QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS 100 CORRECT
SCORE 2022/2023 UPDATE (RATED A+)
Sections
1.Questions Set A
2.Question Set B
3.Questions Set C
4.Questions Set D
5.Questions Set E
6.Questions Set F
7.Questions Set G
Exam A
QUESTION 1
To appropriately monitor therapy and client progress, the nurse
should be aware that increased myocardial work and O2 demand
will occur with which of the following?
A. Positive inotropic therapy
B. Negative chronotropic therapy
C. Increase in balance of myocardial O2 supply and demand
D. Afterload reduction therapy
Correct Answer:
A Section:
Questions Set A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Inotropic therapy will increase contractility, which will increase
myocardial O2 demand. (B) Decreased heart rate to the point of
bradycardia will increase coronary artery filling time. This should
be used cautiously because tachycardia may be a compensatory
mechanism to increase cardiac output. (C) The goal in the care of
the MI client with angina is to maintain a balance between
myocardial O2 supply and demand. (D) Decrease in systemic
vascular resistance by drug therapy, such as IV nitroglycerin or
nitroprusside, or intra-aortic balloon pump therapy, would
decrease myocardial work and O2 demand.
QUESTION 2
The nurse would need to monitor the serum glucose levels of a
,client receiving which of the following medications, owing to its
effects on glycogenolysis and insulin release?
A. Norepinephrine (Levophed)
B. Dobutamine (Dobutrex)
C. Propranolol (Inderal)
D. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
Correct Answer:
D Section:
Questions Set A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Norepinephrine’s side effects are primarily related to safe,
effective care environment and include decreased peripheral
perfusion and bradycardia. (B) Dobutamine’s side effects include
increased heart rate and blood pressure, ventricular ectopy,
nausea, and headache. (C) Propranolol’s side effects include
elevated blood urea nitrogen, serum transaminase, alkaline
phosphatase, and lactic dehydrogenase. (D) Epinephrine
increases serum glucose levels by increasing glycogenolysis and
inhibiting insulin release. Prolonged use can elevate serum lactate
levels, leading to metabolic acidosis, increased urinary
catecholamines, false elevation of blood urea nitrogen, and
decreased coagulation time.
QUESTION 3
Which of the following medications requires close observation for
bronchospasm in the client with chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease or asthma?
A. Verapamil (Isoptin)
B. Amrinone (Inocor)
C. Epinephrine (Adrenalin)
D. Propranolol (Inderal)
Correct Answer: D
Section:
Questions Set A
Explanation
,Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Verapamil has the respiratory side effect of nasal or chest
congestion, dyspnea, shortness of breath (SOB), and wheezing. (B)
Amrinone has the effect of increased contractility and dilation of
the vascular smooth muscle. It has no noted respiratory side
effects. (C) Epinephrine has the effect of bronchodilation through β
stimulation. (D) Propranolol, esmolol, and labetalol are all β-
blocking agents, which can increase airway resistance and cause
bronchospasms.
QUESTION 4
The following medications were noted on review of the client’s
home medication profile. Which of the medications would most
likely potentiate or elevate serum digoxin levels?
A. KCl
B. Thyroid agents
C. Quinidine
D. Theophylline
Correct Answer:
C Section:
Questions Set A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Hypokalemia can cause digoxin toxicity. Administration of KCl
would prevent this. (B) Thyroid agents decrease digoxin levels.
(C) Quinidine increases digoxin levels dramatically. (D)
Theophylline is not noted to have an effect on digoxin levels.
QUESTION 5
In the client with a diagnosis of coronary artery disease, the nurse
would anticipate the complication of bradycardia with occlusion of
which coronary artery?
A. Right coronary artery
B. Left main coronary artery
C. Circumflex coronary artery
, D. Left anterior descending coronary artery
Correct Answer:
A Section:
Questions Set A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Sinus bradycardia and atrioventricular (AV) heart block are
usually a result of right coronary artery occlusion. The right
coronary artery perfuses the sinoatrial and AV nodes in
mostindividuals. (B) Occlusion of the left main coronary artery
causes bundle branch blocks and premature ventricular
contractions. (C) Occlusion of the circumflex artery does not
cause bradycardia. (D) Sinus tachycardia occurs primarily with
left anterior descending coronary artery occlusion because this
form of occlusion impairs left ventricular function.
QUESTION 6
When inspecting a cardiovascular client, the nurse notes that he
needs to sit upright to breathe. This behavior is most indicative
of:
A. Pericarditis
B. Anxiety
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Angina
Correct Answer:
C Section:
Questions Set A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) Pericarditis can cause dyspnea but primarily causes chest
pain. (B) Anxiety can cause dyspnea resulting in SOB, yet it is not
typically influenced by degree of head elevation. (C) The inability
to oxygenate well without being upright is most indicative of
congestive heart failure, due to alveolar drowning. (D) Angina
causes primarily chest pain; any SOB associated with angina is not
influenced by body position.