REHS exam 2023 with verified questions and answers

1. A factor or agent which increases the risk of cancer is known as a a. teratogen b. mutagen c. carcinogen d. fomite carcinogen 2. The four major causes of death among all age groups of Americans include all of the following except. a. homicide b. accidents c. malignant neoplasms d. heart disease homicide 3. In recent years, the largest number of rabies cases were associated with a. skunks b. bats c. dogs d. raccons. skunks 4. Asbestosis is caused by fine silicate fibers retained in the a. kidneys b. lungs c. colon d. abdomen lungs 5. An illness due to a specific infectious agent or its toxic product which is transmitted from a reservoir to a susceptible host either directly or indirectly is called a. an infectious disease b. a communicable disease c. a genetic disease d. a noncommunicable disease a communicable disease 6. Rocky mountain spotted fever is spread by a. flies b. spiders c. cockroaches d. ticks ticks 7. Mycotoxins are poisonous chemicals produced by a. bacteria b. vertebrates c. viruses d. fungi fungi 8. The study of the occurrence, frequency, and distribution of disease is a. entomology b. biology c. endocrinology d. epidemiology epidemiology 9. Which of the following organisms are most resistant to unfavorable environmental conditions and indicate past or possibly intermittent pollution? a. fecal streptococci b. escherichia coli c. aerobacter aerogenes d. clostridium sporulates clostridium sporulates 10. Engineering controls are a. controls that isolate or remove hazards from the work place b. less effective than good training c. the last option that should be considered d. less effective than personal protection processes controls that isolate or remove hazards from the workplace 11. Which of the following is not considered a satisfactory solution to the problem of chemical contamination in Well systems? a. abandoning the well b. boiling the water c. building a new, properly constructed, drilled well boiling the water 12. Which of the following chemicals is most widely used to destroy microorganisms? a. chlorine b. copper sulfate c. chloramine d. hydrogen sulfate chlorine 13. Which of the following is not a practical method for removal of cadmium? a. ion exchange b. lime softening c. reverse osmosis d. iron coagulation reverse osmosis 14. Which of the following is not a commonly accepted method of device to prevent backsiphonage? a. vacuum breakers b. cross-connections c. air gap separation d. back pressure units cross-connections 15. This substance is the first product of the decomposition of organic matter. Its presence in water usually Indicates "fresh pollution" of sanitary significance. What is it? a. ammonia b. sugar c. carbon dioxide d. hydrogen sulfide ammonia 16. One of the most common reasons for the contamination of wells drilled through rock, clay, or hardpan is a. seepage of pollutants through soil b. failure to seal well casings properly c. porosity of the rock d. use of inferior quality well casings failure to seal well casings properly 17. In emergencies, small quantities of water can be disinfected by boiling or using a. aluminum salts b. tincture of iodine c. salt tablets d. direct exposure to sunlight for 22 hours tincture of iodine 18. Back flow of nonpotable materials into the potable water system may occur by a. back pressure b. backsiphonage c. vacuum in the volume d. a and b above a and b above 19. Which of the following statements should not be a consideration in locating a groundwater supply? a. the probable travel of pollution through the ground b. the well construction practices and standards c. the sanitary seal provided at the point where the pump lines pass out of the casing d. the distance that the water will need to travel the distance that the water will need to travel 20. It is known that some common pathogenic organisms found in wastewater will survive more than ____ of harsh temperature extremes a. 2 months b. 5 months c. 2 years d. 5 years 2 years 21. A storm sewer is used to a. remove rain or other standing surface water b. remove sewage and storm water c. remove household water waste and gutter drain water d. remove non-toxic, non-hazardous wastewater remove rain or other standing surface water 22. Stream pollution is sometimes apparent by a. increased levels of available oxygen in the water b. a zone of degradation c. large numbers of crayfish and cristivomer species d. large numbers of small fish a zone of degradation 23. If the septic tank will also have a garbage disposal unit feeding into it a. the size of the tank would be increased by 50 percent b. the tank should have an agiator c. the tank should not be equipped with a gas baffle d. the tank should not be constructed with precast concrete the size of the tank would be increased by 50 percent 24. How often should a septic tank for a private home be serviced? a. every year b. every 5 to 10 years c. every 3 to 5 years d. every 10 years every 3 to 5 years 25. Plants absorb certain constituents of wastewater, using wastewater for irrigation of consumable plant products may present a health hazard to humans if the water contains a. nitrates b. iron c. cadmium d. chlorides cadmium 26. A measure of the relativity constant rate at which clear water, maintained at a relatively constant depth, will seep out of a standard size test hole that has been previously saturated is the a. hydraulic conductivity b. soil permeability test c. soil percolation test d. Baird-Parker saturation test soil percolation test 27. The ability of a soil to absorb and allow water and air to pass through is related to all of the following except a. chemical composition b. texture c. cation exchange capacity d. granular structure cation exchange capacity 28. Bacteria that require oxygen for their growth are called a. anaerobic bacteria b. aerobic bacteria c. viruses d. fungi aerobic bacteria 29. The examination of the stool for cysts and/or ova is the common diagnosis for which food borne pathogen? A. Parasitic infections B. Viral infections C. Bacterial infections D. Non-infectious agents E. None of the above parasitic infections 30. If you are counseling a pregnant patient, what foods should she avoid to decrease her risk for listeriosis? A. Honey B. Fresh soft cheese C. Sauerkraut D. Cooked mushrooms E. Caffeine fresh soft cheese 31. Which scenario(s) may present a risk to immunocompromized patients. A. Animals in the Home Use B. Coming in contact with individuals after they have been given a live virus vaccine. C. Eating raw oysters D. Drinking non-pasteurized juices or unchlorinated water E. All of the above all of the above 32. What food borne illness may present with chocolate-brown colored blood? A. Nitrite poisoning B. Organophosphate poisoning C. Botulism D. Mercury poisoning E. Tin poisoning nitrite poisoning 33. Approximately how many people die per year in the U.S. of food-borne illness? A. 5,000 B. 100 C. 9,000 D. 100,000 E. 50 5,000 34. In the U.S. the pioneering Pure Food and Drug Act was passed in 1906 stimulated by journalistic exposures of inferior conditions in the food industry and by Upton Sinclair's 1906 novel titled? A. Silent Spring B. The Coming Plague C. To Kill a Mockingbird D. The Jungle E. The Catcher in the Rye The Jungle 35. Which bacteria in large numbers can survive extended storage in cheddar cheese? a) Salmonella b) Brucella sp. c) Shigella d) Clostridium perfringens Salmonella 36. Which of the following is non-toxic to aquatic organisms, a good viricide, and adds oxygen to treated wastewater effluents? a. ozone b. calcium hypochlorine c. sulfur dioxide d. chlorine dioxide ozone 37. The typical limitation of use of the septic tank absorption field system is due to a. cost b. land use considerations c. soil type and size requirements d. appearance soil type and size requirements 38. Which of the following is true about disposal of animal wastes? a. If wet manure is plowed under, fly eggs present will not hatch. b. Composting of manure takes advantage of the inclination that larvae move out and away from moist manure in search of a dry place to pupate. c. Where a small number of animals are kept, the manure should be collected once a week. d. Odors associated with the handling and disposal of these wastes do not determine the disposal method or its location. composting of manure takes advantage of the inclination that larvae move out and away from moist manure in search of a dry place to pupate 39. Resource recovery and reduction of solid wastes should start a. at the point of generation b. at the sanitary landfill c. in the home d. at the transfer station at the point of generation 40. ______can be recovered from refuse by burning it in a refractory lined incineration or water-wall incinerator. a. glass b. aluminum c. ferrous metal d. energy energy 41. Incinerators are rated in terms of a. percent fuel capacity per day b. BTU's per day c. tons of burnable waste per day d. cubic feet of solid waste per day. tons of burnable waste per day 42. The three essentials for combustion in an incinerator are a. temperature, time and heat b. time, temperature and moisture c. temperature, heat and fuel d. time, temperature and turbulence time, temperature and turbulence 43. The second step of the combustion process in an incinerator requires a high temperature of at least a. 1500o to 1600oF b. 1500o to 1800o F c. 1900o to 2000o F d. 1800o to 1900o F 1500 to 1800 F 44. A landfill site should not a. be located near a major highway b. be given and attractive entrance and approach road c. house equipment on site d. be inexcessible during bad weather conditions be inexcessible during bad weather conditions 45. Determining what a landfill can be used for when completed should be planned a. when the landfill is half full b. before you build the landfill c. when the landfill is full d. any time during the operation of the landfill before you build the landfill 46. Hazardous waste is governed by the a. Clean Air Act b. Occupational Safety and Health Act c. Resource and Conservation and Recovery Act d. Food and Drug Act Resource and Conservation and Recovery Act 47. Which of the following is not a characteristic of hazardous waste? a. ignitability b. corrosivity c. reactivity d. combustibility combustibility 48. The EPA requires that dioxin-bearing wastes be ________ destroyed or reduced before disposal in a secure hazardous waste landfill. a. 99.99 percent b. 95.00 percent c. 99.9999 percent d. 0.05 percent 99.9999 percent 49. When two pollutants are combined, the effects are greater than the sum of the individual effects. This is called? a. commensalism b. synergism c. magnification d. multiplication synergism 50. Air is vital to existence. In fact, humans breathe in a day's time an average of a. 3 to 4 pounds of air b. 35 pounds of air c. 37 pounds of air d. 1600 ft of air 1600 ft of air 51. Ozone reduces the useful life of all of the following except a. rubber b. textiles c. dyes d. nylon nylon 52. Major effects on humans are caused by Los Angeles and London type smog, along with what two pollutants? a. sulfur dioxide and hydrogen fluoride b. sulfur dioxide and carbon monoxide c. hydrogen sulfide and peroxacyl nitrates d. ozone and nitrogen dioxide sulfur dioxide and hydrogen fluoride 53. Photochemical smog has been reported in congested areas with a. large industries b. chemical processing plants c. industries processing hazardous wastes d. high motor vehicle traffic high motor vehicle traffic 54. _________have been known to cause crippling skeletal damage to cattle through ingested contaminated vegetation. a. sulfides b. fluorides c. nitrates d. chlorides fluorides 55. What size particle can reach the lowest parts of the lung? a. 10 microns b. 25 microns c. 2.5 microns d. any size particle 2.5 microns 56. Street dust would be considered what type of pollution? a. paradox pollutant b. fugitive pollutant c. uncontrolled pollutant d. laps rate fugitive pollutant 57. A primary pollutant is a. one that is formed in the atmosphere as a result of reactions such as hydrolysis, oxidation, and photochemistry b. one that is found in the atmosphere due to natural reactions c. one that is found in the atmosphere in the same form as it exists one that is found in the atmosphere due to natural reactions 58. How are total suspended particles measured? a. flame photometry and weighing b. gas filtration c. flame ionization d. collection and weighing collection and weighing 59. Which of the following inversions develop at night under conditions of relatively clear skies and very light winds? a. subsidence inversion b. frontal inversion c. radiational inversion d. stack emission inversion radiational inversion 60. The pitch of a sound is determined primarily by a. frequency b. wavelengths c. sound pressure d. all of the above frequency 61. The distance that a sound wave travels in on cycle of period is the a. sound intensity b. wavelength of the sound c. sound pressure d. frequency wavelength of the sound 62. The speed with which sound travels through a particular medium is dependent on a. the compressibility of the medium b. the density of the medium c. the compressibility and density of the medium d. none of the above the density of the medium 63. A __________is a dimensionless unit to express physical intensity or sound pressure levels. a. noise level b. decibel c. hertz d. sound pressure level (SPL) decibel 64. If 10 decibels is 10 times more intense than one decibel, how many times more intense in 20 decibels than one decibel? a. 20 b. 30 c. 100 d. 1000 100 65. The first Federal standards for occupational exposure to noise were issued by a. the Department of Transportation b. the Federal Aviation Administration c. the Department of Housing and Urban Development d. the Department of Labor the Department of Labor 66. The shorter the wave length a. the higher the frequency and lower the energy b. the lower the frequency and energy c. the lower the frequency and higher the energy d. the higher the frequency and energy the higher the frequency and energy 67. The roentgen is a measure of the ionization in air produced by exposure to a. x-rays or gamma rays b. alpha particles c. beta particles d. all of the above x-rays or gamma rays 68. The term "rad" means a. required administered dose b. radiation admitted dose c. roentgen absorbed dose d. radiation absorbed dose radiation absorbed dose 69. The term "half-value layer" (HVL) is used to designate the thickness of a particular material that will reduce by ½ the intensity of radiation passing through the material. Beta radiation is commonly eliminated by a. lead b. concrete c. glass of plastic d. aluminum glass of plastic 70. The annual cost attributable to foodborne illnesses in the US is estimated to be a. $1.2 million to $5 million per year b. $5 trillion per year c. $10 million to $15 million per year d. $1 billion to $10 billion per year $1 billion to $10 billion per year 71. In order to simplify cleanliness, window sills should be sloped toward the room and down at an angle of _______degrees. a. 30 b. 20 c. 80 d. 40 30 72. Which would be the least effective method of controlling condensation of moisture in food prep areas? a. increase air temperature b. decrease humidity of air c. increase temperature of cold surfaces d. cool the air increase air temperature 73. Vegetative forms of Clostridium botulinum spores are killed in a. 10 to 15 minutes at 176oF b. 10 to 15 minutes at 80o F c. 1 minute at 250oF d. 10 to 15 minutes at 230oF 10 to 15 minutes at 176 F 74. Which bacteria in large numbers can survive extended storage in cheddar cheese? a. Salmonela b. Brucella sp. c. Shigella d. Clostridium perfringens Salmonella 75. A solution of malachite mixed with ground meat will turn ______ if sodium sulfite has been added to preserve or mask decomposition of the meat. a. pale green b. bright red c. bright yellow d. dark brown bright red 76. A primary responsibility of food service management is a. trust and delegation of responsibilities b. recognition of sanitary inspections c. approval and provisions for legal responsibilities d. education and supervision of employes education and supervision of employees 77. The quality of milk reaching the ultimate consumer is largely determined a. at the plant where processing and handling occurs b. at the farm where the milk is produced c. by the USDA through stringent testing and laboratory analysis d. by the FDA in accordance with federal regulations at the farm where the milk is produced 78. Dairy equipment can be disinfected with a chlorine solution of a. 20 mg/l b. 2 mg/l c. 200 mg/l d. 220 mg/l 200 mg/I 79. After milk is pasteurized, it should be rapidly cooled to below _____ so that _____. a. 45o F; any remaining bacteria will be killed by rapid temperature change b. 40o F; molecular activity in any remaining organisms will be stopped c. 40o F; lactic acid bacteria will be slowed in reproduction d. 45o F; the remaining bacteria will not materially increase 45 F; any remaining bacteria will be killed by rapid temperature change 80. Hot water for the sanitizing of assembled equipment is not to be cooler than _____ at the end of the system. a. 170o F for 5 minutes b. 180oF for 5 minutes c. 185o F for 5 minutes d. 187o F for 5 minutes 170 F for 5 minutes 81. Food inspection programs of the future will focus increasingly on a. hazard analysis and critical control point evaluations b. more frequent inspections c. more rigid enforcement of all rules d. increased food handler exams hazard analysis and critical control point evaluations 82. Escherichia coli 0157:H7 was first identified as a pathogen during the investigation of two outbreaks in what two states? a. Washington and Illinois b. Minnesota and Kentucky c. Texas and Iowa d. Oregon and Michigan Oregon and Michigan 83. Escherichia coli 0157:H7 has become a. less of a problem due to antibiotics b. a particular problem for producers and users of ground beef c. a minor threat to children d. not a threat to the elderly a particular problem for producers and users of ground beef 84. Escherichia coli 0157:H7 can be found thriving in the a. intestines of man and animals b. water c. soil d. air intestines of man and animals 85. Listeriosis is a a. skin irritation caused by contact with cold products b. serious infection caused by food contaminated with Listeria monocytogenes c. disease caused by exposure to lysolic agents d. disease that attacks people in their early 20's a serious infection caused by food contaminated with Listeria monocytogenes 86. Stong emphasis is placed on the control of shellfish because a. shellfish can transmit a number of infectious diseases such as dysentery, infectious hepatitis, cholera and typhoid fever b. seafood is in popular demand c. the shellfish population is decreasing due to water pollution d. a great number of shellfish are bought and sold illegally shellfish can transmit a number of infectious diseases such as dysentery, infectious hepatitis, cholera and typhoid fever 87. Oysters grow best in water with a salinity of a. 0.42 to 0.72 b. 0.24 to 0.27 c. 2.5 percent d. greater than 0.31 0.24 to 0.27 88. Oysters grow best at what pH and temperature? a. 6.2 to 6.4 and 37o F b. 6.2 to 6.8 and 41o F c. 6.4 to 7.0 and 45o F d. 6.0 to 6.9 and 32o F 6.2 to 6.8 and 41 F 89. Oyster shell stock or shucked oysters sampled at the source should not have MPNB of _________ or more fecal coliform per 100 grams of shellfish. a. 240 b. 230 c. 235 d. 250 240 90. To prepare a solution of 100 mg per liter available chlorine, _____ of 5.25% bleach with one gallon of water should be used. a. 0.5 oz. b. 1.0 oz. c. 0.33 oz. d. 0.25 oz. 0.25 oz 91. Some studies indicate that swimmers have a higher over-all illness rate than do non-swimmers a. regardless of bathing water quality b. due to poor regulatory practice c. if they are over 50 years of age d. if they swim in pools regardless of bather water quality 92. Swimming pool water clarity is measured in terms of a. NTU b. Sacchi readings c. JTU d. Jackson Units NTU 93. A pool filtration system should filter the entire volume of water every __________. a. 2 to 3 hours b. 6 to 8 hours c. 10 to 12 hours d. 12 to 24 hours 6 to 8 hours 94. The rate of filtration should be _________ for a diatomite filter. a. 15 to 20 gpm/ft2 b. 3 to 5 gpm/ft2 c. 1 to 2 gpm/ft2 d. 3 gpm/ft2 1 to 2 gpm/ft2 95. The gutters or skimmers receive a minimum of _________ of the total pool water due to the large quantity of organisms and materials which typically float. a. 95% b. 45% c. 60% d. 30% 60% 96. The recommended and most effective method of maintaining pool water quality is a. super-chlorination b. intermittent circulation, chlorination, and filtration c. continuous recirculation, chlorination, and filtration d. chlorination - dechlorination continuous recirculation, chlorination, and filtration 97. A pH between ____ and ____ is optimal pH control for eye irritation, but is not optimal for chlorine effectiveness. a. 7.5 - 7.6 b. 7.0 - 7.1 c. 7.2 - 7.3 d. 7.9 - 8.0 7.9 to 8.0 98. To raise pH, add a. chlorine b. muriatic acid c. soda ash d. sulfuric acid soda ash 99. To mix acid and water always a. add water to acid b. add acid to water c. add soda ash to acid d. stir while pouring water into the acid add acid to water 100. "Swimmers itch" is also known as a. gastroenteritis b. trichinosis c. schistosomiasis d. leptospirosis schistosomiasis 101. Rodents are the primary reservoir/host of the hantavirus. In particular, _______ appears to be the primary Reservoir for the newly recognized (1993) hantavirus in the southeastern US. a. rat b. rabbit c. house mouse d. deer mouse deer mouse 102. Bacteria may be carried in the digestive system of the housefly for as long as a. 1 week b. 3 months c. 4 weeks d. 2 days 4 weeks 103. Pediculosis is an infestation of a. chiggers b. mites c. lice d. roaches lice 104. ___________is an infectious disease of the skin caused by burrowing of the female mite into the skin where it deposits its eggs. a. tularemia b. scabies c. psittacosis d. pediculosis scabies 105. Rattus Rattus is also referred to as the a. house rat b. norway rat c. roof rat d. all of the above roof rat 106. Psittacosis/Ornithosis is spread by a. bats b. shellfish c. rodents d. pigeons pigeons 107. In general, there are three kinds of weeds. These are a. srads, clowds, and mullahs b. bronzes, slorles, and direals c. annuals, biennials, and perennials d. milkweeds, bindweeds, and perennials annuals, biennials, and perennials 108. A pollen count index of less than _____ pollen grains/m3 of air in a 24 hour period is considered practically free of ragweed contamination. a. 1 b. 5 c. 20 d. 40 5 109. A minimum of _____ of sleeping area per person is required in the APHA appraisal method. a. 10ft2 b. 20ft2 c. 40 ft2 d. 60 ft2 40 ft2 110. The ASHRAE recommended minimal thermal standard for dwellings is ___________ F at 40% humidity and an air circulation rate of 45 fpm. a. 57oF b. 60oF c. 68oF d. 76oF 76 F 111. The drain line of an ice machine should connect to the sewer system through a. a grease trap b. a direct connection below floor level c. an open receptacle with an air gap d. a backflow preventer properly vented an open receptacle with an air gap 112. Nosocomial infections are a recurring problem in a. food establishments b. hospitals c. swimming pools d. health spas hospitals 113. Minimum wash water temperature in a hospital laundry is a. 146 to 150oF b. 160 to 167oF c. 170 to 178oF d. 185 to 196oF 160 to 167 F 114. Lead levels exceeded 10ug/dL in ____ U.S. children aged 6 and under in 1990 a. 300,000 b. 3,000 c. 1,000,000 d. 3,000,000 3,000,000 115. Most urban dwellers spend what percent of their total time indoors a. 10 to 20% b. 25 to 50% c. 80 to 90% d. 70 to 80% 80 to 90% 116. Which of the following is the primary cause of indoor air quality problems a. inadequate ventilation b. contaminated outside air c. radon d. ragweed inadequate ventilation 117. Radon is detected in a home through the use of instrumentation that measures a. geiger rays b. beta particles c. alpha particles d. UV rays alpha particles 118. To prevent chimney backdrafts, the chimney must be constructed ___ inches above the highest point of the roof at a minimum a. 4 inches b. 8 inches c. 24 inches d. 48 inches 24 inches 119. A biohazard is a. any material that negatively impacts a biological organism b. a material of biological composition, especially if ineffective, that constitutes a threat to man or his environment c. a chemical that constitutes a threat to man or his environment d. any virus that causes fatal disease any material that negatively impacts a biological organism 120. The control of bloodborne pathogens is regulated by a. OSHA b. USDA c. NIH d. CDC OSHA 121. Muerto Canyon Virus (MCV) is a hantavirus mainly carried by a. woodchucks b. beavers c. deer mice d. skunks deer mice 122. The Muerto Canyon Virus causes disease of the _____ in humans. a. lungs b. kidneys c. intestine d. brain lungs 123. Universal precautions refer to a. specific respiratory protection used in hospitals b. an infection control measure in which all human blood and certain body fluids are treated as infectious c. procedures used when handling hazardous wastes d. none of the above an infection control measure in which all humans blood and certain body fluids are treated as infectious 124. Herpesvirus simiae (B-virus) is naturally occurring in certain species of monkeys namely the macaque. The highest risk of humans acquiring this virus is from a. primary cell cultures b. the bite of a macaque c. aerosol exposure to saliva and urine d. mouth pipetting in the laboratory the bite of a macaque 125. The purpose of the National Environmental Policy Act is to a. encourage productive and enjoyable interaction between humans and the environment b. encourage measures that prevent or eliminate damage to the environment c. encourage greater understanding of the environment d. all of the above all of the above 126. An "environmental assessment" developed under NEPA is a. an environmental evaluation dealing with fish b. a concise public document for which a Federal agency is responsible c. a public document of environmental concern dealing with acid rain only d. an environmental evaluation dealing with air pollution control a concise public document for which a Federal agency is responsible 127. An environmental impact statement should contain all of the following except a. project description and land use relationships b. probable impact of the proposed action on the environment c. probable adverse environmental effects which can be avoided d. relationship between local short term uses of the environment and enhancement of long term productivity probable adverse environmental effects which can be avoided 128. Sanitarians, environmental health scientists, and other environmental specialists must obtain which of the following minimum educational requirements? a. an associate degree in environmental health b. an associate degree in science c. a baccalaureate degree d. a master's degree a baccalaureate degree 129. The random inspection approach a. averages out in the end b. fails to focus on recurring problem establishments c. is the most comprehensive d. alleviates staff shortage fails to focus on recurring problem establishments 130. Natural disaster victims should be provided with _____ of water per day. a. 1 to 3 gallons b. 3 to 6 gallons c. 6 to 9 gallons d. water is not necessary for this population 3 to 6 gallons 131. A quantity of _____ liquid bleach (household) can be used to treat 1000 gallons of water for drinking. a. 2 quarts b. 2 pints c. 1 pint d. 0.5 quarts 2 pints 132. When treating water with chlorine in emergency situation, the chlorine dosage should be _____ when the water is turbid of colored. a. tripled b. discontinued c. decreased d. doubled doubled 133. HAZWOPER requirements apply to a. voluntary clean ups at uncontrolled hazardous waste sites b. routine sanitary sewer operations c. small quantity generators of hazardous waste d. water treatment plant operators voluntary clean ups at uncontrolled hazardous waste sites 134. OSHA regulations other than HAZWOPER apply to emergency response and hazardous waste operations if they are a. less stringent b. more stringent c. endorsed by FDA d. known by the site supervisor more stringent 135. Those who work on uncontrolled hazardous waste sites are required to receive a minimum of _____ training. a. 20 hours b. 4 hours c. 40 hours d. 100 hours 40 hours 136. A medical surveillance program must be provided to workers at hazardous waste sites by the a. workers health insurance b. OSHA c. Federal government d. employer employer 137. Emergency shelters should provide a minimum of ____ per person. a. 30 sq. ft2 per person b. 20 sq. ft2 per person c. overcrowding will not be a concern during a disaster d. none of the above 30 sq. ft2 per person 138. The provisions of the CFR Part 1910 of Title 29 "Bloodborne Pathogens" are under the authority of a. United States Public Health Service b. Department of Health and Human Services c. Justice Department d. Department of Labor Department of Labor 139. Soil moisture of about 30% to 45% of saturation is the best for survival of pathogens. False 140. Coliform, on soil surfaces, may survive up to 38 days. True 141. Ascaris ova may survive up to 7 hours in moist, warm soil. False 142. It is believed that the ingestion of one virus particle can cause infection in humans True 143. Toxins that attack nerves are referred to as enterotoxin. False 144. Urine is usually sterile, except for urinary schistosomiasis, typhoid, and leptospirosis carriers True 145. Onchocerciasis is a rare illness found in some third world countries False 146. Food poisoning from Staphylococcus aureus can be prevented by thoroughly cooking foods that have been properly handled and then through appropriate time temperature control of the finished product. True 147. Some of the prime sources of Giardia lamblia cysts are humans, beavers, muskrats and domestic animals True 148. The disease caused by Legionella pneumophila was found to originate in the tanks or water closets in older hotels. False 149. Harsh Miasma is another name for the disease known as Legionella. False 150. House mice may carry the disease lymphocytic choriomeningitis. True