WGU D115 UNIT 2|2023 LATEST UPDATE|GUARANTEED SUCCESS

Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? Sex-linked recessive Autosomal recessive Autosomal dominant Sex-linked dominant Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y, if the affected chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed. In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? Intellectual disability Respiratory disorders Fetal miscarriage Cardiovascular disease Mental illness Check My Answer Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? Drug-sensitivity testing Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) Microscopy of cervical mucosa Preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) Amniocentesis Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing (PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a form of genetic testing that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo prior to implantation. Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing gene? Klinefelter syndrome Down syndrome Cri du chat syndrome Turner syndrome Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat") is caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low birth-weight baby with a piercing cry. How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? Mothers cannot pass X-linked genes to their sons. Females are hemizygous for the X chromosome. The disease can be transmitted through female carriers. These diseases need only one copy of the gene in females. The disease can be transmitted through female carriers. Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a female) to cancel it out. Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire population to the disease rate in an unexposed population? Relative Attributable Contingency Causal Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease. What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? Direct observation Chromosomal testing Relative risks Liability thresholds Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases. Observation and evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough and accurate assessment. What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. Imprinted, activated, mutated, altered The imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene pair. What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and wound healing? The circulatory system cannot adequately perfuse tissues. The underlying chronic illness exists. The complement is deficient. The number of mast cells is insufficient. The underlying chronic illness exists. A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's reserves to fight against illness. Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? B lymphocytes Eosinophils Neutrophils T lymphocytes Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites. What Phagocytes bacteria? eosinophils macrophages perforin Macrophages work by eating or phagocytosing bacteria. What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? cytotoxic T helper T cells phagocytic Helper T cells Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the antigen? Foreignness Quantity Size Complexity Immunogenicity is primarily based on the ability to recognize something foreign. How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an ABO incompatibility? Phagocytosis by macrophages Complement-mediated cell lysis Phagocytosis in the spleen Natural killer cells The complement pathway is activated in response to blood incompatibility. What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis. Which four infections are considered fungal infections? Ringworm Candida Cholera Athlete's foot Aspergillus Check My Answer Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas, which refers to several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts, which include candida and aspergillus. When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect infection? 1 to 2 days 2 to 4 months 4 to 8 weeks 4 to 10 days Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due to testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is suspected. What is a characteristic of exotoxins? Able to initiate the complement and coagulation cascades Released during bacterial growth Contained in cell walls of gram-negative bacteria Released during the lysis of bacteria Exotoxins are released during bacterial growth. Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing colon cancer? Increased consumption of dairy products Decreased consumption of high-fat foods Decreased consumption of artificial food coloring Increased consumption of foods containing vitamin C The results of decreased fat consumption have been widely studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon cancer. Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most likely to develop? Stomach Leukemia Bladder Lung Asbestos exposure results in an increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer. Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light? The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. It causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma. The principal source of ultraviolet radiation (UVR) is tanning beds. It can cause the formation of sarcomas. UV light causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when the UVB rays hit DNA strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair together, becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer. Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? Liver Stomach Colon Endometrial Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells. Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control and has been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes. true or false TRUE By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health outcomes may result. One of the goals of the National Action Plan to Improve Health Literacy is to incorporate research and evidence-based plans of treatment from childhood through university-level education in a manner consistent with an individual's literacy level. True or false True Ensuring the individual can understand all elements of a treatment plan is crucial for understanding and compliance. What is a red flag for low healthcare literacy? Medication noncompliance Asking questions about health Adherence to medical appointments Ability to identify medications on sight Low literacy often leads to perceived noncompliance to medical instructions, including medication instructions. Ensuring the patient fully understands all instructions is critical for understanding. Amniocentesis is recommended for pregnant women with certain health histories. Which health history would result in an amniocentesis recommendation? Those who have experienced in vitro fertilization Those who had a late menarche Those who have a history of chronic illness Those who have a family history of genetic disorders Those who have a family history of genetic disorders Studies have identified several genes that play a role in the prevention of obesity. What do these genes influence? Regulation of appetite Absorption of fat Metabolization of fat Sense of satiety Regulation of appetite-Research has shown that genetic mutations may cause alterations in the regulation of appetite. Which concept is data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 black Americans an example of? Ratio Incidence Risk Prevalence Prevalence tells us how often disease is seen in a population, which includes all people with the disease at a given time, at any stage in the disease progression. What describes a chromosomal defect caused by Prader-Willi syndrome? One that is transferred from mother to child One that is initiated by postnatal exposure to a virus One that is inherited from the father One that is related to maternal alcohol abuse Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a disorder of a portion of chromosome 15. Normally, a portion of this chromosome is inherited from both parents. With Prader-Willi syndrome, the chromosome inherited from the father is problematic. Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process? Prevent infection of the injured tissue Create immunity against subsequent tissue injury Provide specific responses toward antigens Lyse cell membranes of microorganisms Prevent infection of the injured tissue The inflammatory response is a defense mechanism designed to remove damaged tissue so the body can heal. Which leukocytes are elevated in response to acute inflammatory reactions when considering white blood cell differentials? Monocytes Neutrophils Basophils Eosinophils Neutrophils are one of the first responders to acute inflammation, and an increase in neutrophils demonstrates an acute inflammatory response. Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen? Active-acquired immunity Passive-acquired immunity Active-innate immunity Passive-innate immunity Active-acquired immunity or naturally acquired active immunity occurs when an individual is exposed to a live pathogen and develops the disease or becomes immune as a result of a vaccine. Which characteristics do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies? More histamine receptors Greater quantities of IgE Greater quantities of histamine Deficiency in epinephrine The greater quantities of IgE in atopic individuals make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies. IgE mediates the immune response to allergens; therefore, the more IgE one has, the stronger the response can be to an allergen. Think of it as having more soldiers in the army to fight the war. A healthcare professional is conducting community education on vaccinations. Which statement about vaccines should the professional include in the presentation? Vaccines provide effective protection against most infections. Most viral vaccines are made by using dead organisms. Most bacterial vaccines contain attenuated organisms. Vaccines require booster injections to maintain life-long protection. Vaccines require booster injections to maintain life-long protection. Most vaccines require a booster to increase immunity. The initial effects of a vaccine may diminish over time, and boosters improve protection against disease. Which term describes an agent's ability to produce disease? Infectivity Pathogenicity Virulence Immunogenicity Pathogenicity refers to an organism's ability to create or produce disease.