WGU C207 Final Self-Assessment 2023- 100% verified Q&A Latest update

Amanda is measuring the temperature. She looks at the thermometer and sees that it is somewhere between 65 and 66 degrees Fahrenheit. She is okay with the temperature in between two integers because she knows temperature is not ________ data, but temperature is _________ data.  a) Nominal, Ordinal  b) Nominal, Discrete  c) Continuous, Discrete  d) Discrete, Continuous Feedback: The correct answer is D. Temperature is not a measure that comes in increments (discrete) but is continuous as a temperature can be any number within a range. Question 2 The first stage of Davenport and Kim's Three-Stage Model of quantitative decision making is to  a) communicate the results.  b) frame the problem.  c) solve the problem.  d) None of the above. Feedback: The correct answer is B. It is important to frame the problem by understanding the environment of a problem. After that, one can solve the problem and communicate the results to others. Question 3 A manager is looking at his previous quarter and determining the causes for the sudden sales spike to gain a better understanding of the actions and outcomes. If using analytics, which kind of analytics would the manager use?  a) Predictive Analytics  b) Prescriptive Analytics  c) Descriptive Analytics  d) Proactive Analytics Feedback: The correct answer is C. The manager should use descriptive analytics because it is used to describe the characteristics of what is being studied. In this situation, the previous quarter sales would be studied. Question 4 In a study of cancer treatments, the subjects and the treatment allocator (who is also the data gatherer) are unaware of which treatment is being given to which subject. This is a ____________ study.  a) Double-Blind  b) Triple-Blind  c) Information-biased  d) Response-biased Feedback: The correct answer is A. There are two layers being blinded in this study. If the treatment allocator and the data gatherer were different people, then this would be a triple-blind study. There is no stated bias. Question 5 Adam is measuring the temperature as the lake outside his office is freezing over. He measures the temperatures in Fahrenheit ten times with the same thermometer and gets the following results: 20, 21, 21, 20, 20, 19, 19, 21, 20, 19. Is his thermometer reliable? Is it valid?  a) Reliable and Valid  b) Reliable but not Valid  c) Not Reliable but Valid  d) Not Reliable or Valid Feedback: The correct answer is B. The thermometer consistently gives about the same number for the freezing point and therefore is reliable. It is not valid because it does not accurately measure what it is trying to measure. We know this because we know water freezes at 32 degrees Fahrenheit. Question 6 Toby is trying to determine the number of people at today's parade in order to determine the impact of advertising at parades. He asks a number of different people leaving the parade their projected number of attendants. He gets the following responses: 70,000; 450,000; 2,000; 130,000; 3,000,000; 75,000; 200,000; 800,000; 150,000; and 210,000. Is this survey reliable? Is it valid?  a) Reliable and Valid  b) Reliable but not Valid  c) Not Reliable but Valid  d) Not Reliable or Valid Feedback: The correct answer is D. The answers are not consistent and do not accurately measure the number of people. Therefore it is not reliable or valid. Question 7 Harry is doing a survey of the city of Los Angeles' population. He is wondering everyone's favorite food. He sends out a survey to all of the renters in the city and receives basically all of the surveys back in the mail. What is the flaw in this experiment?  a) Small Sample Size  b) Blinding  c) Truly Representative Sample  d) Association vs. Causation Feedback: The correct answer is C. This does not represent the entire population that Harry is concluding about as he did not get responses from the other samples such as homeowners in Los Angeles. Question 8 Tom Brady is on the street in Chicago. He is asking anyone he meets if they prefer Tom Brady or Peyton Manning. The survey results show that people greatly prefer Tom Brady. What is the flaw in this experiment?  a) Small Sample Size  b) Truly Representative Sample  c) Response Bias  d) Conscious Bias Feedback: The correct answer is C. It is response bias, as the respondents might be responding believing that Tom Brady wants to hear that they prefer him over Peyton Manning. This is not Conscious bias as conscious bias would be in the way Tom Brady is asking a question and this scenario does not indicate any bias in that way. Question 9 There is a 50 percent chance that the president will slip on a banana peel. Also, there is a 25 percent chance that the president will be hit in the face with an apple. There is a 10 percent chance that the president will slip on a banana peel and get hit in the face with an apple. What is the likelihood that the president has a run-in with at least one of these fruits?  a) 65%  b) 85%  c) 35%  d) 22.50% Feedback: The correct answer is A. This is a union between P(banana) and P(apple). Therefore, P(banana ∪ apple) =P(banana)+P(apple)−P(banana∩apple) =0.50+0.25−0.10=0.65=65% . The president will probably not have a great week. Question 10 There is a 20 percent chance that Charlie's company will merge with another company. If there is a merger, there is an 80 percent chance Charlie will have to fire three people from his team. There is a 15 percent chance Charlie will have to fire three people from his team no matter what. What is the likelihood there will be a merger, and Charlie will have to fire three people from his team?  a) 16%  b) 18%  c) 28%  d) 35% Feedback: The correct answer is A. The probability of a merger is 20 percent (P(merger)=0.20 ), and the probability of Charlie having to fire three people if there is a merger is 80 percent (P(fire∣∣merger)=0.80). Therefore to determine the likelihood of a merger and Charlie firing three people, these probabilities are multiplied together. Therefore P(merger∪fire)=P(merger)×P(fire∣∣merger)=0.20×0.80 =0.16=16% Question 11 The probability that Junkins Food launches a new product in November is 55%. The probability that the director of new products plans a vacation in November is 8.3%. If these events are independent, what is the probability that the director of new products is on vacation when a new product launches in November?  a) 4.6%  b) 14.6%  c) 46.7%  d) 63.3% Feedback: The correct answer is A. The two events are independent; therefore, the probability both happen is the product of the probability of each. 0.55×0.083=0.043 Question 12 Determine the Mean, Median, and Mode (in that order) from the following test results. 23, 54, 67, 71, 72, 74, 74, 75, 77, 77, 77, 78, 80, 81, 81, 83, 84, 86, 89, 89, 89, 89, 95, 99, 100  a) 80, 78.56, 89  b) 78.56, 80, 89  c) 77, 78.56, 89  d) 80, 81.12, 77 Feedback: The correct answer is B. The mean is 78.56 as it is the result of the sum of the numbers, 1964, divided by 25, the count of numbers. The median is 80 as it is the 13th number out of 25 ordered numbers. The mode is 89 as it shows up 4 times and no other data point shows up as many times. Question 13 A medical researcher is studying the effects of eating cupcakes on weight gain over a year. What can be concluded from the following graph?  a) If you gain weight, you will eat more cupcakes  b) If you eat cupcakes, you will gain weight  c) There is no correlation between cupcakes and weight gain  d) There is a correlation between cupcakes and weight gain Feedback: The correct answer is D. The independent variable, defined by the x-axis, is cupcakes consumed per week. Therefore, answer A is not logical. Answer B is proven incorrect by the person who ate one cupcake per week and lost weight. There is a correlation between cupcake consumption and weight gain because the results form a somewhat distinct line. Question 14 Devin is hoping that his law firm will have one of the highest ratings in the country. He learns that the average score is 80 and his team's score is 86. He is initially disappointed as he had hoped for greater separation between the average and his company's score. He then learns that the standard deviation for the evaluation was 2.5. What is his company's z-score?  a) 3.5  b) 82.5  c) 2.4  d) 15 Feedback: The correct answer is C. The z-score, or standard score, is the difference between the individual's score and the average divided by the standard deviation. In this situation, it would be (86−80)2.5=2.4 . Therefore, the standard score is 2.4. Question 15 Robert would love his investment to yield returns of greater than 40 percent within a year, but he knows it likely won't. Similar investments have averaged 12 percent yield returns per year with a standard deviation of 14 percent. What is the likelihood that Robert's investment will NOT yield greater than a 40 percent return on top of the investment?  a) 68.3 percent  b) 95.4 percent  c) 97.7 percent  d) 99.7 percent Feedback: The correct answer is C. A 40 percent gain is at two standard deviations above the mean. As we know, only 4.6 percent of the population is outside of two standard deviations from the mean. Out of that 4.6 percent, half is in the tail that is two standard deviations below the mean, and half is in the tail that is two standard deviations above the mean. Therefore, there is only a 2.3 percent chance that the investment has above 40 percent returns and a 97.7 percent chance it does not. Question 16 What percent of the data in a normal distribution is between the mean and two standard deviations above the mean?  a) 47.7 percent  b) 50.0 percent  c) 68.3 percent  d) 95.4 percent Feedback: The correct answer is A. 95.4 percent of the data is located between two standard deviations below the mean and two standard deviations above the mean. Half of this data is located between the mean and two standard deviations above the mean. Question 17 Atlantic, Midwest, Pacific cars are three car companies that produce custom cars for different organizations: Which company can produce the greatest number of cars for 100,000 USD?  a) Atlantic Cars  b) Midwest Cars  c) Pacific Cars  d) Midwest Cars and Pacific Cars are equal Feedback: The correct answer is A. At $100,000, Midwest Cars produces 0 cars, Pacific Cars produces 8 cars, and Atlantic Cars produces 10 cars. Question 18 Refer back to the custom car graph: At what number of cars could an organization choose to order from Atlantic Cars or Pacific Cars, while paying the same amount per car?  a) 7 cars  b) 9 cars  c) 10 cars  d) 12 cars Feedback: The correct answer is D. It costs both Atlantic Cars and Pacific Cars about $140,000 to produce 12 cars. This can be seen by the critical point where Atlantic Cars' production line crosses Pacific Cars' production line. Question 19 Sarah is working for a non-profit trying to get malaria vaccines to the small village she is helping in Liberia. There has been a spread of malaria, and there are only two ways to get the needed hepatitis vaccines to the village in time. She could mail the shipment and pay extra to get each vaccination through customs or she could take it herself and be with it when going through customs which cost less. To ship it, the cost would be $200 shipping and $2 per vaccination at customs. For taking it herself, the cost would be $1400 and $0.50 per vaccination at customs. If there are 900 people in the village, should Sarah ship the vaccines or take them to Liberia herself? What is the difference in cost between shipping the vaccine and Sarah flying with it?  a) Ship vaccines, $150  b) Ship vaccines, $300  c) Fly with vaccines, $150  d) Fly with vaccines, $300 Feedback: The correct answer is C. The cost of shipping 900 vaccines would be $2000 (cost=$2×900+ $200 ), while the cost of Sarah flying with 900 vaccines would be $1850 (cost=$0.50×900+$1400). The difference is $150 ($2000−$1850 ). Question 20 A Pareto chart is a type of ________.  a) bar chart  b) run chart  c) flowchart  d) check sheet Feedback: The correct answer is A. A Pareto chart is a type of bar chart. Question 21 Cluster analysis sorts data points into ___________ and is often used in studying market ____________.  a) "natural" groups, company earnings.  b) "natural" groups, demographics.  c) linear relationships, company earnings.  d) linear relationships, demographics. Feedback: The correct answer is B. Cluster analysis sorts data points into "natural" groups. Often, especially in marketing, cluster analysis is used to study the behavior of people in different demographics. It is used to maximize a company's earnings, but this is rarely studied using cluster analysis. Question 22 "Where you enact the change on a larger scale, making it a part of normal operations." This is which step in the PDCA cycle?  a) Act  b) Plan  c) Check  d) Do Feedback: The correct answer is A. The Act step is where you enact the change on a larger scale, making it a part of normal operations. Question 23 Which of the following answers is a step in Quality Control, not Quality Assurance?  a) Training  b) Assess capability and recommend preventive action  c) Understanding the system and predicting outcomes  d) Inspection and repair Feedback: The correct answer is D. Quality Assurance focuses on preventing defects from occurring while Quality Control is presented with defects and then fixes them. Question 24 A SIPOC Diagram is very helpful in following a whole process of a company. It stands for Supplier, Input, Process, Output, and _______.  a) Company  b) Customer  c) Coordination  d) Cash Feedback: The correct answer is B. The customer is the last step when following a whole process in a SIPOC diagram. Question 25 From the following control chart, what is the size of the control range in the following chart?  a) 8  b) 12  c) 20  d) 22 Feedback: The correct answer is A. The control ranges from the lower control of 12 to the upper control of 20. The size of this difference is 8. Question 26 From the following scatter diagram, what conclusions can be made?  a) There is a weak positive correlation between the variables  b) There is a strong positive correlation between the variables  c) There is a strong negative correlation between the variables  d) There is no correlation between the variables Feedback: The correct answer is C. There is a clear correlation between these variables. This is not the strongest correlation between variables, but it is strong and, most importantly because the trend is downwards, it is negative. Question 27 Which one of the following is not an example of big data?  a) Test scores across a university  b) Company total sales in the last quarter  c) User satisfaction surveys  d) Prices of a city's houses Feedback: The correct answer is B. This could be a very large number, but it is still just one number. The other answers imply a set of numbers that can be studied as a group. Question 28 The manager of an assembly plant is conducting a study examining the cost of screws. If the simple index number for screws is 400, with a base period starting one year earlier, what conclusion should an employer make?  a) The rising cost of screws should be studied.  b) The increased productivity should be celebrated.  c) The decrease in screw price should be studied.  d) The decrease in productivity needs to be addressed. Feedback: The correct answer is A. This is a very large increase in the cost of screws. The cause for the rise in cost is not apparent, here. Question 29 George is studying the change in production of radios in the entire country over the past ten years. There were three companies that produced radios ten years ago, and now there are four companies that produce radios. If George is able to get each company's production data, he can take a ________________ to determine the change in national radio production.  a) Simple Composite Index  b) Weighted Composite Index  c) Simple Index Number  d) Weighted Index Number Feedback: The correct answer is A. There is information from many companies, but it is all radio production. This means that there is no reason to weigh one company's production more heavily than another company's production. Question 30 Town A has three times as many people as Town B. Town A has twice as many people with a disease as Town B. Which town would you visit, all other things being the same if you were to meet ten people in either town? (in other words, which town has a lower frequency for this disease)  a) Town A  b) Town B  c) Town A and B have the same frequency  d) There's not enough information Feedback: The correct answer is A. If Town A has three times as many people but only twice as many with the disease, it means that the disease is less prevalent in Town A than Town B. Therefore, you'd be less likely to get the disease in Town A if you were to come into contact with the same number of people in either town. Question 31 Which of the following could be an appropriate key performance indicator (KPI)?  a) Mission of new CEO  b) Average quarterly sales  c) Company structure  d) Types of strategies used Feedback: The correct answer is B. Average quarterly sales are quantifiable while the other three answers are not. Question 32 Which of the following is an advantage of key performance indicators (KPIs)?  a) They are easily adjustable after being initially setup  b) They accurately measure emotional indicators  c) They can serve as an internal benchmarking system for the company  d) They are expensive and time-consuming to create Feedback: The correct answer is C. Answer D is not an advantage and answers A and B are not true because KPIs are not easy to adjust after being set up and they have difficulty measuring emotional indicators. Question 33 Which of the following is NOT one of the four main perspectives examined by the balanced scorecard?  a) Innovation and Growth  b) Customers  c) Financials  d) New ideas Feedback: The correct answer is D. New ideas are not one of the four main perspectives examined by the balanced scorecard. Although new ideas are an important performance measure, the other three answers and Internal Business Process are the four broad categories that a business has to monitor. New Ideas would fit into Innovation and Growth. Question 34 A company predicts a 4 percent gain in customer visits. There is an actual gain of 6 percent in customer satisfaction. What is the variance?  a) -2 percent  b) 2 percent  c) 10 percent  d) 24 percent Feedback: The correct answer is B. The variance is the actual performance minus the target performance. Question 35 Company Y predicts 85 sales per day for the week and actually gets 80 sales per day for the week. Company Z predicts an 8 percent decrease in total sales and gets an actual decrease of 7 percent in total sales. Is the variance for company Y favorable or unfavorable? Is the variance for company Z favorable or unfavorable?  a) Favorable, Favorable  b) Favorable, Unfavorable  c) Unfavorable, Favorable  d) Unfavorable, Unfavorable Feedback: The correct answer is C. Company Y gets fewer sales than expected, but company Z did not decrease their sales as much as it thought it would. Question 36 A company is trying to determine their net promoter score. 100 people respond to a survey of whether they would recommend the company to a friend. On a scale from 0 to 10, 22 people answered with a 0 to 6, 45 people answered with a 7 or 8, and 33 people answered with a 9 or 10. What is the company's net promoter score?  a) 11 percent  b) 12 percent  c) 22 percent  d) 55 percent Feedback: The correct answer is A. The net promoter score is determined by the percent of promoters minus the percent of detractors. 22 percent of people (22100 ) are detractors, and 33 percent of people (33100 ) are promoters. Question 37 If Katy's test score was in the 25th percentile for a class of 20 students, how many students scored below Katy?  a) 15  b) 10  c) 4  d) 5 Feedback: The correct answer is D. Scoring in the 25th percentile means that a quarter of the class did worse than Katy. Therefore, five students scored below Katy. Chapter 6 assessment Question 1 The goals a company must reach in order to consider itself successful are called?  a) critical goal scores  b) critical success factors  c) SMART goals  d) succession factors Feedback: The correct answer is B. Those factors critical to an organization reaching its goals are called critical success factors, and they could include such measures as quality, customer service, and efficiency. Question 2 According to McKinsey & Company, which one of the following is NOT an area of performance measurement that needs to be focused on in nonprofit management?  a) The employee effectiveness  b) The ability to raise awareness  c) The progress on its goals  d) The success of mobilizing its resources Feedback: The correct answer is B. It's important for nonprofits to find a way to measure its success of mobilizing its resources, its employee effectiveness, and its progress on its goals. The ability to raise awareness could be a smaller piece of progress on its goals or employee effectiveness, but it's too specific an area to be one of the three big areas for a nonprofit to focus on. Question 3 Performance measures are used to evaluate the _______ of an individual or group by using data collection and _________.  a) efficiency, analytics  b) efficiency, surveys  c) understanding, analytics  d) understanding, surveys Feedback: The correct answer is A. Performance measures are used to evaluate the efficiency of an individual or group by using data collection and analytics. Understanding is not correct while surveying is already part of data collection and therefore would be redundant. Question 4 Which of the following could NOT be an appropriate key performance indicator (KPI)?  a) Fatality rate in pregnant woman  b) Average time spent in stores  c) New company goals  d) Employees' amount of sleep Feedback: The correct answer is C. New company goals are not quantifiable while the other three answers are. Question 5 Who is most likely to use a company's KPI performance dashboard?  a) customers  b) management  c) new hires  d) financial advisors Feedback: The correct answer is B. A KPI performance dashboard is a way to display KPIs using a series of visual representations such as charts and graphs. It is most likely used by company management to review company performance in various indicators. Question 6 Which of the following is a disadvantage of key performance indicators (KPIs)?  a) KPIs are often only a rough guide.  b) KPIs can't be used across an entire organization.  c) KPIs make it more difficult to quantify performance.  d) KPIs shield management from developing an understanding of a company's performance. Feedback: The correct answer is A. Answers B is not a disadvantage and answers C and D are not true because KPIs attempt to quantify performance and help management understand a company's performance. Question 7 Which of the following is NOT one of the four main perspectives examined by the balanced scorecard?  a) Innovation and Growth  b) Branding  c) Financials  d) Internal Business Processes Feedback: The correct answer is B. Branding is not one of the four main perspectives examined by the balanced scorecard. Although allocation of resources is an important performance measure, the four broad categories used in a balanced scorecard system are customers, innovation and learning, financials, and internal business processes. Question 8 A Net Promoter Score seeks to quantify which of the following?  a) Internal staff morale  b) Strength of customer relations  c) Family and friends discount usage  d) Internet promotions of goods and services Feedback: The correct answer is B. Net Promoter Score seeks to quantify the strength of customer relations. Question 9 A company is trying to determine their net promoter score. If their net promoter score is lower than the industry average, they will begin an initiative to improve customer satisfaction. The industry average net promoter score is 12 percent. 200 people respond to a survey of whether they would recommend the company to a friend. On a scale from 0 to 10, 40 people answered between 0 and 6, 105 people answered with either a 7 or 8, and 55 people answered with either a 9 or 10. What is the company's net promoter score?  a) 7.5  b) 15  c) 25  d) 40 Feedback: The correct answer is A. The net promoter score is the promoters minus the detractors. 20 percent of people (40200 ) are detractors, and 27.5 percent of people (55200 ) are promoters. The company should begin its initiative to improve customer satisfaction. Question 10 A balanced scorecard usually has a list of objectives. In each objective, a variance is shown. What is the meaning of variance when used on a balanced scorecard?  a) The difference between the values compared to the previous time the values were determined  b) The average of the sum of the differences between the results and the mean  c) The average of the sum of the differences between the results and the median  d) The difference between the target performance and the real performance Feedback: The correct answer is D. The variance when listed on a balanced scorecard, is the difference between the target performance and the actual performance. Question 11 A company predicts 300 people to make purchases this year on Black Friday. The total number is actually 282. What is the variance? And is it favorable or unfavorable?  a) 6, unfavorable  b) 18, favorable  c) 18, unfavorable  d) 582, favorable Feedback: The correct answer is C. The variance is the actual performance minus the target performance. In this case, the actual total was lower than the target, so the variance is unfavorable. Question 12 A company has a survey process for determining its net promoter score. 50 people responded to the survey with an answer between 6 and 10? How does NPS classify this group?  a) They are the detractors  b) They are the promoters.  c) They are the passives.  d) This is not a defined group. Feedback: The correct answer is D. Survey respondents who answer between 0 and 6 are detractors. Survey respondents who answer either 7 or 8 are passives. Survey respondents who answer either 9 or 10 are promoters. Question 13 Company A predicts 45 customer visits for the week and actually gets 50 customer visits for the week. Company B predicts a 5 percent decrease in customer visits and gets an actual decrease of 3 percent in customer visits. Is the variance for company A favorable or unfavorable? Is the variance for company B favorable or unfavorable?  a) Favorable, Favorable  b) Favorable, Unfavorable  c) Unfavorable, Favorable  d) Unfavorable, Unfavorable Feedback: The correct answer is A. Both outcomes are favorable. Company A gets more customers than expected and company B did not lose as many customers as it thought it would. Question 14 What is a disadvantage of a using net promoter score in an organization?  a) A net promoter score requires sophisticated calculations in its determination.  b) A net promoter score system does not determine the area of dissatisfaction.  c) A net promoter scores does not quantify customer loyalty.  d) The net promoter score system does not allow companies to benchmark against industry leaders. Feedback: The correct answer is B. Answers C and D are not true and answer A is an advantage. A net promoter score does not determine the area of customer dissatisfaction. Question 15 If a company has a positive variance against its target for a performance measure, what does that mean?  a) The company fell short of its target performance goal.  b) The company exceeded its target performance goal.  c) The company's performance was negatively on track.  d) The company's balanced scorecard is positive for all factors. Feedback: The correct answer is B. A positive variance means that the actual performance was higher than the target. Variance=actual performance−target performance . Chapter 5 Assessment Question 1 In results-based management (RBM), which of the following is the definition of Outcome?  a) The long-term effect that the output will have on the organization  b) The products created by the RBM activities  c) The short-term effect that the outputs will have on the organization  d) The resources, human or financial, used within the RBM system Feedback: The correct answer is C. The outcome is the short-term effect that the outputs will have on the organization. Question 2 There are five steps to the process of results-based management. Which of the following is NOT one of the three steps in the RESULTS part of results-based management?  a) Impact  b) Activities  c) Outputs  d) Outcomes Feedback: The correct answer is B. Activities are a step in the process of results-based management, but are a part of the resources used, along with inputs. Outputs, outcomes, and impact are the three steps of results in results-based management. Question 3 Which one of the following is NOT an example of big data?  a) The amount of money collected by taxes  b) The results of a one-question survey about voting preferences collected from many  c) Weights of people in the city of Houston, Texas  d) Incomes of people from St. Louis Feedback: The correct answer is A. Although the amount of money collected by taxes is large, it is only one number (data point). All of the other answers contain more information than just one data point. Question 4 Data mining is not useful in:  a) sorting through a large amount of data.  b) extracting information from a data set.  c) deciphering patterns from large databases.  d) determining the underlying causes of trends. Feedback: The correct answer is D. Data mining is not useful in determining the underlying causes of trends. Question 5 A company's revenue is 1.4 million dollars for the year and 400 thousand dollars in the fourth quarter. The same company's costs are 1.2 million dollars for the year and 350 thousand dollars in the fourth quarter. What is the ratio of revenue to costs for the fourth quarter of the year? What is the proportion of revenue in the fourth quarter to total revenue for the year? (Answers in the following form: Ratio, Proportion) The answers are simplified.  a) 8:7, 2:7  b) 8:7, 7:24  c) 7:6, 2:7  d) 7:6, 7:24 Feedback: The correct answer is A. The ratio of revenue to costs for the fourth quarter of the year is 400 thousand to 350 thousand. This is simplified to 8:7. The proportion of revenue in the fourth quarter to total revenue for the year is 400 thousand to 1.4 million. This is simplified to 2:7. Question 6 The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is an example of a ________.  a) Simple Index Number  b) Simple Composite Index  c) Weighted Index Number  d) Weighted Composite Index Feedback: The correct answer is D. The CPI is a measure that examines the weighted average of prices of common consumer goods and services. Question 7 The following is a list of prices for a barrel of oil over time: 20 dollars in 1990 15 dollars in 1995 27 dollars in 2000 50 dollars in 2005 75 dollars in 2010 What is the simple index number for the price of oil in 2005? Hint: the base period is 1990. (Source:  a) 70  b) 2.5  c) 375  d) 250 Feedback: The correct answer is D. The base period is 1990 when a barrel of oil cost 20 dollars. In 2005, a barrel of oil cost 50 dollars. The simple index number is 5020×100=250 . Question 8 Companies A, B, and C were the three construction companies in Dedge, Minnesota in 2012. Companies A, B, and C built 9, 21, and 15 house additions in 2012, respectively. Company A went out of business after 2012 while Company C seriously expanded. No construction companies were founded between 2012 and 2013. In 2013, Companies B and C built 25 and 29 house additions, respectively. What is the simple composite index of house additions from the construction companies in Dedge, Minnesota for 2013. Hint: the base period is 2012.  a) 99  b) 150  c) 125  d) 120 Feedback: The correct answer is D. The simple composite index measures data taken from many different sources and weighs all of the data equally. There were 45 house additions (9+21+15 ) in 2012. There were 54 house additions (25+29) in 2013. Therefore the simple composite index is 5445×100=120 Question 9 Which one of the following is NOT a fundamental element of, and essential to, epidemiology?  a) Proportion  b) Index Number  c) Rate  d) Ratio Feedback: The correct answer is B. Index numbers might be used in epidemiology, but they are not a fundamental element. Index numbers are actually a type of rate measuring how something has changed over time. Question 10 If the United States had 300 Olympic athletes and 60 of them won a medal while France had 100 Olympic athletes and 9 of them won a medal, which country had a higher prevalence of Olympic athletes winning medals? By what percent?  a) United States, 11 percent  b) United States, 51 percent  c) France, 33 percent  d) France, 51 percent Feedback: The correct answer is A. The United States had 20 percent (60300 ) of their Olympians medal while France had 9 percent (9100 ) of their Olympians medal. Therefore, medaled Olympians were more prevalent in the United States Olympians than French Olympians by 11 percent. Question 11 California is about 160,000 square miles. Maine is about 35,000 square miles. If California had one and a half times as many trees as Maine, then:  a) trees have a higher incidence rate in California.  b) trees have a higher incidence rate in Maine.  c) trees are more prevalent in California.  d) trees are more prevalent in Maine. Feedback: The correct answer is D. Trees are more prevalent in Maine as California. California is more than four times the size of Maine and, in this example, only has one and a half as many trees as Maine. Therefore, you're more likely to bump into a tree in Maine than California. Incidence rates are unknown as there is no mention of time. Question 12 Which one of the following is criterion-referenced test?  a) A history test where the professor "curves" the test, making sure the average for the entire class is at least 75.  b) The horses competing at the Kentucky Derby where the winner gets crowned in the winner's circle with a garland of roses  c) Medical students needing to effectively give an appendectomy on a mannequin before passing their appendicitis course.  d) The Mensa society is only open to those that score in the top two percent on the IQ test (a standardized test). Feedback: The correct answer is C. This is the only test where the results are not based on how others do. All three other tests are norm-referenced tests. Question 13 When determining the reliability of a test, the same test is given to the sample on two different occasions. What type of reliability test is this?  a) Split-Half Method  b) Cronbach's Alpha  c) Parallel-Froms Method  d) Test-Retest Method Feedback: The correct answer is D. The test-retest method is when the same test is given to the sample on two different occasions. Question 14 The greatest variance in scores occurs if ___ percent of the class gets each question correct.  a) 50  b) 68.3  c) 95.4  d) 100 Feedback: The correct answer is A. The greatest variance occurs when the observed score has a 50 percent chance of being correct. Question 15 In the military, a cost-benefit analysis might not be easily evaluated. Because of this, the military often uses:  a) a cost-effective analysis.  b) a criterion-referenced test.  c) item response theory.  d) weighted composite index. Feedback: The correct answer is A. The military determines the cost of achieving a goal and determines if it wants to continue with it. Chapter 4 Assessment Question 1 How do you determine the early finish date for an activity in a network diagram?  a) Take the largest finish date of all of its predecessors.  b) Subtract the duration of the activity from the late finish date.  c) Take the smallest start date of all of its successors.  d) Add the duration of the activity to the early start date. Feedback: The correct answer is D. The early finish date for an activity is equal to its early start date plus the amount of time needed to complete the activity. Question 2 Your quality management processes should monitor ________.  a) the products you produce  b) the processes you use to produce products  c) both the products you make and the processes you use to make them  d) the processes you use to make products but not the products themselves Feedback: The correct answer is C. Quality management encompasses both quality control and quality assurance, so it includes monitoring of both products and processes. Question 3 Which of the following statements about metrics is false?  a) Metrics should be continually evaluated to ensure that they are actually providing the data you are looking for.  b) Metrics can be used to compare plans to performance.  c) Metrics can help expose trends, but teams must use statistics—not metrics—to uncover root causes.  d) Collecting regular measurements can keep a team focused on improving quality. Feedback: The correct answer is C. Metrics can be used to expose trends and to uncover root causes. Question 4 Which of the following statements about a process is false?  a) Activities do not have to be completed in order.  b) A process produces an output.  c) Viewing work as a process allows you to evaluate steps and the interaction among steps.  d) Others should be able to repeat the process to achieve similar results. Feedback: The correct answer is A. To be considered a process, the activities involved should be completed in a specific order. Question 5 Kai's team is running an experiment to see if their ideas will work before they implement them companywide. What step of the PDCA cycle are they in?  a) Plan  b) Do  c) Check  d) Act Feedback: The correct answer is B. In the Do step, teams run experiments to see if plans will work on a small scale before implementing them on a larger scale. Question 6 The quality management team at Snoop Diagnostics wants to understand how strong the relationships are between two sets of items. They set up an L-shaped matrix diagram and place one set of items into the rows of the matrix and the other set of items into the matrix's columns. They use stars, diamonds, and plus-signs to mark the strength of the relationships between the items. When they are done, they notice that some of the cells in the matrix are blank but decide to move on anyway. They analyze the chart, make plans to address the trends they see and then post the chart for the rest of the organization to see. What is wrong with the team's process?  a) None of the cells in the diagram should be left blank.  b) The team forgot to create a legend to explain the symbols they used.  c) The team should have used a T-shaped matrix.  d) There is nothing wrong with the team's process; they did everything that they needed to do to create an efficient matrix diagram. Feedback: The correct answer is B. The team needs to include a legend to explain what the stars, diamonds, and plus-signs mean. Question 7 Which of the following would be most helpful in completing quality assurance activities?  a) inspecting all of the computer monitors produced on one shift  b) repairing defects to power sources before they are shipped  c) training line workers to institute new testing standards  d) rewriting code for faulty software Feedback: The correct answer is C. Training is a quality assurance activity because it helps to improve processes and prevent defects from occurring. Question 8 Hector has asked his team to collect data to show when and where defects occur. Now he is having problems compiling the information because the people on his team all decided to collect the data in different ways. What tool should Hector have asked his team to use to make this process easier to manage?  a) a Pareto chart  b) a check sheet  c) a histogram  d) a process decision program chart Feedback: The correct answer is B. Check sheets would have provided a structured and standardized way for Hector's team to collect and present data. Question 9 Where would you find control limits?  a) on a control chart  b) on a histogram  c) on a prioritization matrix  d) on a fishbone diagram Feedback: The correct answer is A. Control limits are the maximum value (the upper control limit) and the minimum value (the lower control limit) that the process should perform within. A control chart displays the process performance as well as the control limits. Question 10 Chester is showing his team how to uncover and fix the defects that their process has produced. What is he helping his team do?  a) quality control  b) SWOT analysis  c) quality postmortem analysis  d) quality assurance Feedback: The correct answer is A. Quality control activities help teams recognize and take action once a problem has happened. Question 11 Which of the following tools is not used to evaluate numerical data?  a) a control chart  b) a histogram  c) a scatter diagram  d) a flowchart Feedback: The correct answer is D. A flowchart shows the sequence of steps that make up a process—it does not contain numerical information. Question 12 Kelly is reviewing the following control chart for trends and aberrations. What of the following trends would cause her to implement some form of corrective action?  a) the seven consecutive points below the mean line  b) the four consecutive points that cross over the mean line  c) the seven consecutive points that alternate up and down  d) nothing Feedback: The correct answer is D. All of the trends listed fall within the normal variation that can be expected on a control chart. Question 13 Bebe is analyzing the following scatter diagram. What does the diagram suggest?  a) a strong positive correlation between the variables  b) a weak positive correlation between the variables  c) a weak negative correlation between the variables  d) no correlation between the variables Feedback: The correct answer is D. The lack of a pattern in the diagram suggests that there is no correlation or relationship among the variables. Chapter 3 assessment Question 1 How would a greater number of samples and a fewer number of populations affect an ANOVA analysis?  a) The results would be less accurate.  b) The results would be more accurate.  c) The results would have the same level of accuracy.  d) There is not enough information. Feedback: The correct answer is B. The greater number of data points in a data set will more greatly allow for conclusions to be made in an ANOVA output as there is more information about those populations. Also, the fewer the number of populations, the fewer the degrees of freedom. Question 2 Mary is determining the likelihood that she will lose money on an investment. There is an expected 10 percent gain in a normally distributed dataset, with a standard deviation of 10 percent. The likelihood she'll lose money is _______ percent.  a) 10  b) 16  c) 32  d) 68 Feedback: The correct answer is B. This is a little tricky as 68 percent of the dataset will be between a 0 and 20 percent gain. The other 32 percent is above 20 percent and below 0 percent. We care about the half that is below 0 percent, therefore half of the 32 percent outside of one standard deviation. Therefore there is a 16 percent chance Mary will lose money on this investment. Question 3 From the following picture, what is the size of the approximate production range of sweatshirts where American Steagle has the lowest cost?  a) 50  b) 100  c) 250  d) 700 Feedback: The correct answer is B. American Steagle is the lowest line (therefore lowest cost) for sweatshirt production from 250 sweatshirts to 350 sweatshirts. Therefore, the size of this range is 100 sweatshirts. Question 4 Refer to the graph below. If these linear trends of sweatshirt production continue at their current rate, which company would have the lowest cost for 500 sweatshirts?  a) New Navy  b) American Steagle  c) Alercrombie  d) New Navy and Alercrombie Feedback: The correct answer is C. Alercrombie has the smallest slope of all three companies, and at 400 sweatshirts it has the lowest cost. Therefore, at 400 sweatshirts, it has the lowest cost and rises in cost slower per sweatshirt than any other of the companies. This means that at future values (past 400) Alercrombie should have the lowest cost. Question 5 Select the choice that is true. Regression analysis:  a) decides the outcomes of possible actions based on the dataset.  b) determines the greatest impact of a variable on measurement units.  c) studies the decrease of values as a data set increases in size.  d) takes information from one data set and can predict information for another data set. Feedback: The correct answer is D. Regression analysis determines the relationship between two data sets and can be useful in predicting or forecasting results for a data set based on the other data set. Question 6 Jane works for a public health company. She is working on an anti-tobacco campaign and is interested in how smoking cigarettes affects a smoker's cholesterol. She could use the number of cigarettes smoked per day as her _____ variable and place it on the __-axis.  a) independent, x  b) independent, y  c) dependent, x  d) dependent, y Feedback: The correct answer is A. The number of cigarettes smoked is the independent, explanatory variable, while cholesterol can be used as the dependent, response variable. We place the independent, explanatory variable on the x-axis. Question 7 Given the break-even graph above, what does the area between the grey line (fixed costs) and the orange line (total costs) represent?  a) total costs  b) variable costs  c) revenue  d) net profits Feedback: The correct answer is B. This area represents the variable costs of the units sold (and the difference between total cost and fixed costs). Question 8 We perform a regression analysis on a pair of variables and determine that there is a linear relationship. The regression line is determined to be y=12x−5 . What type of linear relationship exists between the independent variable, x, and the dependent variable, y?  a) Weak  b) Strong  c) Positive  d) Negative Feedback: The correct answer C. The relationship between the two variables is positive. The dependent variable increases as the independent variable increases. Question 9 Which of the following does NOT describe R-squared?  a) R-squared measures the goodness of fit.  b) R-squared can be misleading if there are false independent variables.  c) R-squared is 1.0 when correlation is -1 or 1.  d) R-squared shows negative correlation when closest to 0. Feedback: The correct answer is D. R-squared shows no correlation when closest to 0. It shows negative correlation when closest to -1. Question 10 Which of the following is not a technique a manager uses when forecasting?  a) Transitive  b) Time Series  c) Associative  d) Judgmental Feedback: The correct answer is a. Transitive is not an element that a manager uses when forecasting. Question 11 Which of the following is a disadvantage of cluster analysis?  a) It is a long and expensive process.  b) It sorts individual data points into different groups.  c) It will not help in determining target markets.  d) It does not identify successful and unsuccessful habits and systems. Feedback: The correct answer is a. Cluster analysis is a long and expensive process. Answers b and c are advantages and d is not true. Question 12 A trend is...  a) something that many people have favorable opinions of.  b) a regular pattern of volatility.  c) a general slope upward or downward over a long period of time.  d) any movement over time that might occur again. Feedback: The correct answer is c. A trend is a general slope upward or downward over time. Question 13 If there is a relationship between variables, but the relationship is not linear, what possible challenge with regression could it be?  a) Multiple Linear Regression  b) Polynomial Regression  c) Outliers  d) Independent Variables Feedback: The correct answer is b. When there is a relationship, but it is not linear, it is a non-linear relationship. Polynomial, exponential, and logarithmic regressions are types of non-linear relationships. Question 14 Catherine is trying to sell a ticket to the Super Bowl. She is determining whether or not she should sell a ticket now or wait until just before the game and try and sell it then. Currently, someone is offering $350 for the ticket. From research of past prices, she knows that the tickets immediately before the Super Bowl are sold for about $500. She determines that there is a 75 percent chance she will be able to sell the ticket immediately before the Super Bowl. Based on expected payoffs from risk decision making, what should she do? How much is the difference if she chooses to sell now?  a) Catherine should sell the ticket now; the difference will be $25.  b) Catherine should sell the ticket now; the difference will be $150.  c) Catherine should wait to sell ticket; the difference will be $25.  d) Catherine should wait to sell ticket; the difference will be $150. Feedback: The correct answer is C. The expected payoff of selling the ticket right before the Super Bowl is P(atSB) =0.75×$500+0.25×$0=$375 . The payoff of selling the ticket now is $350. Although there is a 25 percent chance she is not able to sell the ticket right before the game, this decision is based on risk decision making which only considers expected payoffs. Chapter 2 Assessment Question 1 Which of the following is NOT an application of statistics in business?  a) Determine the internet advertiser that will reach the most people from extensive page view data.  b) Determine a target market based on information on household incomes throughout the country.  c) Predict trends in certain investments of big companies from previous results of Fortune 100 companies.  d) Forecast likelihood of board of director decisions from previous voting habits. Feedback: The correct answer is D. Although this might be in a business context, this is the use of statistics in politics. The other three examples are applications of statistics in business. Question 2 Bethany notices that her husband is wearing a blue sweater on Tuesday. She cannot remember what he has worn previous Tuesdays. The next Tuesday she notices he is wearing another blue sweater. She concludes that if it is Tuesday, he will wear a blue sweater having data from her experiment to support this. What is the flaw with this experiment?  a) Small Sample Size  b) Operationalization  c) Missing Data  d) Assumptions Feedback: The correct answer is A. This is an experiment with too few data entries to form a statistically relevant conclusion. Question 3 Doctor Andrews has been trying to measure the likelihood of heart attack risk. Doctor Andrews decides to monitor hair length in people to determine those at high risk of heart attack. What is the flaw in this experiment?  a) Assumptions  b) Association vs. Causation  c) Response Bias  d) Operationalization Feedback: The correct answer is D. Monitoring hair growth does not measure the risk of heart attack. There is a flaw in the experiment because the experiment is not measuring what the objective is trying to determine. Question 4 Mr. Wonka notices that the last twenty times he invented a new chocolate candy, his major competitors, Count Chocula, and the Easter Bunny, have big sales in late October. Mr. Wonka feels directly responsible for the profit of his competitors. What is the flaw in this experiment?  a) Small Sample Size  b) Truly Representative Sample  c) Association vs. Causation  d) Blinding Feedback: The correct answer is C. Mr. Wonka's inventive ways are probably not the cause of increased chocolate candy sales for his competitors at the end of October like Mr. Wonka has concluded. Question 5 There is a 90 percent chance that a package will arrive within three days of when it was shipped. Also, there is a 75 percent chance that it will get wet. There is a 70 percent chance that it will get wet and will be delivered within three days. What is the likelihood that at least one of these events occurs?  a) 0.8  b) 0.85  c) 0.9  d) 0.95 Feedback: The correct answer is D. This is a union between P(on time) and P(wet). Therefore, P(on time∪wet) =P(on time)+P(wet)−P(on time∩wet) =0.90+0.75−0.70=0.95=95% Question 6 There is an 80 percent chance of snow. If it snows there is a 10 percent chance of Todd walking to the store. If it doesn't snow there is a 60 percent chance of Todd walking to the store. What is the likelihood that it will not snow and Todd will walk to the store?  a) 0.12  b) 0.18  c) 0.2  d) 0.48 Feedback: The correct answer is A. The probability of no snow is 20 percent (P(no snow)=0.20 ), and the probability of Todd walking to the store with no snow is 60 percent (P(walk|no snow)=0.60). Therefore to determine the likelihood of it not snowing and Todd walking to the store, these probabilities are multiplied together. Therefore P(no snow∩walk)=P(no snow)×P(walk|no snow)= 0.20×0.60=0.12=12% Question 7 Determine the Mode, Median, Mean (in that order) from the following data set. 4, 7, 11, 12, 14, 14, 15, 17, 17, 17, 18, 20, 23, 24, 26, 29, 35, 39, 40  a) 17, 17, 20  b) 14, 17.5, 17  c) 17, 17, 17  d) 17, 17, 20.11 Feedback: The correct answer is D. The mode is 17 as it shows up 3 times and no other data point shows up as many times. The median is 17 as it is the 10th number out of 19 ordered numbers. The mean is 20.11 as it is the result of the sum of the numbers, 382, divided by 19, the count of numbers. Question 8 Standard deviation measures  a) the average of the difference for the data set.  b) the normal exceptions between the expected data points.  c) the median of the data set distributed equally.  d) the dispersion from the average for the data set. Feedback: The correct answer is D. Standard deviation is used to measure the spread of a data set from its average. Question 9 Which of the following boxplot graphs is a correct representation of the following data set of test scores: 95, 77, 75, 48, 72, 79, 67, 83, 90, 81, 84  a)  b)  c)  d) Feedback: The correct answer is D. The numbers ordered were: 48, 67, 72, 75, 77, 79, 81, 83, 84, 90, and 95. This produces a median of 79 and an inter-quartile range from 72 to 84. Question 10 Rose's Jewelry's biggest month for sales is December. Rose is considering shutting down her jewelry store if this December's daily sales numbers don't average 15 thousand dollars. Rose determines the following run and control chart on December 26th, what conclusion can she make?  a) Rose's Jewelry was hurt by the lead-up to Christmas  b) Rose's Jewelry was helped by the leadup to Christmas  c) Rose's Jewelry will close because of the lack of a Christmas rush  d) Rose's Jewelry will stay open because of the spike in Christmas shopping Feedback: The correct answer is B. Rose can't conclude about the rest of the month yet and therefore cannot determine if her store will remain open or close. The upward spike before Christmas shows that Christmas greatly helped Rose. Question 11 From the following scatter plot, what can be inferred?  a) Someone doing well in school causes them to watch little television.  b) The more someone watches TV, the worse they do.  c) The lower the test score, the more TV one will watch.  d) Even watching less than 2 hours of TV a night has a negative effect on test scores. Feedback: The correct answer is D. There's not much a relationship after two hours. Therefore B is incorrect. Also, this graph maintains that the amount of time watching TV is the independent variable (as it is on the x-axis) and therefore A and C are incorrect as they state that TV time is dependent on test scores. Question 12 Superman has forgotten how to fly. He decides that he will only remember how to fly if he's falling, but the distance from his desk to the floor is not far enough for the urgency of muscle memory to kick in. The following is a relative cumulative frequency graph for the likelihood that Superman will remember how to fly before he hits the ground depending on the building's height. The higher the building, the more time he has to remember. What is the likelihood that Superman will not remember to fly if he falls off the tallest building in Kansas (height – 320 feet) but will remember if he falls off the Tribune Tower in Chicago (height - 463 feet)?  a) 5%  b) 9%  c) 23%  d) 48% Feedback: The correct answer is B. In this problem the area between 320 feet's 14% chance of remembering and 463 feet's 23% chance of remembering is what is being studied. This difference is 9%. Question 13 Elizabeth got a 75 on her performance review. The average was 80, but the standard deviation was 3.5. Determine the z-score for her performance review.  a) 1.43  b) -1.43  c) 5  d) 3.5 Feedback: The correct answer is B. This is because she was 1.43 standard deviations below the average. Z-score is determined by the distance a data point is from the mean divided by the standard deviation. The data point was five below the mean ( therefore -5), and the standard deviation was 3.5. Therefore, the zscore for Elizabeth's performance review was −53.5=−1.43 . Chapter 1 assessment Question 1 If you were to take your temperature 10 times in a row using the same thermometer and got the same result every time, you could say that the thermometer is __________.  a) valid  b) reliable  c) accurate  d) measurable Feedback: The correct answer is B. A test is reliable if it is consistent and repeatable. Question 2 According to the 2000 census the average number of people in a family in the U.S. was 3.17. Since it isn't possible to have .17 of a person, you would use a __________ data point to describe the number of people in your family.  a) continuous  b) discrete  c) valid  d) ordinal Feedback: The correct answer is B. You would use a discrete number such as one, three, or five to describe the number of people in your family. Question 3 You survey 100 New Yorkers about their preference for New York-style or Chicago-style pizza. What would be wrong with this?  a) You would encounter information bias.  b) You would encounter gender bias.  c) You would encounter random error.  d) You would encounter measurement bias. Feedback: The correct answer is D. Asking 100 New Yorkers about their preferences would most likely result in measurement bias. The same would occur if you were to ask the question of 100 Chicagoans. Question 4 Rankings are an example of which kind of data?  a) nominal  b) continuous  c) ordinal  d) discrete Feedback: The correct answer is C. Ordinal numbers place subjects in order according to some quality. So, if you came in first, second, or third in a race, this would be an example of ordinal data. Question 5 The science of using mathematical procedures to describe data is __________.  a) statistics  b) mathematics  c) descriptive data  d) analytics Feedback: The correct answer is A. Statistics uses mathematical procedures to describe data. Analytics makes use of statistical analysis. Question 6 The third stage of Davenport and Kim's Three-Stage Model of quantitative decision making is which of the following?  a) solving the problem  b) framing the problem  c) communicating results  d) None of the above Feedback: The correct answer is C. The third stage in Davenport and Kim's Three-Stage model is communicating results. Question 7 Cleaning and organizing collected raw data refers to which of the following?  a) data collection  b) data management  c) data discovery  d) rectangular data Feedback: The correct answer is B. Cleaning and organizing raw data is known as data management. The result is sometimes a rectangular data file. Question 8 Suppose you wanted to determine the ratio of cyclists to drivers in cities with higher versus lower air quality. What kind of study might you use?  a) observational study  b) experimental study  c) double-blind study  d) triple-blind study Feedback: The correct answer is A. Because you cannot control for all variables, you would not be able to use an experimental study or blind studies. Question 9 Suppose you were to use analytics in an experiment to determine how many salespeople to assign to particular sales territories based on the makeup and performance of the territories in the results of the experiment. You would be using which kind of analytics?  a) predictive  b) prescriptive  c) descriptive  d) proactive Feedback: The correct answer is B. Prescriptive analytics determines a course of action. Question 10 Suppose you employed analytics to determine which sales territories had shown the most profitable growth in the last four quarters and would most likely do so again in the future. You would be using which kind of analytics?  a) predictive  b) prescriptive  c) descriptive  d) proactive Feedback: The correct answer is A. Using past information to make decisions about the future is called predictive analytics. Question 11 Of the following, which is considered the most serious kind of data error?  a) poorly formatted data  b) number transportation  c) out-of-range data  d) missing data Feedback: The correct answer is D. Missing data can severely compromise the results of your study. Question 12 If you designed a drug trial in which the subject, the data gatherer, and the treatment allocator did not know who was in the control group, then you created a __________ study.  a) blind  b) biased  c) double-blind  d) triple-blind Feedback: The correct answer is D. A study where all parties do not know who is in the control group and who is in the treatment group is a triple-blind study. If the treatment allocator and data gatherer are the same person, this would be a double-blind study. Question 13 Suppose you were making a simplified representation of a complex problem in order to solve it, which stage of the Three Stage Model would you be in?  a) framing the problem  b) data collection  c) solving the problem  d) communicating results Feedback: The correct answer is C. The modeling step is part of the solving the problem stage. Question 14 Assume you are measuring the various returns on investment, over the past year, for four different stocks in your portfolio. You find the following values (each as a percent of your investment): 4.68, 5.65, 3.78, -0.46, 6.91. What kind of data are these da