AST Certification Practice Exam #3 Questions with Answers

AST Certification Practice Exam #3 Questions with Answers Which cranial nerve is affected by trigeminal neuralgia? a. I b. V c. VI d. VII -Answer- b. V What is used to lubricate the donor site and reduce friction from the dermatome? a. Bacitracin ointment b. Iodophor solution c. Petrolatum gel d. Mineral oil -Answer- d. Mineral oil Which of the following is an example of proper sterile technique when performing the prep for a split-thickness skin graft? a. Donor site first b. Recipient site c. Donor site only d. Recipient site only -Answer- a. Donor site first What is the recommended range of intra-abdominal pressure in an adult patient when using an insuffaltor during a laparoscopic procedure? a. 8-11 mm Hg b. 12-15 mm Hg c. 16-19 mm Hg d. 20-23 mm Hg -Answer- b. 12-15 mm Hg Which of these terms refers to the inability to direct both eyes at the same object? a. Strabismus b. Chalazion c. Glaucoma d. Cataract -Answer- a. Strabismus What procedure is peformed to correct chronic cerebral ischemia? a. Rhizotomy b. Cranioplasty c. Arteriography d. Endarterectomy -Answer- d. Endarterectomy According to the Rule of Nines, what percentage is assigned to the front and back of the trunk? a. 27% b. 18% c. 4 1/2% d. 1% -Answer- b. 18% Which term refers to an abnormal increase in the number of cells? a. Atrophy b. Dysplasia c. Hyperplasia d. Hypertrophy -Answer- c. Hyperplasia A second intention wound heals by: a. Granulation b. Evisceration c. Primary union d. Delayed suturing -Answer- a. Granulation Intraoperative ventricular arrhythmias are treated with: a. Lidocaine b. Digitoxin c. Prostigmin d. Furosemide -Answer- a. Lidocaine How many milimeters equal two (2) ounces? a. 40 b. 50 c. 60 d. 70 -Answer- c. 60 Covering a sterile back table for later use is: a. Permissible for up to one hour before the procedure b. Permissible in instances of an emergency c. Not permissible for up to 2 hours before the procedure d. Not permissible under any circumstances -Answer- d. Not permissible under any circumstances In which position would a patient be placed to counteract hypovolemia? a. Left lateral b. Right lateral c. Trendelenburg d. Reverse Trendelenburg -Answer- c. Trendelenburg Which of the following types of suture create the least tissue trauma and drag? a. Swaged multifilament b. Swaged monofilament c. Threaded multifilament d. Threaded monofilament -Answer- b. Swaged monofilament Which organization has legal oversight for the safety of healthcare providers in the work place? a. EPA b. CDC c. OSHA d. NIOSH -Answer- c. OSHA Which level of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is most applicable to the surgical patient? a. Esteem and prestige b. Love and belonging c. Safety and security d. Physiological and survival -Answer- d. Physiological and survival Which of the following would be incorrect technique when removing the sterile gown and gloves? a. Circulator unties gown b. Gown removed inside-out c. Gloves removed inside-out d. Gloves removed first -Answer- d. Gloves removed first What type of procedure might require a laparoscopy combination drape? a. Pilonidal cystectomy b. Subacromial decompression c. Abdominoperineal resection d. Femorofemoral bypass -Answer- c. Abdominoperineal resection Cell destruction by steam sterilization occurs by: a. Cellular membrane damage b. Interrupt cellular division c. Altering cellular DNA d. Coagulation of protein -Answer- d. Coagulation of protein Which technique is not acceptable when draping? a. Hold the drapes 12 inches above patient until over the draping site b. Protect gloved hand by cuffing end of drape over it c. Unfold drape before bringing up to the OR table d. Place drapes on dry area when setting up backtable -Answer- c. Unfold drape before bringing up to the OR table A patient's fingernail polish is removed to: a. Prevent surgical wound infection b. Allow temperature to be recorded c. Prevent ESU exit pathway d. Allow for use of pulse oximeter -Answer- d. Allow for use of pulse oximeter What is the purpose of maintaining the air exchange rate at 15-20 times per hour in the OR? a. Reduce microbial count b. Increase humidity c. Provide comfortable environment d. Decrease static electricity -Answer- a. Reduce microbial count How many mL of water is necessary to inflate a 5-mL balloon on the Foley indwelling catheter? a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20 -Answer- b. 10 If an opthalmologist orders trimming of eyelashes, how is it safely performed? a. Electric trimmer used on dry lashes b. Electric trimmer used on wet lashes c. Fine scissors without water-soluble gel d. Fine scissors coated with water-soluble gel -Answer- d. Fine scissors coated with water-soluble gel What is the correct technique for performing the surgical skin prep? a. Incision site to periphery using circular motion b. Periphery to incision site using circular motion c. Incision site to periphery using back-and-forth motion d. Periphery to incision site using back-and-forth motion -Answer- a. Incision site to periphery using circular motion The laboratory test that determines the ratio of erythrocytes to whole blood is: a. Reticulocyte count b. Differential count c. Hematocrit d. Hemoglobin -Answer- c. Hematocrit What is the proper procedure to follow when a pack of sponges contains an incorrect number after the patient has entered the OR? a. Record actual number and use b. Hand off the sterile field and isolate c. Place on sterile backtable and do not use d. Remove from the OR -Answer- b. Hand off the sterile field and isolate Which of the following types of specimens would not be placed in a preservative solution? a. Colon b. Calculi c. Tonsils d. Uterus -Answer- b. Calculi Where should the surgical technologist begin when performing closing counts? a. Backtable b. Mayo stand c. Off the field d. Operative field -Answer- d. Operative field Which of the following catheter tips is used in a patient with a urethral structure? a. Olive b. Coude c. Whistle d. Mushroom -Answer- b. Coude Which type of procedure would require a stent dressing? a. Neck b. Inguinal c. Extremity d. Abdominal -Answer- a. Neck Which of the following is used in order to ensure preservation of the facial nerve during a parotidectomy? a. Monopolar cautery b. Nerve stimulator c. Microscope d. Doppler -Answer- b. Nerve stimulator Which of the following hemostatic agents is contraindicated for use in the presence of infection? a. Topical thrombin b. Oxidized cellulose c. Absorbable gelatin d. Absorbable collagen -Answer- d. Absorbable collagen During closure of a nephrectomy in the lateral position, the OR table is straightened to facilitate: a. Proper circulation b. Wound hemostasis c. Adequate respirations d. Tissue approximation -Answer- d. Tissue approximation Which of the following must be tested prior to the use of a fiberoptic bronchoscope? a. Light source b. Laser fiber c. Nitrogen level d. Magnification lens -Answer- a. Light source Excision of a constricted segment of the aorta with reanastomosis is performed to correct: a. Patent ductus arteriosus b. Coarctation of the aorta c. Aortic aneurysm d. Transposition of the great vessels -Answer- b. Coarctation of the aorta For which of the following diagnoses would a patient undergo endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography? a. Cholecystitis b. Choledocholithiasis c. Pancreatitis d. Pancreatolithiasis -Answer- b. Choledocholithiasis The high ligation of the gonadal veins of the testes performed to reduce venous plexus congestion is a/an: a. Spermatocelectomy b. Varicocelectomy c. Epididymectomy d. Vasovasostomy -Answer- b. Varicocelectomy Trauma to which two of the following cranial nerves would result in the loss of smell and vision? a. I and II b. I and III c. II and III d. II and IV -Answer- a. I and II Which of the following is performed for suspected ectopic pregnancy? a. Culdocentesis b. Colposcopy c. Culdotomy d. Colporrhaphy -Answer- a. Culdocentesis Which of the following is a procedure for treatment of glaucoma? a. Vitrectomy b. Iridectomy c. Enucleation d. Keratoplasty -Answer- b. Iridectomy What procedure is performed to immobilize the jaw following a mandibular fracture? a. Arch bar application b. TMJ osteotomy c. LeFort I d. LeFort II -Answer- a. Arch bar application Which of the following total arthroplasty procedures would require the postoperative use of an abduction splint? a. Hip b. Knee c. Ankle d. Shoulder -Answer- a. Hip Untreated acute otitis media may result in: a. Tonsillitis b. Mastoiditis c. Adenoiditis d. Ethmoiditis -Answer- b. Mastoiditis Which of the following is used intraoperatively to assess vascular potency? a. Positron emission tomography b. Magnetic resonance imaging c. Computed tomography d. Doppler ultrasound -Answer- d. Doppler ultrasound b. Tonsillectomy -Answer- The instrument shown below would be used during a: a. Parotidectomy b. Tonsillectomy c. Rhytidectomy d. Stapedectomy Which of the following is the body's primary source of energy? a. Carbohydrates b. Vitamins c. Proteins d. Fats -Answer- a. Carbohydrates What is compressed during rapid-sequence induction and intubation? a. Hyoid b. Manubrium c. Thyroid gland d. Cricoid cartilage -Answer- d. Cricoid cartilage What term refers to the spread of cancerous cells to other parts of the body? a. In-situ b. In-vivo c. Metastasis d. Encapsulation -Answer- c. Metastasis The shared passageway for food and air is the: a. Trachea b. Larynx c. Pharynx d. Bronchus -Answer- c. Pharyn