(solved) NAB Exam 2023/2024

NAB Exam 2023/2024 Gerontologists Categories - How is Young-Old Defined? correct answer65 to 74 years old Gerontologists Categories - How is Old-Old Defined? correct answer75 to 84 years old Gerontologists Categories - How is Oldest-Old Defined? correct answerOver 85 + years old The morning meal must be served within how many hours after the previous meal? correct answer14 Hours, if the required evening snack is substantial and the resident approves 16 hours may elapse A full time social worker is required if the facility has more than how many beds? correct answer120 Beds What qualifications are required of a full time social worker? correct answerBS (Bachelors of Science) in Social work, psychology or rehabilitation counseling. Also, 1 year of supervised social work experience in a health-care setting When can the DON act as charge nurse? correct answerWhen ADC (Average Daily Census) is 60 or lower What is a substantial weight loss or gain? correct answer5% gain/loss in one month or a 10% gain/loss in a 6 month period How often are physicians required to visit their patients? correct answerOnce every 30 days for the first 90 day period, then at least every 60 days thereafter A comprehensive care plan must be developed with how many days of MDS completion? correct answer7 Days (Medicare or 14 days Medicaid) If marked PRN a medication is administered? correct answerAs Needed If marked BID a medication is administered? correct answerTwice a Day If marked TID a medication is administered? correct answerThree Times a Day If marked QID a medication is administered? correct answerFour Times a Day If marked QD a medication is administered? correct answerEvery Day If marked QOD a medication is administered? correct answerEvery Other Day If marked HS a medication is administered? correct answerAt Bedtime If marked AC a medication is administered? correct answerBefore Meals If marked PC a medication is administered? correct answerAfter Meals If marked PO a medication should be given by which route? correct answerOrally (by mouth) If marked R a medication should be given by which route? correct answerRectally If marked IV a medication should be given by which route? correct answerIntravenously If marked IM a medication should be given by which route? correct answerIntramuscularly If marked OD a medication should be given by which route? correct answerRight Eye If marked OS a medication should be given by which route? correct answerLeft Eye If marked OU a medication should be given by which route? correct answerBoth Eyes If marked AD a medication should be given by which route? correct answerRight Ear If marked AS a medication should be given by which route? correct answerLeft Ear If marked AU a medication should be given by which route? correct answerBoth Ears Quality Indicator sentinel health event signified by QI 11? correct answerPrevalence of Fecal Impaction Quality Indicator sentinel health event signified by QI 15? correct answerPrevalence of Dehydration Quality Indicator sentinel health event signified by QI 24? correct answerPrevalence of Stage 1-4 Pressure Ulcers Quality Indicators (QI) will be flagged at what percentage? correct answer90% Percentile (the higher the % the worse the flag) Activities of Daily Living (ADL) include? (5 areas) correct answerAmbulation/Locomotion, Eating, Toileting, Grooming/Personal Hygiene/Bathing, and Communicating How are Controlled Substances rated? correct answerOn a Schedule from 1 to 5. The higher the # the more controlled the substance. What controls are necessary for #2 scheduled substance? correct answerMust have Separate Locked Storage. Must be Accounted for Each Shift. If an applicant isn't hired how long must their application be kept in file? correct answer1 Year How many hours of In-Service must C.N.A.'s have each year? correct answer12 hours How long can aides work before they become certified? correct answer4 Months (i.e.. They are going through classes or waiting to take a test for certification) A facility must give how many days notice to a Union for a desired contract change? correct answer90 Days A Union must give how many days notice before a strike? correct answer10 Days An I-9 must be retained for how long? correct answer3 years from the date of hire or until 1 year after termination (whichever is later) Employees returning from Military leave must apply to return to work within how many days of discharge? correct answer90 Days What does FMLA stand for? correct answerFamily and Medical Leave Act What benefits does FMLA provide? correct answer12 Weeks unpaid leave How many days notice must an employee give to go out on FMLA? correct answer30 Days Notice An accidental death must be reported to OSHA within what time frame? correct answerWithin 8 hours Type of leadership known as Top down leadership? correct answerAutocratic Balance sheet is made up off which three items? correct answerAssets, Liabilities, and Owners Equity (all on a particular date) An Income Statement shows? correct answerRevenues and Expenses Liabilities that may or may not be incurred by a facility depending on the outcome of a future event? correct answerContingent Liabilities (ex. Court Case) A fixed daily payment? correct answerPer Diem Residents funds in excess of what amount must be kept in an interest bearing account? correct answerMedicaid- $50; Medicare-$100 (Cash + Current Receivables) / Current Liabilities = correct answerAcid Test Ratio Current Assets / Current Liabilities correct answerCurrent Ratio Under double entry rules increases in assets and expenses are recorded as? correct answerDebits Under double entry rules decreases in assets and expenses are recorded as? correct answerCredits Under double entry rules increases in Liability, Revenue and Capital accounts are recorded as? correct answerCredits Under double entry rules decreases in Liability, Revenue and Capital accounts are recorded as? correct answerDebits Services which are not generally provided to most residents and which may be separately billable? correct answerAncillary Services (ex. Labs, Radiology, Pharmacy Services, and Rehab Therapies) Thresholds may not rise over? correct answer1/4 Inch What is the acceptable air temperature range in a facility? correct answer71 - 81 Degrees Fahrenheit Soiled Linen carts should be decontaminated how often? correct answerWeekly (minimum) or ASAP when visibly contaminated. A Hazard posed by medications is a? correct answerHealth Hazard (Chemical) A Hazard posed by surroundings is a? correct answerPhysical Hazard How often must fire drills be performed? correct answerQuarterly (4 times a year for each shift) What is the minimum width of egress doors? correct answer32 Inches How often must the QA Committee meet? correct answerQuarterly The QA Committee meeting must include whom? correct answerDON, a Physician, and Three other Staff Members A resident's room must have at least how much useable space? correct answer80 .. Minimum area in a single (private) resident room? correct answer100 .. For Profit Organizations are governed by? correct answerA Board of Directors Non-Profit Organizations are governed by? correct answerA Board of Trustees What are the 5 levels of needs in Maslow's Hierarchy? correct answer1) Food (physiological); 2) Safety; 3) Love; 4) Power (esteem); 5) Self-Actuating Needs (ex. Fulfilling ones potential) Theory X advocates? correct answerThe use of Fear of Punishment to motivate (assumes employees are inherently lazy and dislike work) Theory Y advocates? correct answerRewards employees for accomplishing goals (assumes employees like work as much as play) Theory Z advocates? correct answerParticipation in Nature. Employees have input into how their work is done and how decisions are made. What does Herzberg's Two Factor Theory teach regarding employees negative feelings about work? correct answerGenerally associated with the environment in which they are working. What does Herzberg's Two Factor Theory teach regarding employees positive feelings about work? correct answerWhen employees feel good about work they associate it with the work itself. Herzberg's dissatisfaction factor equates to? correct answerHygiene Factors (ex. Status, Job security, salary, fringe benefits, work conditions) Herzberg's satisfaction factor equates to? correct answerMotivators (ex. Challenging work, recognition, responsibility) Type of authority characterized by direct supervision over a subordinate? correct answerLine Authority Type of authority characterized by advisory capacity? correct answerStaff Authority The Safety Medical Devices Act requires that a serious injury or death be reported to whom and when? correct answerIncidents resulting from medical devices causing death or serious injury must be reported to SMD within 24 hours and to the FDA within 10 days. The Fair Labor Standards Act requires overtime be computed how and what rate? correct answerOT computed at 1 1/2 times the regular pay rate. Based on 14 day period with any time over 8 hrs daily and over 80 hrs in the 14 day period being overtime. To avoid retraining and a competency evaluation program a C.N.A. must work continuously for how long? correct answer24 Consecutive Months What does QAC stand for? correct answerQuality Assurance Committee The use of 9 or more medications for a given resident? correct answerPolypharmacy OT? correct answerOccupational Therapy PT? correct answerPhysical Therapy ST? correct answerSpeech Therapy What is the Medicare definition of Hospice Care? correct answerSupportive care provided to terminally ill patients and their families in the final 6 months of a patients life. Palliative Care is defined as? correct answerManagement and support provided for reduction or abatement of pain. Doesn't include treatment to cure medical condition or to artificially prolong life. The Age Discrimination Act protects employees in what age group? correct answer40 to 70 years old. How often must form 941 be filed by employers? correct answerQuarterly, Form 941 is the Employers Quarterly Federal Tax Return What information is included in Form 941? correct answerAmount witheld for federal income taxes and the employer's & employee's share of FICA and Medicare taxes. Residents paying in this manner may be billed in advance? correct answerSelf pay residents (third party programs may not be billed in advance) Residents must be notified when their account rises to within what amount of the resource limit the state has established? correct answerWithin $200 of the limit (Cash + Marketable Securities) / ((Total Operating Expenses - Depreciation) / 365) = correct answerDays of Cash Days of Cash correct answer(Cash + Marketable Securities) / ((Total Operating Expenses - Depreciation) / 365) = Net Resident Accounts Receivable from all Sources / (Net Patient Revenue / 356) = correct answerDays in Resident Accounts Receivable Outstanding Accounts Receivable / (3 month net revenue / total days in 3 month period) = correct answerDSO (Daily Sales Outstanding) DSO (Daily Sales Outstanding) correct answerOutstanding Accounts Receivable / (3 month net revenue / total days in 3 month period) = The operating budget is composed of what two categories? correct answerRevenue and Expense Categories The type of budget that projects cash inflows and outflows? correct answerCash Budget The type of budget that reflects long-term capital decisions? correct answerCapital Budget The organizations expected financial condition if the budgeted amounts are realized? correct answerPro Forma Statement Liquid assets include? correct answerShort term notes, cash, and accounts receivable Where must Sharps containers be provided? correct answerin the Laundry Room and Every Med Cart What space must be provided below automatic sprinkler heads? correct answer18 inches (items may not be stored above 18 inches below the sprinkler heads) Building additions must be separated by a fire barrier with at least the following rating? correct answer2 hours Hot food should be served at what temperature? correct answer140 F Which federal agency mandated the RAI (Resident Assessment Instrument)? correct answerHCFA (Health Care Financing Administration) preferred term in now CMS (Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services) Is the administrator typically a primary interdisciplinary team member? correct answerNo Drugs that have a high tendency for abuse and no medical use? correct answerSchedule 1 (ex. Marijuana, Heroin, Ecstasy, LSD, etc.) Drugs that have a high tendency for abuse, may have an acceptable medical use, and can be available by prescription? correct answerSchedule 2 (ex. Cocaine, Opium, Morphine, Fentanyl, Amphetamines, etc.) Drugs with less potential for addiction and have a currently accepted medical use? correct answerSchedule 3 (ex. Anabolic Steroids, Codeine, Ketamine, etc.) Drugs with low potential for abuse and limited addictive properties and a current accepted medical use? correct answerSchedule 4 (ex. Valium, Xanax, Phenobarbital, Rohypnol) Drugs with lowest potential for abuse, current accepted medical use, often don't require a prescription? correct answerSchedule 5 (ex. Cough suppressants with Codeine) Under the ADA (Americans with Disabilities Act) what item is not a disability? correct answerIlliteracy - Not having learned to read The Pregnancy Discrimination Act is an amendment to what other act? correct answerThe Civil Rights Act Fringe benefits are typically outline in? correct answerPersonnel Policies The ERISA (Employee Retirement Income Security Act) is enforced by which agency? correct answerEEOC (Equal Employment Opportunity Commission) What must be done after entering a transaction in the journal and posting it to the ledger? correct answerPeriodically balance each account What terms are used to refer to inventory? correct answerLIFO, FIFO, Physical, & Perpetual (Posting is Not) FUTA refers to? correct answerFederal Unemployment Tax Act (unemployment tax) An invoice is usually a? correct answerList A current trial balance includes? correct answerDebits, Credits, Names of Accounts (not zero balance) How much space must be between beds in multibed rooms? correct answer3 Feet What agency prepared "standard precautions" procedures? correct answerCDC (Centers for Disease Control and Prevention) What entity establishes the resident to bathroom/toilet ratio? correct answerThe State A fire that is out of control is referred to as a? correct answerFlashover Two entities that have established regulations relative to requirements for emergency electrical power? correct answerNFPA (National Fire Protection Association) and OBRA (Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act) Must a totally Private Pay Health Care Facility be licensed? correct answerYes What are the two most important risk management tools? correct answerEducation and Quality Control In civil law a Curator is? correct answerA Guardian What temperature should dishwasher rinse water be? correct answer180F A group of symptoms that occur together? correct answerA syndrome Under OBRA (Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act) the medical director is responsible for the implementation of? correct answerDietary, Admission, and Infection Control Policies How long must medical records be maintained? correct answer5 years after discharge or 3 years after a discharged resident reaches the age of 18. Examples of Schedule 2 drugs? correct answerMorphine, Codeine, Ritalin, and Nembutal, etc. The Comprehensive Drug Abuse Prevention and Control Act established the? correct answerThe 5 Schedules of drugs. A modality is a? correct answerSpecific Treatment When must a continuation of employee insurance be offered under COBRA? correct answerEmployee retirement, marriage dissolved, employee fired (not if the employee's work hours are reduced) (required staff / provided staff) * 100 = correct answerEmployee Productivity A declining proration of asset cost is defined as? correct answerAmortization The income of a proprietary corporation remaining after all costs, taxes, and dividends is defined as? correct answerRetained Earnings What is the primary source of payment in a nursing facility? correct answerMedicaid To what does a chart of accounts compare? correct answerTable of Contents Employees pay what percentage of the FICA cost? correct answer50%, the employer pays the other 50% The percentage of accounts outstanding for more than 60 days should never exceed? correct answer5% All corridor doors must have a solid banded-wood core or an equivalent with what fire protection rating? correct answer1 1/2 hours What is the national standard for budgeting the time required for cleaning a facility? correct answerOne hour per day per housekeeping employee per 1,000 . The handrails in stairwells must extend beyond the first and last steps by? correct answer12 inches What type of fires involve electrical equipment? correct answerClass C Fires Class A fire extinguishers must be located every? correct answer75 feet of travel distance When must OSHA accident reports be posted? correct answerThe entire month of February (every year) What act established the position of long term care ombudspersons? correct answerThe Older Americans Act of 1965 The interdisciplinary team must include? correct answerAttending Physician Physical restraints must be monitored? correct answerEvery 30 minutes How long must vegetables be boiled to kill off the Botulism causing bacteria? correct answer20 Minutes When meat is cooked too high it can shrink by what factor? correct answer35% Quality improvement is defined as? correct answerThe development and maintenance of quality care programs. Quality control relates to policies and procedures designed to? correct answerMaintain quality care. When must the admission medical evaluation (physical examination) be performed? correct answerWithin 48 hours of admission unless such examination was performed within 5 days prior to the admission. What are the maximum forward and side reaches for switches and controls? correct answerForward Reach - 48 inches and Side Reach - 54 inches EEOC enforces which three acts? correct answerEqual Pay Act, Title 7 of the Civil Rights Act, and the Age Discrimination in Employment Act (not the Fair Labor Standards Act). OSHA is under the? correct answerU.S. Department of Labor Under COBRA an employee has how many days to elect to continue coverage? correct answer60 Days Air temperature should be measured how many feet above the floor in resident rooms and dining areas? correct answer3 Feet Walks must be how wide? correct answer36 Inches According to Medical Device Reporting user facilities must keep records for? correct answer2 years After interruption of normal power the emergency generator must start and transfer power within? correct answer10 seconds A toilet seat for the disabled must be how high? correct answer17 to 19 inches from the floor Bathroom and toilet doors must be how wide? correct answer32 inches According to the Life Safety Code no room shall be more than what distance from an exit? correct answer100 Feet Title 18 of the Social Security Act is basically an? correct answerInsurance Program Title 15 of the Social Security Act is a? correct answerAssistance Program (based on need) What items must be provided to Medicare and Medicaid residents without cost? correct answerShaving cream, dental floss, deodorant, and combs All residents must receive a physical exam how often? correct answerAt least every 3 months When a resident has been in bed all of the time during a 7 days period, other than for treatment, they are deemed to be? correct answerBedfast A comprehensive care plan must be completed within how many days once the comprehensive assessment is made? correct answer7 Days One who dies leaving a will? correct answerTestator The sum of all the activities which create the desired and needed changes in quality care are? correct answerQuality Improvement Who determines if it is safe/unsafe for a resident to self-administer drugs? correct answerInterdisciplinary Team An admission assessment is to be complete with how many hours of admission? correct answer8 Hours (RN's responsibility) What is a drug holiday? correct answerA break from the drug to see how the patient responds To what does the physicians desk reference relate? correct answerDrugs Can a pharmacist order that a certain lab be taken? correct answerYes, the physician is involved but doesn't necessarily have to agree with the pharmacist. When must I-9 forms be completed for new employees? correct answerWithin 3 business days of start of employment What may an administrator ask if employees attempt to organize a labor union? correct answerIf the employee has signed a union card When must all investigations of abuse be reported to the proper state authorities? correct answerWithin 5 working days Under COBRA when does coverage begin? correct answerCoverage begins on the date coverage would otherwise have ended Under COBRA how long may coverage be extended? correct answer18 months Whom is most affected by Title 1 of the ADA? correct answerThe health care facility administrator What is the typical cost of fringe benefits for a an employee? correct answer15-30% of wages What does the Wagner Act guarantee? correct answerBargaining rights for employees A phrase meaning let the employer answer for the acts of his/her employees? correct answerRespondeat Superior Under OSHA what is the maximum penalty for each "serious violation"? correct answer$7,000 Under OSHA what is the maximum penalty for falsifying records? correct answer$70,000 Generally, cost reports are due within how many days of the end of the fiscal year? correct answer90 Days Journals include the following? correct answerPayroll, investments, cash receipts (not depreciation schedule) What are three typical types of ledgers? correct answerAccounts Payable (ap), Accounts Receivable (ar), and General The minimum square footage calculation in a room excludes the following areas? correct answerToilet, Closets, and Wardrobe (the area the bed occupies is included in the . calculation. The travel distance between Class B or C fire extinguishers may not be more than how many feet? correct answer50 Feet How must light must a reading light at the bed yield in illumination? correct answer30 Foot Candles Handicap parking must be at least how wide? correct answer13 Feet What document establishes the fire rating of building materials? correct answerThe Life Safety Code How are ANSI (American National Standards Institute) standards enforced? correct answerAgencies within the individual states According to OSHA what is the color for safety and first aid? correct answerGreen A resident who dies with leaving a will is said to have died how? correct answerIntestate What must be provided to a resident prior to transfer? correct answerA written notice detailing right to refuse transfer, the transfer location, a written statement letting the resident know they can appeal the transfer to the state. Will Medicare pay for adult day care? correct answerNo, Medicare does not pay for adult day care What is significant weight loss? correct answer5% in a month; 7.5% in 3 months; or 10% in 6 months A facility must be free of med errors greater than what percentage? correct answer5% or greater How many hours must an employee work to be full time? correct answer35+ hours a week Food should be served at what temperatures? correct answer140F for hot items and at or below 41F for refrigerated items The freezer should be kept at or below what temperature? correct answer0 F The Refrigerator should be kept below what temperature? correct answer41 F What water temperature is required when washing dishes? correct answer140 F What water temperature is required when rinsing dishes? correct answer180 F, if washing manually hot immersion for at least 30 seconds at 170 F is OK How often must a physician visit a patient during the first 90 days? correct answerEvery 30 days, visits are considered timely if they occur no later than 10 days after the date the visit was required. How often must a physician visit a patient after the first 90 days? correct answerAt least every 60 days, visits are considered timely is they occur no later than 10 days after the date required. How often must dental services be provide? correct answerAnnual Inspection How many hours of state approved training are required for a C.N.A.? correct answer75 hours of training C.N.A. must undergo retraining and testing if they have been out of paid aide position for how long? correct answer2 Years Actual organ loss or failure is termed? correct answerImpairment The failure to function at a "normal" level is termed? correct answerDisability To be disadvantaged for fulfilling customary roles is termed? correct answerHandicap List the 4 unnecessary drugs in Category 4? correct answer1)Benzodiazepine or other anxialytic/sedative drugs; 2)Long acting benzodiazepines; 3)sedative hypnotic drugs; 4)anti psychotic drugs Benzodiazepine or other anxialytic/sedative drugs (Category 4 drugs) are used to? correct answerControl anxiety or agitation Long-acting benzodiazepines (Category 4 drugs) are used only when? correct answerShort acting ones have failed Sedative hypnotic drugs (Category 4 drugs) are used for? correct answerFor sleep induction. Anti psychotic drugs (Category 4 drugs) are used for? correct answerTreating organic mental syndromes. There must be at least how many windows in a resident room? correct answerAt least One, may not have more than 4 windows. A condition continuing over a long period of time or recurring frequently? correct answerChronic Condition A condition that often begins inconspicuously and symptoms are less pronounced than acute conditions? correct answerChronic Condition A disease the happens suddenly and lasts a short time? correct answerAcute Condition A temporary disorder? correct answerAcute Condition The 5 steps of the grieving process? correct answerDenial - Anger - Bargaining - Depression - Acceptance What are the qualifications of an Activities Director? correct answerMeet state regulations, be eligible for certification by accrediting body. To direct activities, have 2 years of experience within the past 5 years, or be an occupational therapist or occupational therapy assistant. PASARR (preadmission screening and an annual review) determines whether what type of patients may be admitted? correct answerPatients with active diagnoses of Mental Illness or Mental Retardation. Patients must have a primary diagnose requiring skilled nursing care to be admitted. Exceptions are made for organic disorders (ex. Alzheimer's, multi-infarct dementia, and similar senile dementias). Second exception made for persons who have lived in the facility for 30 months or more. A drug (ex. Aspirin) that reduces or eliminates pain without affecting consciousness? correct answerAnalgesic Progressive stiffening in the muscles, tendons, and ligaments that surround the joints? correct answerContracture Elderly or Elder refer to persons over what age? correct answer60 years old. Frail Elderly refer to persons over what age? correct answerHealthy persons over 75 years of age. A decrease in density of bones causing structural weakness throughout the skeleton? correct answerOsteoporosis The most common form of arthritis? correct answerOsteoarthritis The second most common type of arthritis? correct answerRheumatoid Arthritis When calculating staffing requirements what is the general guide for C.N.A's and Licensed nurses? correct answer70% C.N.A.'s and 30% Licensed Nurses A document that enables a manager to understand what kind of applicant would be best suited for a job? correct answerJob Profile Unemployment is paid to laid off workers for how many weeks? correct answer26 Weeks (Now 99 weeks???) To decrease unemployment costs what must an administrator do? correct answerDocumentation of progressive discipline steps taken to terminate the employee Under the Civil Rights Act this occurs when the selection rate for any protected group is less than 80% of the rate of the non-protected group? correct answerAdverse Impact The extent to which a selection tool measures a trait or behavior believed important to performing a job? correct answerConstruct Validity The degree to which a test interview procedure or other selection tool measures the skills, knowledge or performance requirements actually needed in the position for which the applicant is considered? correct answerContent Validity Act intended to cover all employment of 15 or more persons and numerous other groups and educational institutions? correct answerEqual Employment Act of 1972 (An amendment to Title 7 of the Civil Rights Act of 1964) The organization created by the Civil Rights Act of 1964 to carry out the provisions of the act? correct answerEqual Employment Opportunities Commission (EEOC) The error by supervisors using rating scales when consistently giving only moderate scores to employees on performance appraisals, regardless of whether the employee is a poor or an outstanding performer? correct answerError of Central Tendency: Minimum wage, overtime, standard workweek definitions, equal pay, child labor, and record keeping requirements are set by? correct answerFair Labor Standards Act To be eligible for FMLA (Family Leave Act) and employee must have worked how many hours in the last 12 months? correct answer1250 Hours Fringe Benefits are defined as? correct answerCompensation other than cash wages paid to workers. (ex. Health Insurance) An error made by supervisors using rating scales who value one particular type of job behavior and permit the presence or absence of that one trait to color several or most other trait ratings. correct answerHalo Effect A job is defined as? correct answerA collection of tasks assigned to an employee The process of defining a position in term of the tasks or behaviors required, specifying the qualifications of the employee assigned those duties? correct answerJob Analysis The practice of posting available jobs on bulletin boards and encouraging employees to apply for openings? correct answerJob Bidding A statement of the tasks to be done based on the job analysis, usually including a list of duties and responsibilities of the position in order of importance? correct answerJob Description A group of two or more jobs that have similar duties? correct answerJob Family A method of establishing wage rates for jobs, based on comparing all jobs in the organization to a touchstone job in the facility, such as nursing? correct answerKey Job Comparison Consistently giving high ratings to all employees in an attempt to avoid conflict? correct answerLeniency Error The person responsible for performing most the personnel functions, who is delegated authority by the administrator to make decisions on his/her behalf and authority to commit facility resources. Often defined as the lowest level of management which has only workers under its direction? correct answerLine Manager Favoring one's family members in hiring practices? correct answerNepotism An advisory role not having line authority? correct answerStaff Function A coordinated and aggregated series of work elements used to produce an output? correct answerTask Review of job descriptions and activities essential for performing each job? correct answerTask Analysis Establishment of pay grades and rates by employers to both achieve equity and offer some flexibility to supervisors in setting an employee's wage? correct answerWage Class Determination of wage rates by considering the labor market, prevailing wage rates, cost of living, ability to pay, collective bargaining agreements, individual bargaining agreements and value of the job? correct answerWage Mix Employees must receive their W-2 no late than what date each year? correct answerJanuary 31 (each year) How often must individual resident financial reports be given to residents or their designated party? correct answerQuarterly When must a resident's account balance be turned over upon their death? correct answerWithin 30 days after the death In which type of accounting are revenues recorded when they are earned, and expenses recorded when they are incurred, regardless of when cash is received or paid out? correct answerAccrual Basis of Accounting Expenses that have been incurred but not yet paid? correct answerAccrued Expenses Revenues that have been earned but not yet billed? correct answerAccrued Revenues Assets can be found in which financial document? correct answerBalance Sheet Assets are general classified into what two groups? correct answerCurrent Assets and Non-Current Assets Non-Current assets include? correct answerLong-term investments, property, plant, and equipment (PPE), etc. Current Assets include? correct answerCash, other assets to be converted to cash, or sold or consumed in business operations, within one year of the balance sheet date. Investments that have a maturity of over one year from the balance sheet date? correct answerLong-Term Investments A system of accounting in which revenues are recorded when cash is received, and expenses are recorded when cash is paid out? correct answerCash Basis of Accounting (not allowable with Medicare and Medicaid) A financial statement that shows cash receipts and disbursements leading to a net change in cash in a given period? correct answerCash Flow Statement A financial statement that provides information for planning short-term cash needs? correct answerCash Flow Statement Practice by health care providers of charging private-pay patients more than the actual costs of their care in order to compensate for shortfalls in reimbursement for patients covered by Medicaid and other government programs when those programs pay less than actual costs? correct answerCost Shifting The three ratios that measure the liquidity of a business entity? (its ability to pay off its short term obligations) correct answerCurrent Ratio, Quick Ratio, and Acid Test Ratio The current ratio is? correct answerCurrent Assets / Current Liabilities The quick ratio is? correct answer(Current Assets - Inventories) / Current Liabilities The acid test ratio is? correct answer(Cash + Short-Term Securities) / Current Liabilities The simplest account structure in accounting is the? correct answerT Account (account name on top of the T, debits on the left side, and credits on the right side. In T Accounts - increases in asset accounts are? correct answerDebits In T Accounts - decreases in asset accounts are? correct answerCredits In T Accounts - increases in liability accounts are? correct answerCredits In T Accounts - decreases in liability accounts are? correct answerDebits In T Accounts - increases in capital accounts are? correct answerCredits In T Accounts - decreases in capital accounts are? correct answerDebits In T Accounts - increases in revenue accounts are? correct answerCredits In T Accounts - decreases in revenue accounts are? correct answerDebits In T Accounts - increases in expense accounts are? correct answerDebits In T Accounts - decreases in expense accounts are? correct answerCredits Shipping arrangement under which the seller of the goods bears the costs of transportation to the buyer's location? correct answerF.O.B. (Freight on Board) Destination Shipping arrangement under which the buyer of the goods pays a separate charge for the transportation costs. The goods while in transit are the property of the buyer, who thus bears financial liability for the goods if they are lost in transit? correct answerF.O.B. (Freight on Board) Shipping Point Book which summarizes all the entries in each of the journals for an accounting period, for the purpose of keeping a continuous record of account balances and arriving at a trial balance? correct answerGeneral Ledger Has management responsibility for providing comprehensive health care services on a prepayment basis? correct answerHMO (Health Management Organization) A Form 1099-MISC must be issued when an independent contractor is paid more than this amount during a single year? correct answer$600 A document that shows the details of a sale and usually includes (or implies) a request for payment? correct answerInvoice An account that is debited and credited due to the transactions in chronological order? correct answerJournal List the types of journals a facility may keep? correct answerCash receipts, cash disbursements, billings, accounts payable, purchases. A general journal is used for entries that do not properly belong in any of the other journals, and for adjusting entries. Reasons for adjusting Journals include? correct answerEntries for depreciation, prepaid expenses, and inventory usage, etc. List the two types of leases? correct answerCapital Lease and Operating Lease (also a third kind, triple net lease) A lease that is recorded by the lessee on the balance sheet as an asset and a corresponding borrowing of funds. Depreciation is treated as an expense and interest payments are deductible. At the end of its term, the lessee becomes the owner of the asset or has the option to purchase it for a nominal amount of money? correct answerCapital Lease A type of lease that is a rental or usage agreement which is not shown on the balance sheet. Rentals are treated as an expense, and ownership does not transfer to the lessee? correct answerOperating Lease Charged with identifying and eliminating fraud, abuse, and waste in Medicare, Medicaid, and other DHHS programs? correct answerOffice of Inspector General Process of selling a/r, as a means of short-term financing. When this is done "without recourse" the seller transfers not only the receivables, but also the risk of default? correct answerFactoring of Receivables Use of a/r as security or collateral for a loan. When this is done "with recourse", the borrower remains responsible for collecting the receivables but promises to use the proceeds for repaying the debt? correct answerPledging of Receivables Transferring entries from a journal to an account in a ledger at the end of an accounting period? correct answerPosting A financial statement that treats hypothetical events as though they had actually happened, and hence includes fictitious data in whole or in part? correct answerPro Forma Statement Current Medicare option for skilled nursing facilities that furnish fewer than 1,500 days of Medicare utilization in the prior year. Such SNFs can elect a predetermined fixed reimbursement for routine service and capital costs and file an abbreviated cost report? correct answerPPS (Prospective Payment System) for skilled nursing facilities Annual Net Income / Total Shareholders Equity = correct answerROE (Return on Equity), a means of assessing a companies profitability. Funds regularly set aside by a firm to redeem its bonds periodically? correct answerSinking Funds Explains how the cash balance has changed between the beginning and end of a fiscal period. It reports cash receipts and cash disbursements in three categories of activities: operating, investing and financing? correct answerStatement of Cash Flows In what three areas does the Statement of Cash Flows show receipts and disbursements? correct answerOperating, Investing, and Financing Information in this statement can be useful in assessing the entity's ability to generate positive future net cash flows, meet its financial obligations and pay dividends? correct answerStatement of Cash Flows Sub acute care is a comprehensive inpatient program designed for individuals with three attributes? correct answer1) Has an acute event as a result of an illness, injury, or exacerbation of a disease process; 2) Has a determined course of treatment; 3) does not require intensive diagnostic and/or invasive procedures. Sub acute medical and rehabilitative programs in nursing facilities may include specialty programs for? correct answerPost-Operative Recovery, Extensive Wound Care, Ventilator Support, Brain Injury Care, Rehabilitation, Complex Medical Care, and Respiratory or Pulmonary Management. Current Assets - Current Liabilities = correct answerWorking Capital Each resident must have a private closet which includes? correct answerClothes Racks and Shelves accessible to the resident During what hours may fire drills be announced by coded message rather than audible alarm? correct answer9pm to 6am Soiled linen and trash collection containers must be limited to a capacity of? correct answer32 gallons within an 64 square foot area. Portable Heating devices are prohibited except for use in? correct answerNonsleeping staff areas where the heating elements do not exceed 212 F Determining the means of egress requirements based on building use and .? correct answerOccupant Load Means of egress in health care sleeping areas must be adequate for one person per how many square feet? correct answer120 . Means of egress in health care inpatient treatment areas must be adequate for one person per how many square feet? correct answer240 . When are locks permitted on patient sleeping room doors? correct answerLocks are not permitted on patient sleeping room doors except for a lock that would prevent patients from accidentally wandering into an isolation room, but the patient in the isolation room would be able to exit the room w/o use of a key or tool. Interior Stairs - what is the minimum clear width of the stairs? correct answer44 Inches, except for handrails not to exceed 3 1/2 inches at or below handrail height on each side. Interior Stairs - What are the maximum and minimum riser heights? correct answerMax Height 7 inches, Minimum Height 4 inches Interior Stairs - What is the minimum tread depth? correct answer11 Inches Interior Stairs - What is the minimum head room? correct answer6 feet 8 inches Interior Stairs - What is the maximum height difference between landings? correct answer12 Feet Handrails - What is the required height? correct answer34 inches to 38 inches, above the surface of the tread measured vertically to the top of the rail from the leading edge of the tread. Handrails - What clearance is required from the wall? correct answer1 1/2 inches, more if the surface is rough. Handrails - Where must they be placed? correct answerOn both sides of all sets of stairs. Stairwells - What fire resistance is required? correct answer2 Hour Fire Rating Stairwells - What fire protection rating is required for doors entering or exiting stairwells? correct answer1 1/2 Hours Fire Rating Horizontal Exit - What is the minimum . per patient that must be provided on both sides? correct answer30 . per patient Horizontal Exit - How many doors are required? correct answerA single door may be permitted provided the exits serves one direction, two doors are required if the exit serves both directions (min door width 41.5 inches.) Horizontal Exit - What is the minimum door width? correct answer41.5 Inches Ramp - a ramp with a slope of 20-50 degrees is a? correct answerStairway Ramp - a ramp with a slope of 7-20 degrees is a? correct answerStairway and Landing Ramp - a ramp with a slope of under 7 degrees is a? correct answerRamp Ramp - what are the minimum requirements/dimensions for a ramp? correct answerSlip resistant, clear width of at least 44 inches, maximum rise of 30 feet per ramp run. Aisles - must be how wide? correct answer8 feet wide. What is the minimum number of exits? correct answer2 Exits Exits - What is the maximum allowable distance between the entrance door into any room and an exit access? correct answer150 Feet Exits - What is the maximum allowable distance between any point in a patient room and an exit access? correct answer200 Feet Exits - What is the maximum allowable distance between any point in a room and the exit from that room? correct answer50 Feet Exits - What are the requirements for illumination of the means of egress? correct answerThe illumination must be continuous, have at least 1-foot-candle measured at the floor of the exit access, the exit, and the exit discharge. Emergency Lighting - May it be battery powered if? correct answerIf they meet the candlelight requirements for a period of 1 1/2 hours. Automotive type batteries are not acceptable. Exits - What are the minimum letter height and width requirements for exit signs? correct answerSigns must have letters 6 inches high and 3/4 inch wide. Exits - What is the maximum allowable distance between exit signs? correct answer100 Feet When must emergency power come on and how long must it last should a power failure occur? correct answerMust come on in 10 seconds and last for a minimum of 1 1/2 hours. Vertical openings must have a minimum fire protection rating at least? correct answer1 Hour, 2 Hours if the building is more than 3 stories. Smoke detectors should be located no more than how many feet apart? correct answer30 Feet Smoke detectors should not be more than how many feet from any wall? correct answer15 Feet What is the minimum travel distance to class A, B, and C extinguishers? correct answerClass A - 75 feet, Class B - 50 feet, Class C - 50 feet What is the maximum allowable sill height of a window? correct answer36 inches above the floor. Title 18 of the Social Security Act (Medicare) is a social insurance program administered by? correct answerHFCA (Health Care Financing Administration) Who is eligible for Medicare? correct answerAutomatic eligibility is limited to persons over 65 years of age who are eligible for Social Security cash benefits and are enrolled in the program and to persons under 65 after they are eligible for Medicare Part B without paying premiums if they have received Social Security Disability or Railroad Retirement Board benefits for 24 consecutive months (any person over the age of 65 may purchase Medicare Part B regardless of whether or not they have paid into Social Security System. Persons of any age may receive Medicare A without paying premiums automatically if they have had a kidney transplant or are on kidney dialysis. All enrollees are entitled to Part A but Part B is voluntary and requires a monthly premium as well as an annual deductible. Title 14 or Medicaid recipients must meet the following eligibility requirements? correct answerRecipients must meet the eligibility requirements for either Aid To Families With Dependent Children (AFDC), or Supplemental Security Income (SSI). AFDC covers primarily dependent children living with one parent only; and the parent. SSI covers the aged and disabled. A federal agency that administers Medicare as well as federal guidelines for Medicaid? correct answerHFCA (Health Care Financing Administration) It is mandatory that every health care facility offer the HBV (Hepatitis B Vaccine) to whom? correct answerNursing, Housekeeping, and Laundry Staff (an employees at risk) When is recordkeeping of Occupational Illness and Injuries required? correct answerFor facilities with 11 or more employees. General keep records on problems that require more than just first aid. To become certified a facility must? correct answerComplete a Life Safety Code Survey and a Standard Survey A resident centered outcome oriented inspection? correct answerOBRA Survey A report from the state surveyors which shows recent survey deficiency trending for that facility? correct answerOSCAR (an administrator may request a copy of the most recent OSCAR) Survey - the effect on resident outcomes? correct answerSeverity Level Survey - the number of residents potentially or actually affected? correct answerScope Level Survey - Issued when a facility is found to be in substantial compliance; a POC (plan of correction) is not required, but a facility is expected to correct the deficiencies? correct answerNotice of Isolated Deficiencies Survey - Must be completed to reply to 2567? correct answerPOC (Plan of Correction) Survey - Issued when a facility is found to be noncompliant? correct answerHFCA - 2567 (requires a POC / plan of correction) Survey - Severity Level 1Tags? correct answerLetters A,B,C - deficiencies in this range are not serious. No actual harm or potential to cause harm, just a minor negative impact on residents. Survey - Severity Level 2 tags? correct answerLetters D,E,F - These tags are cited when there is noncompliance with no actual harm to residents but possibility of minimal harm to residents. Survey - Severity Level 3 tags? correct answerLetters G,H,I - Actual harm has occurred. Harm can include, bruise, skin tear, or making a resident upset. Survey - Severity Level 4 tags? correct answerLetters J,K,L - Worst tags possible. Immediate jeopardy is possible. Survey - Remedy Category 1 includes? correct answerDirected plan of correction, state monitoring, and directed in service training Survey - Remedy Category 2 includes? correct answerDenial of payment for new admissions, denial of payments for all residents, civil monetary penalties of $50 to $3,000 per day. Survey - Remedy Category 3 includes? correct answerTemporary management, immediate termination from Medicare and Medicaid programs, and civil monetary penalties of $3,050 to $10,000 per day Managed care organizations are asking for this level of accreditation prior to contracting with the facility? correct answerJCAHO Accreditation (Joint Commission on Accreditation of Health Care Organizations) They are the preeminent accreditation agency for acute care hospital providers. Organization providing accreditation for medical rehabilitation programs? correct answerCARF (Commission on Accreditation of Rehab Facilities) What entity must decide questions involving the mission, organizational structure, personnel, budget and future direction of the facility. They have the power and the liability of the law behind them? correct answerGoverning Board The governing board has what two required duties? correct answer1) policy making; 2) appointing the administrator They give advice that does not have to be taken. They do not have the power or the liability of law behind them? correct answerAdvisory Boards An unincorporated business owned by an individual. The owner is responsible for both personal and business debts? correct answerSole Proprietorship Type of business where partners are personally liable for all of the business debt? correct answerPartnership A form of business that is incorporated under the laws of one of the states. There may be a single stockholder or thousands of holders. It is a separate legal entity from its owners and therefore the owners are not personally responsible for the corporate debts? correct answerCorporation What are the 5 functions of management? correct answerPlanning, Organization, Staffing, Leading (directing), and Controlling A principle that teaches anytime a higher paid employee makes a decision a lower paid employee can make out as well or better? correct answerThe Principle of the Economy of Action (facility pays more than it should)(she got a raise why shouldn't I) Who regulates the retention period of the medical records at a nursing facility? correct answerThe state in which the facility is located. Who regulates Medicaid benefits and eligibility requirements? correct answerThey are established by a combination of federal and state legislation, regulations, and programs. When a surveyor demands a list of all residents/room numbers indicating each resident's case mix category and special care needs, the facility must supply this information within what time frame? correct answer4 Hours