APCO EMD Exam 2023 with verified questions and answers
1. A successful EMD should: a. Be clear b. Be concise c. Use accurate speech d. All of the above e. None of the above d. All of the above 2. Which of the following can be considered part of a local EMS System? a. Hospitals b. Air Ambulances c. Law Enforcement d. All of the above e. None of the above d. All of the above 3. Which of the following is a Tier 1 level of training? a. Basic Life Support b. Advanced Life Support c. Aeromedical Ambulances d. First Responders d. First Responders 4. Advanced Life Support falls into which Tier of EMS? a. Tier 1 b. Tier 2 c. Tier 3 d. Tier 4 c. Tier 3 5. Proximate cause shows a direct relationship between the action or inaction of the EMD and a. The Duty b. The Responders c. The Injury d. None of the above c. The Injury 6. Medical calls for assistance normally demand a _____ standard of confidentiality. a. Lower b. Normal c. Higher d. Variable c. Higher 7. To establish the standard of care an EMD's behavior and conduct are judged in comparison with: a. Others with similar training and experience b. Local or state statutes c. Professional standards d. All of the above e. None of the above d. All of the above 8. The two National agencies that set the standards and guidelines for EMD are: a. NHTSA and ASTM b. FEMA and Red Cross c. AMA and ADA d. All of the above e. None of the above a. NHTSA and ASTM 9. Objective progress reports, work descriptions and policy and procedure manuals are all examples of what type of risk management. a. Individual b. Agency c. Liberal d. All of the above e. None of the above b. Agency 10. To effectively utilize your local resources it is important to a. Obtain proper information b. Understand and use your EMD Guidecards c. Recognize when specialty units are needed d. All of the above e. None of the above d. All of the above 11. The APCO EMD Guidecards a. Provide key questions to help determine the nature of the incident b. Give information on what resources to send c. Provide medical instructions for the caller until units arrive on scene d. All of the above e. None of the above d. All of the above 12. Card Title, Response Type, Response Criteria, Vital Points Questions and the Short Report are all found on which card type? a. All Callers Interrogation Card b. Scripted Medical Instructions Card c. Individual Chief Complaint Card d. All of the above e. None of the above c. Individual Chief Complaint Card 13. According to the text, the most important piece of information to obtain in the All Callers Interrogation is a. Where b. Who c. When d. How a. Where 14. The three call types in EMD are Individual Chief Complaints, Time/Life Critical Complaints and a. Pediatric Complaints b. Geriatric Complaints c. Initial Complaints d. Traumatic Complaints d. Traumatic Complaints 15. Cardiac Arrest would be an example of a a. Individual Chief Complaint b. Traumatic Incident Complaint c. Time/Life Critical Complaint d. All of the above e. None of the above c. Time/Life Critical Complaint 16. The Pre-Arrival Instructions given to a caller take place during which of the three phases of dispatch? a. Call Receiving b. Call Dispatch c. Post Dispatch d. None of the above c. Post Dispatch 17. The All Callers Interrogation Card is used in what phase of dispatch? a. Call Receiving b. Call Dispatch c. Post Dispatch d. None of the above a. Call Receiving 18. An emotional state that prevents callers from being focused during the interrogation process is called a. Increasing Paranoia b. Hysteria Threshold c. Uncommon Psychosis d. Emotional Withdrawal b. Hysteria Threshold 19. The ______ system controls all the body's functions and allows for interaction with the outside world. a. Musculoskeletal b. Skin c. Circulatory d. Nervous d. Nervous 20. The heart and arteries are parts of the a. Musculoskeletal System b. Nervous System c. Circulatory System d. Digestive System c. Circulatory System 21. The _____ protects organs and tissue from injuries and acts as insulation. a. Musculoskeletal System b. Skin c. Circulatory System d. Nervous System b. Skin 22. The _____ is made up of the organs necessary for reproduction, including the birth canal. a. Male Reproductive System b. Musculoskeletal System c. Skin d. Female Reproductive System d. Female Reproductive System 23. The pharnyx and epiglottis are parts of the _____. a. Musculoskeletal System b. Skin c. Circulatory System d. Respiratory System d. Respiratory System 24. Blood pressure, pulse and respirations are all examples of a. Levels of consciousness b. Vital signs c. Signs of shock d. None of the above b. Vital signs 25. The highest level of consciousness is a. Alert b. Verbal c. Pain d. Unresponsive a. Alert 26. The most dangerous level of consciousness is a. Alert b. Verbal c. Pain d. Unresponsive d. Unresponsive 27. Shock is sometimes called a. The silent killer b. The core reaction c. Symptomatic constrictions d. The baseline vitals a. The silent killer 28. Hypovolemic Shock occurs a. When the heart is no longer able to develop enough pressure to circulate blood b. With spinal cord damage c. When the body loses large amounts of body fluids d. As a result of a severe infection c. When the body loses large amounts of body fluids 29. Animal bites are classified as which Incident Type? a. Medical b. Traumatic c. Time/Life Critical d. None of the above b. Traumatic 30. Abdominal Pains are classified as which Incident Type? a. Medical b. Traumatic c. Time/Life Critical d. None of the above a. Medical 31. Falls are classified as which Incident Type? a. Medical b. Traumatic c. Time/Life Critical d. None of the above b. Traumatic 32. Allergic reactions are classified as which Incident Type? a. Medical b. Traumatic c. Time/Life Critical d. None of the above a. Medical 33. Drowning is classified as which Incident Type? a. Medical b. Traumatic c. Time/Life Critical d. None of the above c. Time/Life Critical 34. Cardiac Arrests are classified as which Incident Type? a. Medical b. Traumatic c. Time/Life Critical d. None of the above c. Time/Life Critical 35. An Obstructed Airway is classified as which Incident Type? a. Medical b. Traumatic c. Time/Life Critical d. None of the above c. Time/Life Critical 36. ASTM Standards require what percentage of calls to be reviewed in an EMD QA/QI Program? a. 1% - 6% b. 7% - 10% c. 10% - 16% d. 23% - 27% b. 7% - 10% 37. Continuing Dispatch Education programs must be organized around a. Standards of care b. Skills practice c. Responsibilities of the EMD d. All of the above e. None of the above d. All of the above 38. The two types of stress that can affect EMDS are a. Actual and Involuntary b. Interpreted and Constant c. Mental and Physical d. None of the above c. Mental and Physical 39. A state of mental and physical exhaustion that has three phases is a. Stress Response b. Target Organs c. Post Traumatic Stress d. Burnout d. Burnout 40. Burnout consists of the following phases Stress Arousal, Energy Conservation and a. Exhaustion b. Exemption c. Depression d. All of the above a. Exhaustion 41. Post Traumatic Stress Disorder is characterized by which of the following? a. Excessive concentration b. Elation c. Excessive excitability d. None of the above c. Excessive excitability 42. Critical Incident Stress Debriefing is a component of a. Critical Incident Stress Management b. Post Traumatic Stress Disorder c. The Exhaustion Phase d. Cognitive Thinking a. Critical Incident Stress Management 43. The four areas of signs and symptoms associated with excessive stress are Cognitive, Physical, Emotional and a. Behavioral b. Intellectual c. Argumentative d. Violent a. Behavioral 44. A critical incident stress debriefing is a critique session to review what people did wrong. a. True b. False b. False 45. The types of foods that EMDs eat do not affect their stress level. a. True b. False b. False 46. Emergency Medical Dispatch involves the combination of telecommunications skills and medical knowledge. a. True b. False a. True 47. When taking a medical call for service an EMD must diagnose the medical problem or condition being reported. a. True b. False b. False 48. Law Enforcement agencies are considered part of an EMS system also. a. True b. False a. True 49. All EMS calls should be answered "lights and siren". a. True b. False b. False 50. Using the EMD Guidecards can actually reduce the amount of time it takes to process a medical call for assistance. a. True b. False a. True 51. EMDs should be certified as CPR Instructors. a. True b. False b. False 52. Liability means that you are ultimately responsible for your actions. a. True b. False a. True 53. Intent to harm is required to prove negligence. a. True b. False b. False 54. Generally speaking, "Good Samaritan" Laws do not protect EMDs. a. True b. False a. True 55. To reduce liability, risk management should be addressed at both the agency and individual levels. a. True b. False a. True 56. A response mode is a combination of the skill of the unit dispatched (ALS or BLS) and the response configuration. a. True b. False b. False 57. Familiarity with your local EMS units and their capabilities is an effective way to utilize your resources. a. True b. False a. True 58. The ALL Callers Interrogation Card is used to gather information upon which to base dispatch and pre-arrival instructions. a. True b. False a. True 59. The Scripted Medical Instructions Cards need to be read word for word to the caller. a. True b. False a. True 60. It is not important for an EMD to be able to break through the Hysteria Threshold. a. True b. False b. False 61. It is acceptable to move a victim of a traumatic incident at any time. a. True b. False b. False 62. Getting a call back number will help the EMD combat situations that may rise from insufficient information. a. True b. False a. True 63. An EMD should never assume a call is worse than it sounds based on the caller's emotional status. a. True b. False a. True 64. If an EMD is unfamiliar with a medical condition or symptom given by the caller they should automatically upgrade the response level of a call. a. True b. False b. False 65. The digestive system is responsible for eating, digesting food and liquids and eliminating waste. a. True b. False a. True 66. The Musculoskeletal System is responsible for regulation of the body's temperature. a. True b. False b. False 67. Vital signs are used by the EMD and responders to determine the severity of the patient's condition. a. True b. False a. True 68. Patients in true respiratory distress are using all their energy to breathe and tend to look exhausted as though they have been working out. a. True b. False a. True 69. The best form of QA/QI is a system of random call review. a. True b. False a. True 70. Successful QA/QI Programs are used to ascertain good EMD behaviors for reward and bad EMD behaviors for remediation. a. True b. False a. True 71. Maintaining and improving skills in providing pre-arrival instructions is an acceptable type of continuing dispatch education. a. True b. False a. True 72. Conviction of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude is grounds for EMD revocation. a. True b. False a. True 73. Being convicted of driving while under the influence is grounds for refusal of EMD certification. a. True b. False a. True 74. Violation of laws pertaining to medical practice and/or drugs is grounds for EMD certification refusal. a. True b. False a. True 75. Handling stressful calls and the expectations that come with them can cause stress for the EMD. a. True b. False a. True
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apco emd exam 2023 with verified questions and answers
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1 a successful emd should a be clear b be concise c use accurate speech d all of the above e none of the above d all of the above
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2 whic