499 AEMT Test Questions with Correct Answers

499 AEMT Test Questions with Correct Answers A patient with congenital anisocoria would be expected to have pupils that: A. are unequal size B. dilate when exposed to light C. do not respond to light D. are constricted and nonreactive A The focused assessment of a responsive medical patient is guided by: A. your general impression B. information obtained from the dispatcher C. your perception of the pt's problem D. The pt's reason for calling EMS D Which of the following injuries or conditions would have the lowest treatment priority during the primary survey? A. Secretions in the upper airway and an irregular pattern of breathing B. Open deformity to the left lower leg with moderate venous bleeding C. Impressive amount of dried blood in the hair but no active bleeding D. Respirations of 26 breaths/min with markedly reduced tidal volume C Which of the following questions would allow you to assess the "S" in the SAMPLE history? A. Do you take any prescription medications? B. Has this ever happened to you before? C. Can you describe to me what you are feeling? D. What were you doing when this episode began? C Which of the following questions would allow you to assess the "A" in the SAMPLE history? A. Do you take any prescription medications? B. Has this ever happened to you before? C. Are you allergic to any medications? D. What were you doing when this episode began? C Which of the following questions would allow you to assess the "M" in the SAMPLE history? A. Do you take any prescription medications? B. Has this ever happened to you before? C. Are you allergic to any medications? D. What were you doing when this episode began? A Which of the following questions would allow you to assess the "P" in the SAMPLE history? A. Do you take any prescription medications? B. Has this ever happened to you before? C. Are there any medications you cannot take? D. What were you doing when this episode began? B Which of the following questions would allow you to assess the "L" in the SAMPLE history? A. Do you take any prescription medications? B. When was the last time you ate or drank something? C. Are there any medications you cannot take? D. What were you doing when this episode began? B Which of the following questions would allow you to assess the "E" in the SAMPLE history? A. Do you take any prescription medications? B. Has this ever happened to you before? C. Are there any medications you cannot take? D. What happened leading up to this episode? D Which of the following statements regarding clinical decision making is correct? A. The treatment plan that you formulate for a give pt is based on clinical findings in the primary assessment. B. Irrelevant or extraneous data can skew your interpretation of a pt's condition, potentially leading to inappropriate care. C. Recalling bad experiences is dangerous and can interfere with your ability to manage the current situation. D. Effective clinical decision making is based solely on your ability to gather and evaluate pt information B You are assessing the pupils of a pt who was struck in the back of the head. You note that his pupils differ in size by slightly less than 1mm. The pt is conscious, alert, and oriented to person, place, time and event. You should suspect: A. physiologic anisocoria B. injury to the pons or medulla C. increased intracranial pressure D. the he ingested an opiate drug A You are assessing a pt who has had severe trauma the the base of their skull. The pt is unconscious and does not respond to any sensation to their extremities and is breathing slowly and shallowly. Both of his pupils are equal and slightly dilated. You should suspect: A. physiologic anisocoria B. injury to the pons or medulla C. increased intracranial pressure D. the he ingested an opiate drug B You are assessing a pt who is disoriented and confused and is complaining of a headache and blurred vision. The pt's BP is very high and he is on blood thinners for "heart issues". You should suspect: A. physiologic anisocoria B. injury to the pons or medulla C. increased intracranial pressure D. the he ingested an opiate drug C You are assessing a pt who is unconscious and not breathing. The pt's pupils are pinpoint. You should suspect: A. physiologic anisocoria B. injury to the pons or medulla C. increased intracranial pressure D. the he ingested an opiate drug D Which of the following structures in not a part of the lower airway? A. Bronchi B. Larynx C. Trachea D. Alveoli B While assessing a semiconscious 22yo female's respirations, you notes that they are 16 breaths/min. You should: A. apply supplemental oxygen with a nonrebreathing mask B. conclude the the pt's respirations are adequate C. assess the regularity and depth of the pt's breathing D. begin assisting her ventilations with a bag-mask device C If a child does not appear to be critically ill or injured, you should: A. spend an equal amount of time with the parents. B. allow him or her to sit on a caregiver's lap. C. professionally dismiss the parents from the room. D. begin your assessment by taking vital signs. B In which of the following situations should you perform CPR? A. A 5yo unconscious male with severely labored breathing and tachycardia. B. A 2yo unconscious, apneic female with a heart rate of 90 beats/min C. A 3yo unconscious, apneic male with a rapid, irregular pulse D. A 10mo unconscious male with weak breathing and a heart rate of 50 beats/min D Infants and children are highly susceptible to hypothermia because: A. they have limited stores of glycogen. B. of their overall smaller body size. C. of their smaller absolute blood volume. D. their hypothalamus us underdeveloped. A Signs of increased work of breathing in a child include all of the following, except: A. bradypnea B. tracheal tugging C. preferential positioning D. sternal retractions A The nasopharyngeal airway is: A. not well tolerated in children with a gag reflex B. typically used in children in cardiac arrest C. not used in children with an altered mental status D. rarely used in infants younger than 1 year of age D Thoracic barotrauma can occur in an infant or small child when: A. the AEMT provides overzealous ventilatory assistance. B. positive-pressure breaths are delivered over 1 second. C. his or her respiratory muscles fatigue and he or she tires. D. tidal volume is markedly reduced during ventilations. A When assessing a child in compensated shock, you would most likely find: A. severe bradycardia B. central cyanosis C. weak central pulses D. pallor or mottling D Which of the following statements regarding vision in the older pt is correct? A. Excess tear production is a normal art of the aging process. B. The pupils require more time to adjust to changes in light. C. The pupils of an older person are normally asymmetrical D. The majority of older people have cataracts or glaucoma B Because hearing-impaired pts typically have more difficulty hearing high-frequency sounds, it is important for you to: A. lower the pitch of your voice B. try basic sign language first C. speak in a monotone voice D. increase the volume of your voice A Common associated conditions in pts with spina bifida include all of the following, except: A. loss of bladder control B. hydrocephalus C. spastic limb movement D. extreme latex allergy C The purpose of a ventricular peritoneum shunt is to: A. prevent excess cerebrospinal fluid from accumulating in the brain. B. monitor pressure within the skull in pts with a head injury C. remove fluid from the abdomen of pts with right heart failure D. divert excess cerebrospinal fluid from accumulating in the brain A When caring for a pt who is visually impaired, it is important to: A. stand to the side of the pt when speaking if his or her peripheral vision is impaired. B. tell him or her what is happening, identify noises, and describe the situation and surroundings C. allow a service dog to remain with the pt at all times, even if the pt is critically ill D. leave items such as canes and walkers at the residence if the pt will be carried on a gurney B When caring for pts with cerebral palsy, it is important to remember that: A. hearing aids are usually ineffective for pts with hearing loss. B. their limbs are often underdeveloped and are prone to injury C. they are unable to walk and are totally depend upon you D. most pts have the ability to walk, but have an unsteady gate B When interacting with a developmentally disabled patient, the best approach is to: A. speak primarily with the pt's family to establish the degree of disability B. position yourself slightly above the pt's level to reduce his or her anxiety C. approach the pt as a team to reassure him or her that you are there to help D. ask your team members to wait until you can establish a rapport with the pt D Which of the following conditions would most likely cause a pt to slur words, speak very slowly, or speak monotone? A. Advanced age B. Visual impairment C. Parkinson disease D. Cerebral palsy C Which of the following statement regarding autism is correct? A. Most cases of autism are diagnosed by 3 years of age B. Impairment of motor activity is a classic sign of autism C. The majority of pts with autism do not speak at all D. Autism affects females four times more often than males A Which of the following statements regarding gastrostomy (gastric) tubes is correct? A. Most gastrostomy tubes are temporary and are not sutured in place B. Gastrostomy tubes are used for pts who cannot digest food C. Pts with a gastrostomy tube may still be at risk for aspiration D. Gastrostomy tubes are placed directly into the small intestine. C A 70yo male presents with an acute onset of difficulty breathing that woke him from his sleep. He has a history of hypertension, atrial fibrillation, and several heart attacks. During your assessment, you note dried blood around his mouth. The pt tells you that he cannot lie down because he will "smother". What additional assessment finding will you most likely discover? A. Slow respiratory rate B. Pulmonary rales C. Diffuse wheezing D. Fever and chills B Definitive treatment to reduce acute respiratory distress in a pt with pleural effusion involves: A. a fluid thoracentesis B. antibiotic therapy C. endotracheal intubation D. needle decompression A When treating a pt who complains of dyspnea, it is important for the AEMT to: A. be prepared to treat the pt's anxiety as well B. give oxygen via nasal cannula to minimize anxiety C. closely monitor the pt's cardiac rhythm D. routinely request that a paramedic unity respond to the scene A Which of the following injuries or conditions would be least likely to result in hypovolemic shock? A. Blunt abdominal trauma B. Widespread vasodilation C. Nausea and vomiting D. Severe thermal burns B Your pt is a 29yo male who presents with signs and symptoms of shock. However, your assessment reveals no obvious external signs of injury. You should suspect: A. an infectious condition B. a severe closed head injury C. bleeding within the chest D. intraabdominal bleeding D When cellular perfusion is diminished: A. the precapillary sphincters constrict in response to lactic acid buildup and vasomotor failure B. the cells convert to aerobic metabolism, the byproducts of which are carbon dioxide and water C. the postcapillary sphincters remain constricted, causing the capillaries to engorge with fluid D. decreased lactic acid production causes the pH to fall significantly, resulting in alkalosis C When injury occurs to tissues in the healthy human body: A. the breakdown of fibrinogen forms a clot. B. blood vessels near the injury site dilate. C. red blood cells are less able to clump. D. platelets aggregate at the site of the injury. D Which of the following assessment findings would be the least reliable indicator of inadequate perfusion? A. Diaphoresis and pallor B. Altered mental status C. BP of 104/60 mmHg D. Weak radial pulses C Which of the following organs is the most tolerant of low blood flow? A. Skin B. Brain C. Heart D. Lungs A Which of the following physiologic responses occurs during irreversible shock? A. Arterial blood pressure is maintained by constriction of the vasculature B. The sympathetic nervous system vigorously compensates C. Blood is shunted from the liver and kidneys to the brain and heart. D. Respiratory rate and depth markedly increase to maintain oxygenation C You are dispatched to a football game, where a spectator fell approximately 20ft from the stands. As you approach the pt, you can see that he has obvious bilateral femur fractures and is not moving, your initial action should be to: A. open his airway and assess his breathing. B. begin assisting his ventilations. C. stabilize his legs to prevent further injury. D. apply 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask. A You receive a call for a 66yo female who was found unresponsive by her husband. Your primary survey reveals that the pt is responsive to painful stimuli and has rapid, shallow respirations. Her blood pressure is 70/50 mmHg and her pulse rate is 120 beats/min and irregular. The pt's husband tells you that she complained of chest pressure the previous day, but would not allow him to call EMS. This pt is: A. significantly hypovolemic and requires 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask as well as sever crystalloid fluid boluses. B. experiencing cardiogenic shock and requires assisted ventilation, IV therapy, and rapid transport. C. in shock due to a cardiac dysrhythmia and requires assisted ventilation as well as 2 liter bolus of isotonic crystalloid D. likely experiencing an acute myocardial infarction. She requires 100% oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and rapid transport. B After blood diffuses across the capillary membrane and perfuses the cells, it: A. returns waste products to the right side of the heart, starting with the venules B. drops off carbon dioxide and returns oxygenated blood to the heart C. forms lactic and pyruvic acids, which are used by the cells to form energy D. returns carbon dioxide to the left side of the heart, starting with the veins A Hemostasis is a natural response of the body in which: A. bleeding spontaneously clots through vasoconstriction and platelet aggregation. B. all body systems work together to maintain stability of the internal environment. C. blood is diverted away from the skin to areas where it is needed the most D. platelets lose their ability to aggregate due to severe internal bleeding A If a pt is hemorrhaging, he or she is: A. bleeding externally B. bleeding internally C. in severe shock D. bleeding D The ability of a person to effectively compensate for acute blood loss is most directly related to the: A. location of the injury B. pt's weight C. rate of blood loss D. pt's total blood volume C During your assessment of a 48yo female with localized blunt abdominal trauma, you should: A. palpate the most painful area first B. vigorously palpate the entire abdomen C. immobilize her spinal column D. be prepared for the pt to vomit D In an attempt to minimize the pain associated with abdominal trauma, the pt will typically: A. draw his or her knees into the abdomen and breathe deeply B. prefer to extend his or her legs and relax the muscles of the abdomen C. take deep breaths to relieve pressure of the diaphragm D. draw his or her knees into the abdomen and tense the abdominal muscles D The absence of pain when palpating a trauma pt's abdomen does not rule out the possibility of intraabdominal bleeding because: A. most cases of intraabdominal hemorrhage occur in the retroperitoneal space B. the strong abdominal musculature becomes tense following blunt trauma C. blood within the peritoneal cavity does not provoke an inflammatory response D. the liver and spleen are both well protected by the lower ribcage C The presence of gastric juices and bacteria in the abdominal cavity causes an intense inflammatory reaction called: A. gastritis B. appendicitis C. diverticulitis D. peritonitis D When caring for any pt who was sexually assaulted and experiences injury to the external genitalia, you should: A. treat any injuries and provide privacy and reassurance B. transport only and provide support and reassurance C. treat any injuries and question the pt about the even D. limit your examination to a secondary assessment only A Which of the following organs lie in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen? A. Liver and gallbladder B. Pancreas and liver C. Gallbladder and spleen D. Spleen and liver A Kehr sign is defined as: A. bruising around the umbilicus secondary to intraabdominal bleeding B. pain that radiates from the flank to the groin following a kidney injury C. the presence of flank bruising secondary to intraabdominal bleeding D. referred pain to the shoulder following injury to the liver or spleen D Testicular torsion is a(n): A. spontaneous event in the majority of cases B. time-sensitive injury and requires rapid transport C. life-threatening injury that requires surgery D. irreversible injury that leads to impotence B The two processes that occur during respiration are: A. oxygenation and ventilation B. inspiration and expiration C. diffusion and perfusion D. ventilation and diffusion B An organ or tissue that is _______ is better able to resist damage from hypoperfusion. A. large B. small C. warm D. cold D During your rapid assessment of an unconscious 67yo female, you note signs of shock and the presence of hematochezia. You should be most suspicious for: A. bleeding within the retroperitoneum B. lower gastrointestinal bleeding C. a leaking abdominal aortic aneurysm D. upper gastrointestinal bleeding B Following severe maxillofacial trauma, a 16yo male presents with oropharyngeal bleeding and poor respiratory effort. You should: A. suction the oropharynx B. assist his ventilations at once C. insert a nasopharyngeal airway D. pack the mouth with sterile gauze A Prior to applying a tourniquet to a profusely bleeding injury, you should take standard precautions and then: A. elevate the pt's legs 6-12 inches B. apply pressure over a proximal artery C. hold direct pressure over the bleeding site D. apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask C Under which of the following conditions would external bleeding be least difficult to control? A. Lacerated antecubital vein and a BP of 130/70 mmHg B. Lacerated brachial artery and a BP of 84/56 mmHg C. Lacerated carotid artery and a BP of 140/90 mmHg D. Lacerated femoral vein and a BP of 88/60 mmHg D When managing a pt with severe bleeding, it is most important to: A. take standard precautions B. control the bleeding C. obtain frequent vital signs D. administer high-flow oxygen A Signs of peripheral vasoconstriction in children under 6yrs of age include: A. weak central pulses B. bounding radial pulses C. cyanotic extremities D. delayed capillary refill D The AEMT should suspect meningitis when caring for a 3mo infant who: A. has a low-pitched cry and signs of dehydration B. has bulging fontanelles when crying C. cannot bend his neck forward without pain D. has a low-grade fever and a cough C Tracheal tugging, a sign of respiratory distress, is more prominent in children because the: A. large tracheal diameter makes it easily collapsible B. trachea is poorly supported by the neck muscles C. trachea is very narrow and is easily collapsible D. cricoid cartilage is the narrowest part of the airway C You are dispatched to the city park for a 9yo female with difficulty breathing. When you arrive at the scene and assess the child, you note that she is anxious and that she has generalized rash, facial swelling, and marked respiratory distress. Her radial pulses are weak and rapid. You should: A. assist ventilation and request a paramedic unit to administer epinephrine 1:1,000 B. insert a supraglottic airway device before her airway sells, and transport at once C. administer 100% oxygen, establish vascular access, and administer epinephrine D. start an IV administer diphenhydramine, and give her oxygen via nasal cannula C You respond to a motor-vehicle crash in which a child is apparently injured. Upon arrival, you assess the child, a 2yo male who is still restrained in his car seat. he is conscious and has a small abrasion to his forehead, but is otherwise uninjured. You should: A. immobilize him in his car seat B. remove him from the car seat at once C. immobilize him on a short board D. allow his mother to hold him A Your primary survey of a 5yo male reveals that he has a decreased level of consciousness and slow, shallow breathing. You should: A. assist ventilations and obtain baseline vital signs B. apply a nonrebreathing mask and transport at once C. insert a supraglottic airway device and transport D. assist ventilations and perform a rapid assessment D A 20yo female presents with acute respiratory distress. Ascultation of her lungs reveals diffuse expiratory wheezing. She is in moderate distress and tells you that she has a prescribed inhaler that she used when this happens. You should suspect: A. bronchitis exacerbation B. bacterial pneumonia C. status asthmaticus D. an acute asthma attack D Approximately 20 minutes after receiving a penicillin injection at the doctor's office, a 41yo female present with acute respiratory distress, facial swelling, and intense itching to her entire body. Her level of consciousness is decreased and her breathing is labored with minimal chest rise. The most appropriate treatment for this pt should include: A. hyperventilation with a bag-mask device and epinephrine via IV push B. assisted ventilation, IV normal saline, and epinephrine C. oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, IV of normal saline, and albuterol D. insertion of a supraglottic airway and a 1,00mL bolus of normal saline B In cases of pulmonary edema, diffusion is impaired primarily because of: A. decreased cardiac contractility B. fluid-filled alveoli C. widespread atelectasis D. severe pulmonary vasoconstriction B The process of moving air into and out of the lungs is called: A. ventilation B. respiration C. oxygenation D. artificial breathing A What acid-base derangement initially occurs in a tachypneic pt without a physiologic demand for increased oxygen? A. Metabolic acidosis B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Respiratory acidosis C When assisting a pt with his or her prescribed inhaler, it is important to: A. instruct the pt to hold his or her breath for 20-30 seconds B. avoid a spacer device, as this decreases the medication's efficacy C. have the pt exhale deeply prior to inhaling the medication D. ensure that the medication is slightly below room temperature C Which of the following physiologic processes does not occur in pts with COPD? A. Diffuse alveolar collapse B. Mucous production from beta2 cells C. Intrapulmonary air trapping D. Increased surfactant production D You are transporting a 60yo male to the hospital for suspected COPD exacerbation. He is receiving 100% oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask. As you reassess him, you note that his respiration have decreased and have become shallow. You should: A. prepare to insert a supraglottic airway B. apply a nasal cannula at 4L/min C. begin assisting his ventilations D. remove the oxygen mask reassess C A 40yo female complains of a sudden onset of chest pressure. When assessing the history of her present illness, which of the following pt responses would identify a palliating factor? A. "The pressure seems to subside when I sit down." B. "I cannot walk too far without experiencing chest pressure." C. "The pressure did not subside after three nitroglycerin tablets." D. "This pressure awakened me from my sleep." A A 63yo male is being transported to the hospital for an acute exacerbation of his emphysema. He is on oxygen via nasal cannula at 4 L/min. During your reassessment, you note that his mental status has deteriorated and his respirations have become markedly slow and shallow. You should: A. insert an advanced airway device at once B. immediately reassess his vital signs C. assist his ventilation with a bag-mask device D. assess his blood glucose level C An older man complains of chest pain. He is conscious and alert and denies any other symptoms. Your focused assessment of this patient should include: A. evaluation of his hydration status, vital signs, determining if he is experiencing unilateral neurologic deficits, asking him to smile to determine if he has a facial droop. B. neurologic function in all extremities, vital signs, auscultation of heart sounds, inquiring about his family history, and assessing his pupils for equality and reactivity. C. palpation of the upper abdominal quadrants, vital signs, auscultation of breath and epigastric sounds, and assessment of his blood glucose level. D. vital signs, looking at the chest for obvious trauma, auscultation of breath sounds, assessing the external jugular veins, and assessing for edema to the extremities. D Ascites is defined as: A. inflammation of the liver due to a malignancy B. an accumulation of fluid in in the peritoneal space C. a collection of blood in the retroperitoneal space D. inflammation of the bowel due to blockage B In a responsive pt, capnography is used to: A. determine the amount of carbon dioxide produced by aerobic metabolism B. assess the percentage of hemoglobin that is saturated with oxygen C. determine the partial pressure of oxygen in the arterial blood D. confirm the presence of shock if the ETCO2 is greater than 45 mmHg A Critical incident stress management is a program designed to: A. confront the responses to critical incidents and defuse them B. evaluate personnel performance during a critical incident C. debrief press and media on detail of a critical incident D. investigate civilian complaints during a critical incident A The AEMT should wear double gloves when caring for a pt who: A. is infected with HIV or hepatitis B B. is coughing and has a history of tuberculosis C. has widespread abrasions and capillary bleeding D. is bleeding heavily from a large artery laceration D The suffix -ostomy means: A. drainage from a body cavity B. surgical creation of a hole C. release of pressure D. surgical incision B A drug's therapeutic index refers to: A. the minimum dose requires to achieve the desired effect B. the difference between a therapeutic and lethal dose C. how quickly the drug will be excreted from the body D. the maximum concentration that can safely be given B Which of the following is not a physiologic effect of sympathetic nervous system stimulation? A. Decreased HR B. Reduced digestion C. Vasoconstriction D. Dilated pupils A A solution that hydrates the cells while depleting the vascular compartment is referred to as being: A. hyperosmolar B. hypertonic C. hypotonic D. isotonic C Reconstituting a drug, such as glucagon, involves: A. placing at least 10mL of saline into a vile that contains powdered medication. B. injecting liquid from one vial into another vial that contains liquid medication C. diluting a medication with at least 20mL of saline prior to administration D. injecting liquid from one vial into another vial that already contains powder D Evaluation of the interior of a crashed motor vehicle during extrication will allow the AEMT to: A. determine the vehicle's speed at the time of impact. B. identify contact points and predict potential injuries. C. assess the severity of the third collision of the crash. D. recognize if the driver hit the brakes before impact. B Two of the most common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are: A. falls and motor vehicle collisions B. low-caliber gunshot wounds and falls C. motor vehicle collisions and stabbings D. gunshot wounds and vehicle ejections A A 56yo male caught the foreskin of his penis in a long segment of the zipper in his pants. He is in extreme pain, his blood pressure is 150/88 mmHg, his pulse rate is 120 beats/min and strong, and his respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth. The closest hospital is 40 miles away. You should: A. provide prompt transport to the hospital while providing emotional support B. attempt to unzip the pants and request a paramedic unit to give morphine C. allow the pt's wife to transport him to the hospital because he is not unstable D. carefully cut the zipper out of the pants, control any bleeding, and transport D A construction worker is pinned between a truck and a loading dock. He is conscious and in respiratory distress. Further assessment reveals upper torso and facial cyanosis and bilateral conjunctival hemorrhages. When treating this pt, you must: A. avoid fluid boluses because this may cause pulmonary edema B. suspect that he will experience metabolic alkalosis C. be prepared for severe hypotension once he is freed D. administer 3L of normal saline before he is freed C When administering IV fluids to a pt with suspected intrathoracic bleeding, it is important to remember that: A. increasing the BP with fluids may increase the bleeding B. fluids should be restricted, even in the presence of shock C. most pts require up to 2L of crystalloid solution D. a target systolic blood pressure of 100 should be achieved A A major benefit of using a Sager traction splint is that it: A. immobilizes the limb by producing countertraction B. can be applied effectively by one AEMT is necessary C. allows you to bind the injured leg to the uninjured leg. D. allows you to pull traction before applying the splint B Following blunt force trauma to the elbow, a 40yo female complains of severe pain and the feeling that her elbow is "locked". Your assessment reveals marked deformity and swelling. This pt has most likely experienced a(n): A. epiphyseal injury B. fracture C. dislocation D. severe sprain C Which of the following describes an injury caused by indirect force? A. Knee striking the dashboard during a car crash and fracturing the patella B. A fall on an outstretched hand with a fractured wrist and a dislocated elbow C. Being struck by a car and sustaining a pelvic fracture and closed head trauma D. Rupture of the stomach following the blast phase of an explosion B A subdural hematoma is an accumulation of blood: A. between the dura mater and the skull B. within the brain tissue itself C. beneath the dura mater but outside the brain D. above all of the meningeal layers C An epidural hematoma is an accumulation of blood: A. between the dura mater and the skull B. within the brain tissue itself C. beneath the dura mater but outside the brain D. below all of the meningeal layers A An intracerebral hematoma is an accumulation of blood: A. between the dura mater and the skull B. within the brain tissue itself C. beneath the dura mater but outside the brain D. above all of the meningeal layers B Which of the following head-injured pts should be ventilated at a rate of 20 breaths/min with a bag-mask device and 100% oxygen? A. Unresponsive 30yo male with slow, shallow breathing; equal and reactive pupils; and hypotension B. Semiconscious 25yo female with rapid, shallow breathing; dilated and sluggish pupils; and hypertension C. Unresponsive 21yo male with slow, irregular breathing; fixed and dilated pupils; and extensor posturing D. Semiconscious 34yo female with deep, regular breathing; bilaterally dilated and reactive pupils; and bradycardia C A fracture involving the nasal bone and inferior maxilla, which separates the nasal bone and lower maxilla from the facial skull and remainder of the cranial bones describes: A. a Le Fort II fracture B. a Le Fort I fracture C. craniofacial disjunction D. a Le Fort III fracture A A transverse fracture running through the maxilla and pterygoid plates at a level just above the floor of the nose that causes a separation of the hard palate from the upper maxilla describes: A. a Le Fort II fracture B. a Le Fort I fracture C. craniofacial disjunction D. a Le Fort III fracture B A fracture of the nasofrontal junction, bilateral fractures through the area of the frontozygomatic suture, and probable fractures of the zygomatic arch describes: A. a Le Fort II fracture B. a Le Fort I fracture C. craniofacial disjunction D. a Le Fort III fracture C and D When caring for a pt with an open facial injury, the AEMT must: A. wear gloves and facial protection B. consider the mechanism of injury C. manually stabilize the pt's head D. closely assess the pt's airway A Which of the following statements regarding the vitreous humor is correct? A. It is clear, watery fluid that cannot be replaced if it is lost during an eye injury. B. It is a clear fluid that is produced by the lacrimal glands and cannot be replaced if it is lost C. It is a clear, watery fluid that is located in front of the lens and can be replaced if it is lost. D. It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost. D CPAP produces all of the following physiologic effects, except: A. pushing more oxygen across the alveolar membrane B. dispersing thick secretions within the lung tissue C. opening collapsed alveoli and improving respiration D. forcing interstitial fluid into the pulmonary circulation B When the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract: A. intrapulmonary pressure falls below atmospheric pressure B. atmospheric pressure draws air out of the lungs C. intrapulmonary and atmospheric pressures are equal D. atmospheric pressure exceeds intrapulmonary pressure A The presence of distended jugular veins that do not collapse, even when the pt is sitting, is consistent with: A. left-sided heart failure B. a thoracic aortic aneurysm C. an acute hypertensive crisis D. right-sided heart failure D The visceral pericardium, which lies closely against the heart, is also called the: A. epicardium B. endocardium C. coronary sinus D. foramen ovale A What part of the cardiac electrical conduction system initiates electrical impulses at the slowest rate? A. the atrioventricular node B. areas below the AV node C. the sinoatrial node D. any part of the AV node B When assessing a pt for peripheral edema, you should check the sacral area if the pt is: A. semireclined B. bedridden C. ambulatory D. sitting up B When defibrillating a 6-month-old infant, you should recall that: A. adult AED pads cannot be used. B. you should only deliver one shock. C. a manual defibrillator is preferred. D. all shocks are delivered in sets of three. C When given to a pt who is experiencing an acute coronary syndrome, aspirin works by: A. dissolving a clot and reestablishing blood flow B. thinning the blood and preventing clot formation C. dilating the coronary arteries and relieving pain D. preventing an existing clot from getting larger D When the papillary muscles contract, the ________ tighten preventing blood from regurgitating from the ventricles to the atria. A. tricuspid valves B. chordae tendineae C. coronary sinuses D. semilunar valves B When treating a 56-year-old female with chest pain, you have placed on her oxygen, established IV access, and administered two doses of sublingual nitroglycerin. However, the patient's pain has not improved. You reassess her blood pressure and note that it is 106/66 mm Hg. You should: A. request permission to giver her morphine B. transport at once and closely monitor her C. administer one more dose of nitroglycerin D. give a 500mL saline bolus to raise her BP C When treating a pt who is in cardiogenic shock, you should administer _____mL crystalloid fluid boluses to achieve a systolic blood pressure of at least ______ mmHg. A. 500;90 B. 500;110 C. 250;80 D. 250;100 C When treating a pt with a blood pressure of 80/40 mmHg due to "pump failure", you should: A. place the pt in a supine position with his or her legs elevated B. assist the pt with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin C. give 250mL fluid boluses as needed to improve perfusion D. apply a nonrebreathing mask if the pt is breathing shallowly C Which of the following cardiac rhythms or conditions requires defibrillation? A. Ventricular tachycardia without a pulse B. Any tachycardic rhythm with a weak pulse C. Pulseless electrical activity D. Asystole A Which of the following clinical presentations is consistent with a malfunctioning implanted pacemaker? A. Weakness and tachycardia B. Dizziness and hypertension C. Tachycardia and hypotension D. Syncope and bradycardia D You receive a call to a local grocery store for a possible heart attack. Upon arrival at the scene, you find two bystanders performing CPR on the pt, a 49yo male. You should: A. continue CPR and insert a supraglottic airway B. confirm that the pt is in cardiac arrest C. look, listen and feel for signs of breathing D. apply the AED and analyze his cardiac rhythm B "Normal" behavior is basically classified as what: A. is agreed upon by psychiatrists B. your protocols dictate C. the pt perceives D. is acceptable by society D A minimum of ______ personnel should be used to restrain a 17yo, 120lb, violent pt. A. 2 B. 3 C. 1 D. 4 D An individual who poses a threat to the safety of his or her family, friends, or the AEMT is experiencing a(n): A. psychiatric emergency B. behavioral emergency C. emotional crisis D. psychological crisis A As an AEMT, you may legally restrain a pt if he or she: A. refuses to allow you to begin treatment or transport B. is acutely intoxicated and verbally abusive to you C. presents harm to you, your partner, or bystanders D. is under the influence of a CNS-depressant drug C Violent or dangerous individuals who do not require medical care should be: A. subdued with soft restraints B. given sedative medication C. taken into police custody D. transported for psychiatric care C When caring for a pt with a behavioral crisis, you should ensure your own safety, and then: A. frisk the pt for dangerous weapons B. determine if the pt is seeing a psychiatrist C. identify any life-threatening conditions D. apply oxygen with a nonrebreathing mask C Which of the following conditions would be least likely to cause an alteration in behavior? A. Hypoglycemia B. Brain injury C. Hypertension D. Hypoxemia C Which of the following conditions would be the least likely cause of mental incapacitation? A. Chronic hyperthyroidism B. Hypoxia and hypercarbia C. Acute hypoglycemia D. CNS-depressant drugs A While assessing a 32yo male with an acute behavioral crisis, he asks to go into the kitchen to get something to eat. You should: A. leave the scene immediately and notify law enforcement B. not allow him to leave the area without a police escort C. ask him if he will allow you to accompany him D. tell him that he will get something to eat at the hospital B While assessing a pt with an apparent behavioral crisis, he tells you that he sees a pink elephant in the corner of the room. This is an example of a(n): A. auditory hallucinatino B. auditory delusion C. visual hallucination D. visual delusion C If you suspect that your pt has ingested a poisonous substance, you should: A. administer activated charcoal as soon as possible B. call poison control for specific treatment guidelines C. transport the pt to the closes medical facility D. initiate emergency care and notify medical control D Severe aspirin toxicity most likely cause: A. respiratory acidosis B. metabolic acidosis C. respiratory alkalosis D. metabolic alkalosis B An appropriate demonstration of professionalism when your patient is frightened, demanding, or unpleasant is to: A. demand that the pt be quiet and cooperative during transport B. continue to be nonjudgmental, compassionate, and respectful C. ignore the pt's feelings and focus on his or her medical complaint B Which of the following statements is correct regarding the family's reaction to the death of a loved one who had an extended or terminal illness? A. They often feel relieved that the illness is over B. They usually seek immediate care because of severe guilt C. They rarely blame themselves because of the pt's death D. They initially express guilt but then experience relief A The function of the National Registry of EMTs is to: A. set training standards for each EMS provider level B. mandate that EMS providers recertify every year C. assess competence through a valid testing process D. provide continuing education for EMS providers C You arrive at the scene of a domestic dispute. You can hear yelling and the sound of breaking glass from inside the residence. You should: A. retreat to a safe place until the scene has been secured B. tell the pt to come outside so you can provide care C. carefully enter the house and call law enforcement D. immediately gain access to the pt A You arrive at the scene of an overturned semi-trailer truck. There is an odd odor in the air and you can see material leaking from the truck. After ensuring that fire department and law enforcement personnel are notified, you shoud: A. rapidly extricate the driver from the truck B. carefully assess the driver of the truck C. use binocular to try to read the placard D. decontaminate the driver of the truck C Which of the following is not a standard licensure requirement for AEMTs? A. Possession of a valid and current driver's license B. Successful completion of a state-approved AEMT exam C. Completion of an NREMT-developed AEMT course D. Proof of immunization against communicable diseases C The movement of a solute from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration is called: A. diffusion B. endocytosis C. exocytosis D. osmosis A Cells or organs that selectively remove, concentrate, or alter material in the blood and then secrete them back into the body are called: A. glands B. neoplasms C. hormones D. neurotransmitters A For consent to be informed, the AEMT must: A. tell the pt where they are being transported B. explain the risks and benefits of treatment C. explain local EMS protocols to the pt D. ensure the pt understands the potential costs B You arrive at the scene of a shooting. The pt, a young man, was shot in the head and has exposed brain matter. He is pulseless and apneic. What should you do? A. Look for the weapon and turn it over to law enforcement B. Provide immediate treatment and transport C. Take necessary precautions not to disturb the scene D. Perform a thorough hands-on assessment of the pt C You respond to the scene of a 16yo pregnant woman with abdominal pain. Her friend called EMS because she was concerned. As you being your assessment, the pt tells you that she feels better and does not want to go to the hospital. You should: A. advise the pt that she cannot refuse care B. contact the pt's parents to obtain consent C. have the pt sign a Refusal of Care form D. explain the consequences of refusal of care D General guidelines for effectively communicating information over the radio include: A. holding the microphone no more than 1 inch away from your mouth B. ensuring that other radios on the same frequency are turned up C. using words such as "yes" or "no", instead of affirmative or negative D. avoiding providing preliminary diagnosis of the pt's condition D When assessing an anxious 55yo male with chest pain, you should: A. ask him how he prefers to be addressed B. avoid unpleasant answers to his questions C. avoid eye contact to minimize anxiety D. use medical terms to ensure he understands A Which of the following represents the most appropriate order in which to present pt information over the radio when communicating with the hospital? A. Age and sex, chief complaint, history of present illness, exam findings, care provided, estimated time of arrival B. Chief complaint, history of present illness, age and sex, exam findings, care provided, estimated time of arrival C. Age and sex, chief complaint, care provided, history of present illness, exam findings, estimated time of arrival D. Chief complaint, age and sec exam findings, history of present illness, care provided, estimated time of arrival A Movement of an extremity towards the midline of the body is called: A. supination B. adduction C. abduction D. pronation B Topographically, the term distal means: A. near the trunk B. near a point of reference C. toward the body's midline D. away from the trunk D Which of the following terms pertains to the posterior knee? A. Popliteal B. Perineal C. Volar D. Plantar A Which of the following terms pertains to the palm of the hand? A. Popliteal B. Perineal C. Volar D. Plantar C Which of the following terms pertains to the area between the genitals and the anus? A. Popliteal B. Perineal C. Volar D. Plantar B It is essential that you ____________ your equipment to prevent the spread of disease. A. dispose of B. decontaminate C. store D. incinerate B What is the MOST appropriate method to use when moving a patient from his or her bed to the wheeled stretcher? A. Direct carry B. Draw sheet method C. Extremity carry D. Log roll B When carrying a pt up or down stairs, you should avoid: A. using a wheeled stretcher whenever possible B. the use of more than two AEMTs C. flexing your body at the knees D. the use of a long backboard or scoop stretcher A A physician authorizes you, via two-way radio, to help a pt administer prescribed nitroglycerin. What type of medical direction is this? A. Off-line medical control B. Standing order C. Online medical contro D. Indirect medical control C In response to shock or stress, sympathetic nervous system stimulation causes: A. increased gastrointestinal function B. shunting of blood to the extremities C. vasoconstriction D. slowing of the heart rate C Tidal volume is defined as the volume of air that: A. remains in the lungs following expiration B. is exhaled from the lungs following a forceful exhalation C. is moved in or out of the lungs following maximal expiration D. is moved into or out of the lungs during a single breath D Authorization to use an automatic transport ventilator when transporting a patient requires which minimum level of EMS provider? A. EMR B. EMT C. AEMT D. Paramedic B The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint where the humeral head articulate with the: A. acromion process B. popliteal fossa C. glenoid fossa D. acetabulum C The ilium is defined as the: A. bony prominence of the pelvis B. structure that overlies the bladder C. lower part of the small intestine D. ligament that overlies the femoral vessels A The ileum is defined as the: A. bony prominence of the pelvis B. structure that overlies the bladder C. lower part of the small intestine D. ligament that overlies the femoral vessels