Willebrand disease is, A. Haemophilic disease B. Bacterial Endocarditis C. Congenital cardiac disease D. Rheumatic fever - ANSWER A. Haemophilic disease Explanation It's a bleeding disorder that can also be associated with clotting disorder (due to defect in factor VIIIc). 136. What technique is used in the extraction of permanent 1 A. Rotation movement molars: B. Lingual movement C. Buccal movement - ANSWER C. Buccal movement Explanation B-L but more Buccal movement to avoid fracturing the buccaly curved palatal root. 137. Drugs contraindicated with Monoaminoxidase Inhibitors (MAOI): A. Barbiturates B. Pethidine C. Local Anaesthesia with felypressin D. Narcotic analgetics E. Salicylic acid - ANSWER B. Pethidine Explanation All are actually C/I with MAOI except C. But to chose from the available options -- B 138. Blow to mandible causing fracture in molar's right side region, you expect a second fracture of: A. Sub condylar of right side B. Sub-condylar of left side C. Fracture of symphysis - ANSWER B. Sub-condylar of left side Explanation Fractured body of mand. -- suspect a second fracture -- opposite sub-condylar 139. What is the most common fracture of Class II amalgam restorations: A. Isthmus because of insufficient depth B. Internal fracture C. Marginal ridge site - ANSWER A. Isthmus because of insufficient depth Explanation due to: 1-insuffecient material bolk 2-no bevel/roundation of Axiopulpal angle 140. What is the advantage of composite over silicate resin: A. Less shrinkage B. Less surface erosion C. Less water absorption D. All of the above - ANSWER D. All of the above Explanation Silicate resin is composed of -- -powder sodium alumino Fl and 20 percent glass -liquid phosphoric acid so -- it is acid base reaction Advantages: -anticariogenic -good insulator coz CTE close to that of the tooth Disadvantages: -discoloration -soluble shrinkage -brittle and poor marginal integrity -pulpal irritation due to acidity 141. The setting expansion of casting investment is approximately A. 0 to 0.1% B. 0.1 to 0.5% C. 0.5 to 1% D. 1.1 to 1.6% - ANSWER B. 0.1 to 0.5% American Decks 142. The contraction of gold alloys on solidifying is approximately: A. 0.5% B. 2.5% C. 1.40% D. 3% - ANSWER C. 1.40% American Decks 143. The un-polymerized monomer in Self-cured resin is approximately:** A. 0.5% B. 2.5% C. 5% (IT IS 0.5% IN HOT CURE) D. 10% - ANSWER C. 5% (IT IS 0.5% IN HOT CURE) Explanation American Decks 144. The volume shrinkage of methyl metacrylate monomer when polymerized is:** A. 12% B. 15% C. 18% D. 21% - ANSWER D. 21% American Decks 145. Treatment of fibrous dysplasia consists of, A. Resection B. Complete excision if it affects small area; if it is large lesion, limited excision surgery because of the cosmetic considerations. C. Irradiation D. Excision and removal of adjacent teeth E. None of the above - ANSWER B. Complete excision if it affects small area; if it is large lesion, limited Explanation Usually non-locally invasive lesion (so no resection). 146. Treatment of either salivary or multiple Giant Cell lesion is, A. Marsupialization B. In velation and packing ap?? C. Cold well?? D. Surgical curettage E. None of the above - ANSWER D. Surgical curettage 147. Oil or water on impression for treatment casts causes: A. An increase of the quality B. No alteration C. A decrease of the quality D. Bubbles on the cast E. None of the above - ANSWER C. A decrease of the quality Explanation Also D ... but C is inclusive 148. What is Path of Insertion A. The movement of the appliance from the points of initial contacts to path of final rest position B. The movement of the appliance from the points of rest position until it is not in contact with teeth - ANSWER A. The movement of the appliance from the points of initial contacts to path of final rest position Explanation Easy 149. What is Path of Removal: A. The appliances movement from the rest position to the last contacts of its rigid parts with the supporting teeth B. The movement of the appliance from the points of initial contacts to path of final rest position - ANSWER A. The appliances movement from the rest position to the last contacts of its rigid parts with the supporting teeth Explanation Easy 150. When correction preparation for re contouring of occlusal surface is to be applied, grinding only of the adjusted surface: A. Should not be felt flat B. Requires a flat crown C. Requires no contact with adjacent teeth D. Should be felt flat E. None of the above - ANSWER A. Should not be felt flat 151. To obtain a desired projection of occlusal loads, the floor of the occlusal rest should, A. Be convex B. Slope from the marginal ridge towards contact?? of abutment C. Slope from contact?? of abutment towards the marginal ridge D. Be concave E. Does not slope from the marginal ridge towards contact?? of abutment F. None of the above - ANSWER D. Be concave McCRACKEN 152. The transfer of stress by tensile action employs T. reaction; a process that within limits: A. Fails to promote bone growth B. Promotes bone growth and maintenance C. Fails to promote maintenance D. None of the above - ANSWER B. Promotes bone growth and maintenance Explanation Remember backward growth of Ramus 153. Which of the following areas CANNOT be determined by survey analysis of partially edentulous cast? A. Areas to be revealed as blocked out to properly located rigid parts of a frame work B. Areas to be shaped to properly located rigid parts of framework C. Areas used for guideline planes D. Areas used for retention E. Areas used for support F. Depth of rest seats - ANSWER F. Depth of rest seats Explanation Because it's intra-coronal 154. In partial dentures the guidelines "Guiding Planes" serve to: A. Aid in balancing occlusi