VASCULAR ARDMS BOARDS EXAM
DAVIES WITH 100% CORRECT
ANSWERS
What's the first major arterial branch of the aorta is the? correct answerInnominate artery or
brachiocephalic artery
The vertebral artery usually arises from the: correct answerSubclavian Artery
The incidence of new strokes per year is: correct answerfrom 500,000 to 700,000
The abbreviation TIA stands for: correct answerTransient Ischemic Attack
A TIA of the right anterior hemisphere of the brain will likely affect: correct answerThe left side of the
body - affects the side of the body opposite that of the ischemic hemisphere
Amaurosis Fugax related to an internal carotid lesion will cause: correct answerTemporary blindness or
shadowing of the ipsilateral eye. affects same side since thromboembolic activity from ulcerated
ipsilateral carotid atheroma is suspected
A transient ischemic attack: correct answerResolves within 24 hours. TIA often last just a few minutes
Simultaneous bilateral ocular symptoms in the patient with suspected cerebrovascular disease generally
originate form: correct answerThe vertebrobasilar arteries . usually originate in the posterior
circulation , as the visual cortex is in the occipital lobe. The specific binocular symptom of homonymous
hemianopia results from obstruction of a middle cerebral artery branch, not the vertebrobasilar system
What are symptoms when vertebrobasilar circulation is effected? correct answerVertigo, dizziness,
ataxia, or other bilateral or global symptoms .
,What are symptoms when anterior circulation is effected? correct answerFacial Asymmetry, unilateral
What accurately defines RIND also called stroke with recovery? correct answerA neurologic ischemic
deficit that resolves completely after 24 hours. Describes an intracranial ischemic event that does not
resolve within 24 hours but thereafter completely resolves.
A 56- year old patient reports loss of vision in her left eye two days ago, with total resolution in 10
minutes. Yesterday morning she developed weakness and numbness in her right hand and was unable
to hold her coffee cup. This afternoon her hand strength is about 90% normal, with normal sensation.
Clinically she has: correct answerStroke because it has persisted longer than 24 hours and has not
resolved completely
The infraorbital artery is a terminal branch of the: correct answerMaxillary Artery . It creates one of the
potential anastomoses with orbital branches that can provide collateral pathways in the even of carotid
obstruction
Amaurosis Fugax can be interpreted as a: correct answerTransient Ischemic Attack of the eye.
Dysphagia is : correct answerDifficulty swallowing. Symptom associated with vertebrobasilar
insufficiency.
A binocular disturbance that disrupts vision in half the visual field of both eyes is called: correct
answerHomonymous Hemianopia
Paresthesia refers to: correct answertingling sensation
A patient describes a 30-minute episode of garbled speech. This is called: correct answerDysphasia .
Aphasia is widely used as well but technically this is incorrect, since it means "absence of speech."
A right-handed patient experiences a 30-minute episode of dysphasia. Which area of circulation is
suspect? correct answerLeft hemisphere . The speech area of the cortex is in the temporal lobe of the
dominant hemisphere
,What is true regarding subclavian steal? correct answerIt is usually a harmless hemodynamic
phenomenon. It is caused by arterial obstruction proximal to the origin of the vertebral artery. This
creates an abnormal pressure gradient that pulls or "steals" flow from the vertebral artery to perfuse
the ipsilateral upper extremity.
Subclavian steal occurs: correct answermore often on left side .
A hemispheric stroke usually affects: correct answerThe middle cerebral artery distribution and the
contralateral side of the body
Stenosis of the following vessel presents the highest risk for a TIA: correct answerInternal Carotid Artery
The vertebral arteries branch from the subclavian arteries to unite and form the: correct answerBasilar
Artery . This system is called the vertebrobasilar system and is responsible for the circulation to the
posterior portion of the brain .
A decreased pulse at mid neck is suggestive of: correct answerCommon Carotid stenosis if the
contralateral pulse is normal. Sometimes the right neck pulse can feel reduced because of the larger
muscles overlying the carotid. Occasionally the right neck feels stronger due to tortuosity of the
common carotid Artery.
What is NOT true regarding carotid bruit? correct answerThe absence of a bruit rules out significant
stenosis.
What are bruits caused by? correct answerTurbulent flow. Presence of a bruit is significant, since there
is turbulent flow for some reason. The absence of a bruit does not rule out stenosis; severe stenosis may
not cause a bruit.
Bruits heard bilaterally, loudest low in the neck, are most likely caused by: correct answerAortic Valve
Stenosis. Aortic murmurs radiate distally, frequently into the low carotids.
A stronger pulse is palpated in the right neck than on the left. This could result from all the following
except: correct answerInnominate occlusion which would be expected to make the right carotid pulse
weaker, not stronger.
, What is true regarding the clinical detection of a bruit? correct answerIt means that turbulent flow
exists. It may be indicative of valvular dysfunction in the heart. This finding may be normal in parts of
some vessels and during periods of enhanced flow.
During ordinary auscultation of a carotid bifurcation, the detection of a bruit that extends into diastole
is: correct answerHighly significant for carotid artery stenosis or for any other arterial location. Perhaps
this is related to the fact that elevated end-diastolic velocities are suggestive of severe stenosis.
Which of these conditions is least likely to cause a bruit in the neck? correct answerCritical preocclusive
stenosis of the internal carotid artery. Bruits often disappear when the stenosis is very high-grade or
preocclusive.
Why are brachial blood pressures obtained bilaterally when evaluating a patient for cerebrovascular
disease? correct answerThe brachial blood pressures are compared to see if they are equal. If one
pressure is 15-20mmHg less than the other, subclavian steal is suspected on the side of the lower
pressure.
All of the following statements apply to pulsed-wave Doppler Except: correct answerThe beam is
continuously transmitted with intermittent reception according to vessel depth.
How is the signal transmitted with pulsed-wave Doppler? correct answerIn short bursts or pulses, and
the transducer "listens" for the reflected signal in between the transmitted pulses.
Loss of the spectral window with pulsed Doppler ultrasound occurs with: correct answerFlow turbulence
What is the spectral window? correct answerIs the blank area underneath the systolic peak on the
spectral waveform. It is filled in or "lost" when turbulent flow creates spectral broadening. Other
reasons for loss of the spectral window include overuse of Doppler gain and incorrect positioning of the
sample volume outside of the center streamline (depicting signals from the vessel wall or adjacent
slower moving blood flow).
The first intracranial branch of the internal carotid artery is the: correct answerOphthalmic artery. Even
though there is often a branch called the caroticotympanic artery, the ophthalmic artery is regarded as
the first major branch of the internal carotid artery. It is central to indirect physiological testing.
DAVIES WITH 100% CORRECT
ANSWERS
What's the first major arterial branch of the aorta is the? correct answerInnominate artery or
brachiocephalic artery
The vertebral artery usually arises from the: correct answerSubclavian Artery
The incidence of new strokes per year is: correct answerfrom 500,000 to 700,000
The abbreviation TIA stands for: correct answerTransient Ischemic Attack
A TIA of the right anterior hemisphere of the brain will likely affect: correct answerThe left side of the
body - affects the side of the body opposite that of the ischemic hemisphere
Amaurosis Fugax related to an internal carotid lesion will cause: correct answerTemporary blindness or
shadowing of the ipsilateral eye. affects same side since thromboembolic activity from ulcerated
ipsilateral carotid atheroma is suspected
A transient ischemic attack: correct answerResolves within 24 hours. TIA often last just a few minutes
Simultaneous bilateral ocular symptoms in the patient with suspected cerebrovascular disease generally
originate form: correct answerThe vertebrobasilar arteries . usually originate in the posterior
circulation , as the visual cortex is in the occipital lobe. The specific binocular symptom of homonymous
hemianopia results from obstruction of a middle cerebral artery branch, not the vertebrobasilar system
What are symptoms when vertebrobasilar circulation is effected? correct answerVertigo, dizziness,
ataxia, or other bilateral or global symptoms .
,What are symptoms when anterior circulation is effected? correct answerFacial Asymmetry, unilateral
What accurately defines RIND also called stroke with recovery? correct answerA neurologic ischemic
deficit that resolves completely after 24 hours. Describes an intracranial ischemic event that does not
resolve within 24 hours but thereafter completely resolves.
A 56- year old patient reports loss of vision in her left eye two days ago, with total resolution in 10
minutes. Yesterday morning she developed weakness and numbness in her right hand and was unable
to hold her coffee cup. This afternoon her hand strength is about 90% normal, with normal sensation.
Clinically she has: correct answerStroke because it has persisted longer than 24 hours and has not
resolved completely
The infraorbital artery is a terminal branch of the: correct answerMaxillary Artery . It creates one of the
potential anastomoses with orbital branches that can provide collateral pathways in the even of carotid
obstruction
Amaurosis Fugax can be interpreted as a: correct answerTransient Ischemic Attack of the eye.
Dysphagia is : correct answerDifficulty swallowing. Symptom associated with vertebrobasilar
insufficiency.
A binocular disturbance that disrupts vision in half the visual field of both eyes is called: correct
answerHomonymous Hemianopia
Paresthesia refers to: correct answertingling sensation
A patient describes a 30-minute episode of garbled speech. This is called: correct answerDysphasia .
Aphasia is widely used as well but technically this is incorrect, since it means "absence of speech."
A right-handed patient experiences a 30-minute episode of dysphasia. Which area of circulation is
suspect? correct answerLeft hemisphere . The speech area of the cortex is in the temporal lobe of the
dominant hemisphere
,What is true regarding subclavian steal? correct answerIt is usually a harmless hemodynamic
phenomenon. It is caused by arterial obstruction proximal to the origin of the vertebral artery. This
creates an abnormal pressure gradient that pulls or "steals" flow from the vertebral artery to perfuse
the ipsilateral upper extremity.
Subclavian steal occurs: correct answermore often on left side .
A hemispheric stroke usually affects: correct answerThe middle cerebral artery distribution and the
contralateral side of the body
Stenosis of the following vessel presents the highest risk for a TIA: correct answerInternal Carotid Artery
The vertebral arteries branch from the subclavian arteries to unite and form the: correct answerBasilar
Artery . This system is called the vertebrobasilar system and is responsible for the circulation to the
posterior portion of the brain .
A decreased pulse at mid neck is suggestive of: correct answerCommon Carotid stenosis if the
contralateral pulse is normal. Sometimes the right neck pulse can feel reduced because of the larger
muscles overlying the carotid. Occasionally the right neck feels stronger due to tortuosity of the
common carotid Artery.
What is NOT true regarding carotid bruit? correct answerThe absence of a bruit rules out significant
stenosis.
What are bruits caused by? correct answerTurbulent flow. Presence of a bruit is significant, since there
is turbulent flow for some reason. The absence of a bruit does not rule out stenosis; severe stenosis may
not cause a bruit.
Bruits heard bilaterally, loudest low in the neck, are most likely caused by: correct answerAortic Valve
Stenosis. Aortic murmurs radiate distally, frequently into the low carotids.
A stronger pulse is palpated in the right neck than on the left. This could result from all the following
except: correct answerInnominate occlusion which would be expected to make the right carotid pulse
weaker, not stronger.
, What is true regarding the clinical detection of a bruit? correct answerIt means that turbulent flow
exists. It may be indicative of valvular dysfunction in the heart. This finding may be normal in parts of
some vessels and during periods of enhanced flow.
During ordinary auscultation of a carotid bifurcation, the detection of a bruit that extends into diastole
is: correct answerHighly significant for carotid artery stenosis or for any other arterial location. Perhaps
this is related to the fact that elevated end-diastolic velocities are suggestive of severe stenosis.
Which of these conditions is least likely to cause a bruit in the neck? correct answerCritical preocclusive
stenosis of the internal carotid artery. Bruits often disappear when the stenosis is very high-grade or
preocclusive.
Why are brachial blood pressures obtained bilaterally when evaluating a patient for cerebrovascular
disease? correct answerThe brachial blood pressures are compared to see if they are equal. If one
pressure is 15-20mmHg less than the other, subclavian steal is suspected on the side of the lower
pressure.
All of the following statements apply to pulsed-wave Doppler Except: correct answerThe beam is
continuously transmitted with intermittent reception according to vessel depth.
How is the signal transmitted with pulsed-wave Doppler? correct answerIn short bursts or pulses, and
the transducer "listens" for the reflected signal in between the transmitted pulses.
Loss of the spectral window with pulsed Doppler ultrasound occurs with: correct answerFlow turbulence
What is the spectral window? correct answerIs the blank area underneath the systolic peak on the
spectral waveform. It is filled in or "lost" when turbulent flow creates spectral broadening. Other
reasons for loss of the spectral window include overuse of Doppler gain and incorrect positioning of the
sample volume outside of the center streamline (depicting signals from the vessel wall or adjacent
slower moving blood flow).
The first intracranial branch of the internal carotid artery is the: correct answerOphthalmic artery. Even
though there is often a branch called the caroticotympanic artery, the ophthalmic artery is regarded as
the first major branch of the internal carotid artery. It is central to indirect physiological testing.
