NURS DENTAL EXAM 1 QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS GRADED
A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED 2022
1. In class II division 2 malocclusion with a congenitally missed lateral and a deep bite, which has
best prognosis?
A. Fixed-fixed bridge.
B. Maryland bridge.
C. Cantilever bridge.
D. Long span bridge.
E. Implant supported.
Answer: A.
2. Clasp distortion occurred because
A. ductility was too low.
B. hardness was too great.
C. ultimate tensile strength was too low.
D. tension temperature was too high.
E. elastic limit was exceeded.
Answer: E.
3. The floor of an ulcer is not
A. smooth.
B. keratinized.
C. sloughed.
D. fungated.
E. epitheliased.
Answer: E.
An ulcer is a tissue defect which has penetrated the epithelial-connective tissue border, with its base at
a deep level in the submucosa, or even within muscle or periosteum. An ulcer is a deeper breach of
the epithelium than an erosion or an excoriation, and involves damage to both epithelium and lamina
propria.
An erosion is a superficial breach of the epithelium, with little damage to the underlying lamina
propria.[4] A mucosal erosion is an erosion which specifically occurs on a mucous membrane. Only
the superficial epithelial cells of the epidermis or of the mucosa are lost, and the lesion can reach the
depth of the basement membrane.[3] Erosions heal without scar formation.
Excoriation is a term sometimes used to describe a breach of the epithelium which is deeper than an
erosion but shallower than an ulcer. This type of lesion is tangential to the rete pegs and shows
punctiform (small pinhead spots) bleeding, caused by exposed capillaryloops.
4. Hepatitis B most communicable
A. before clinical symptoms.
B. before and after clinical symptoms.
C. before and during clinical symptoms.
D. during and after clinical symptoms.
E. before, during and after clinical
symptom. Answer: E.
Infected people can pass on the virus to others from two weeks before the development of symptoms
until one week after the appearance of jaundice. A person is contagious during the hepatitis B
incubation period. A person who is infected with hepatitis B begins to be contagious early in the
incubation period. About one-half of people remain contagious for up to two months after hepatitis B
symptoms begin. The remainder of people who do not develop chronic hepatitis B will remain
contagious for up to 15 weeks after symptoms begin. If a person develops chronic hepatitis B, they
will remain contagious indefinitely.
,NURS DENTAL EXAM 1 QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS GRADED
A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED 2022
5. A condition of the eye that dentists most commonly contact is from which of these?
A. Hepatitis B.
B. Adenoviruses.
C. Rhinovirus.
D. Influenza virus.
Answer: B.
The most common eye infection is conjunctivitis caused by an adenovirus (a type of common cold
virus). This type of infectious conjunctivitis is sometimes called pinkeye and is most common in
children. Viral conjunctivitis is contagious because the virus can be spread from the eye to hands that
then touch doorknobs and other surfaces that other people use.
6. What is incorrect about herpes simplex virus: (from Cawson)
A. DNA virus.
B. May cause serious eye infections.
C. Common cause of sexually transmitted disease.
D. In HIV may be troublesome and be life threatening.
E. Can cause painful whitlows if a patient with cold sore plays with the lesion with his
finger. Answer: E.
Saliva type 1, Sexually type 2.
When he already has an active virus not necessarily he gets a whitlow. Whitlow are usually contacted
by dentist on their fingers when patient has HSV. Heretic whitlow is a cross infection. Occurs mostly
in dentists due to poor infection control.
7. Which one is incorrect
A. Herpes Simplex causes severe eye infection.
B. Hairy leukoplakia can secondarily infected by candida.
C. Herpes Zoster can affect the eye.
D. Herpes Simplex causes oral and genital ulcer
E. None of the above.
Answer: E.
Herpes simplex eye infections are usually caused by the herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1),
which can also cause cold sores on your mouth or face.
Herpes zoster, also called shingles, is a disease caused by the varicella-zoster virus. This is the virus
that causes chickenpox.
8. True pocket is diagnosed when
A. Bone loss is evident on radiograph
B. Bleeding on probing
C. Base of pocket is apical to CEJ
D. Probing depth is 4mm
1. A, b, c
2. C, d
3. C
4. All of the above
Answer: 3.
4mm probing can be present also in enlarged gingiva which would be a false pocket.
9. Which needs to be evident in order to make diagnosis of periodontitis?
A. Bleeding.
B. Pocket depth 5mm or more.
C. Radiographic evidence if bone loss.
D. Change in color and tone.
,NURS DENTAL EXAM 1 QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS GRADED
A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED 2022
Answer: B.
Active pocket must be present for periodontists. Bone loss by itself is NOTHING as it could be
, NURS DENTAL EXAM 1 QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS GRADED
A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED 2022
normal due to age and physiologic tooth movement or recently treated periodontist. If you have
active true pocket more than 4mm you will have bone loss and then periodontitis . BUT, if you have
bone loss (whatever the bone loss is 20% 30% or even 70% and NO TRUE POCKET that means you
have not periodontitis and the diagnosis is STABLE periodontium due to successful treatment.
10. The most significant clinical feature of periodontal disease is:
A. bleeding.
B. true pocket formation and apical migration of attatched gingiva.
Answer: B.
11. In periodontics, the best prognosis for bone regeneration follows the surgical treatment is:
A. suprabony pockets.
B. one-wall infrabony pockets.
C. two-wall infrabony pockets.
D. three-wall infrabony pockets.
Answer: D.
12. You want to prepare shallow cavity in mandibular anterior incisors, which nerve block do you
give?
A. Inferior alveolar nerve block.
B. Buccal nerve block.
C. Lingual nerve block.
D. Incisal nerve block.
E. Mental branch.
Answer: D.
The incisive branch of IAN continues forward in a bony canal or in a plexiform arrangement, giving
off branches to the first premolar, canine and incisor teeth, and the associated labial gingiva. The
lower central incisor teeth receive a bilateral innervation, fibers probably crossing the midline within
the periosteum to re-enter the bone via numerous canals in the labial cortical plate. The mental nerve
passes upward, backward and outward to emerge from the mandible via the mental foramen between
and just below the apices of the premolar teeth supplying sensory branches to the chin and lower lip.
Indications of Incisive nerve block:
1- Dental procedures requiring pulpal anaesthesia on mandibular teeth anterior to the mental
foramen.
2- When inferior alveolar nerve block isn't indicated.
3- When six or eight anterior teeth (canine to canine or premolar to premolar) are treated, the
incisive nerve block is recommended in place of bilateral inferior alveolar nerve blocks.
Indications of mental nerve block:
When buccal soft tissue anesthesia is required for procedures on the mandible anterior to the mental
foramen, such as
1- Soft tissue biopsies
2- Suturing of soft tissues
13. Freeway space
A. can be measured accurately in dentulous patients.
B. sets to 2-4mm in the edentulous patient.
C. Occlusal vertical dimension minus vertical dimension at rest.
Answer: B.
A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED 2022
1. In class II division 2 malocclusion with a congenitally missed lateral and a deep bite, which has
best prognosis?
A. Fixed-fixed bridge.
B. Maryland bridge.
C. Cantilever bridge.
D. Long span bridge.
E. Implant supported.
Answer: A.
2. Clasp distortion occurred because
A. ductility was too low.
B. hardness was too great.
C. ultimate tensile strength was too low.
D. tension temperature was too high.
E. elastic limit was exceeded.
Answer: E.
3. The floor of an ulcer is not
A. smooth.
B. keratinized.
C. sloughed.
D. fungated.
E. epitheliased.
Answer: E.
An ulcer is a tissue defect which has penetrated the epithelial-connective tissue border, with its base at
a deep level in the submucosa, or even within muscle or periosteum. An ulcer is a deeper breach of
the epithelium than an erosion or an excoriation, and involves damage to both epithelium and lamina
propria.
An erosion is a superficial breach of the epithelium, with little damage to the underlying lamina
propria.[4] A mucosal erosion is an erosion which specifically occurs on a mucous membrane. Only
the superficial epithelial cells of the epidermis or of the mucosa are lost, and the lesion can reach the
depth of the basement membrane.[3] Erosions heal without scar formation.
Excoriation is a term sometimes used to describe a breach of the epithelium which is deeper than an
erosion but shallower than an ulcer. This type of lesion is tangential to the rete pegs and shows
punctiform (small pinhead spots) bleeding, caused by exposed capillaryloops.
4. Hepatitis B most communicable
A. before clinical symptoms.
B. before and after clinical symptoms.
C. before and during clinical symptoms.
D. during and after clinical symptoms.
E. before, during and after clinical
symptom. Answer: E.
Infected people can pass on the virus to others from two weeks before the development of symptoms
until one week after the appearance of jaundice. A person is contagious during the hepatitis B
incubation period. A person who is infected with hepatitis B begins to be contagious early in the
incubation period. About one-half of people remain contagious for up to two months after hepatitis B
symptoms begin. The remainder of people who do not develop chronic hepatitis B will remain
contagious for up to 15 weeks after symptoms begin. If a person develops chronic hepatitis B, they
will remain contagious indefinitely.
,NURS DENTAL EXAM 1 QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS GRADED
A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED 2022
5. A condition of the eye that dentists most commonly contact is from which of these?
A. Hepatitis B.
B. Adenoviruses.
C. Rhinovirus.
D. Influenza virus.
Answer: B.
The most common eye infection is conjunctivitis caused by an adenovirus (a type of common cold
virus). This type of infectious conjunctivitis is sometimes called pinkeye and is most common in
children. Viral conjunctivitis is contagious because the virus can be spread from the eye to hands that
then touch doorknobs and other surfaces that other people use.
6. What is incorrect about herpes simplex virus: (from Cawson)
A. DNA virus.
B. May cause serious eye infections.
C. Common cause of sexually transmitted disease.
D. In HIV may be troublesome and be life threatening.
E. Can cause painful whitlows if a patient with cold sore plays with the lesion with his
finger. Answer: E.
Saliva type 1, Sexually type 2.
When he already has an active virus not necessarily he gets a whitlow. Whitlow are usually contacted
by dentist on their fingers when patient has HSV. Heretic whitlow is a cross infection. Occurs mostly
in dentists due to poor infection control.
7. Which one is incorrect
A. Herpes Simplex causes severe eye infection.
B. Hairy leukoplakia can secondarily infected by candida.
C. Herpes Zoster can affect the eye.
D. Herpes Simplex causes oral and genital ulcer
E. None of the above.
Answer: E.
Herpes simplex eye infections are usually caused by the herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1),
which can also cause cold sores on your mouth or face.
Herpes zoster, also called shingles, is a disease caused by the varicella-zoster virus. This is the virus
that causes chickenpox.
8. True pocket is diagnosed when
A. Bone loss is evident on radiograph
B. Bleeding on probing
C. Base of pocket is apical to CEJ
D. Probing depth is 4mm
1. A, b, c
2. C, d
3. C
4. All of the above
Answer: 3.
4mm probing can be present also in enlarged gingiva which would be a false pocket.
9. Which needs to be evident in order to make diagnosis of periodontitis?
A. Bleeding.
B. Pocket depth 5mm or more.
C. Radiographic evidence if bone loss.
D. Change in color and tone.
,NURS DENTAL EXAM 1 QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS GRADED
A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED 2022
Answer: B.
Active pocket must be present for periodontists. Bone loss by itself is NOTHING as it could be
, NURS DENTAL EXAM 1 QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS GRADED
A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED 2022
normal due to age and physiologic tooth movement or recently treated periodontist. If you have
active true pocket more than 4mm you will have bone loss and then periodontitis . BUT, if you have
bone loss (whatever the bone loss is 20% 30% or even 70% and NO TRUE POCKET that means you
have not periodontitis and the diagnosis is STABLE periodontium due to successful treatment.
10. The most significant clinical feature of periodontal disease is:
A. bleeding.
B. true pocket formation and apical migration of attatched gingiva.
Answer: B.
11. In periodontics, the best prognosis for bone regeneration follows the surgical treatment is:
A. suprabony pockets.
B. one-wall infrabony pockets.
C. two-wall infrabony pockets.
D. three-wall infrabony pockets.
Answer: D.
12. You want to prepare shallow cavity in mandibular anterior incisors, which nerve block do you
give?
A. Inferior alveolar nerve block.
B. Buccal nerve block.
C. Lingual nerve block.
D. Incisal nerve block.
E. Mental branch.
Answer: D.
The incisive branch of IAN continues forward in a bony canal or in a plexiform arrangement, giving
off branches to the first premolar, canine and incisor teeth, and the associated labial gingiva. The
lower central incisor teeth receive a bilateral innervation, fibers probably crossing the midline within
the periosteum to re-enter the bone via numerous canals in the labial cortical plate. The mental nerve
passes upward, backward and outward to emerge from the mandible via the mental foramen between
and just below the apices of the premolar teeth supplying sensory branches to the chin and lower lip.
Indications of Incisive nerve block:
1- Dental procedures requiring pulpal anaesthesia on mandibular teeth anterior to the mental
foramen.
2- When inferior alveolar nerve block isn't indicated.
3- When six or eight anterior teeth (canine to canine or premolar to premolar) are treated, the
incisive nerve block is recommended in place of bilateral inferior alveolar nerve blocks.
Indications of mental nerve block:
When buccal soft tissue anesthesia is required for procedures on the mandible anterior to the mental
foramen, such as
1- Soft tissue biopsies
2- Suturing of soft tissues
13. Freeway space
A. can be measured accurately in dentulous patients.
B. sets to 2-4mm in the edentulous patient.
C. Occlusal vertical dimension minus vertical dimension at rest.
Answer: B.
