EFMB Official Study Guide 2022 100%
approved grade boosting solution
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior-
Posterior (AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n) -
portable x-ray machine
T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical spine
radiographic evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is
unavailable. - F
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography scanner? -
Role 3
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? - Role 2
Members of the trauma team should have _____ aprons and thyroid shields available
near the trauma bay for radiation safety. - lead
Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's
condition, any personnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from
the x-ray unit. The recommended minimal distance is - 6 feet
While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt
trauma patients, it has become a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency
Department (ED) in most trauma patients. FAST stands for - Focused Abdominal
Sonographic Assessment for Trauma
FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and specificity of - 98%
T/F: The FAST exam remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and
mesenteric injury - F
T/F: At the Role 3, properly trained providers including radiologists, surgeons, and
emergency physicians, can perform and interpret FAST scans in the emergency
department on a handheld portable device. - T
A FAST examination is performed with a portable hand-held machine most commonly
using a standard 3-7 MHz curved array _______________ probe. - US
The standard FAST examination is focused on evaluating for the presence of
______________ in certain areas of the body. - free intraperitoneal fluid
,When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right upper
quadrant. You are inspecting between which two organs? - liver and kidney
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper quadrant.
You are inspecting between which two organs? - spleen and kidney
An 18g ______________ IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV access. -
antecubital
T/F: The goal of Computed Tomography contrast injection is to provide concurrent solid
organ enhancement, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary arterial. - T
T/F: When performing Computed Tomography scan on a Military Working Dog, utilize a
scanning protocol based on the adult settings to include the doses of and rates of
contrast administration. - F
T/F: All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images sent
electronically ahead of time as well as have a CD created to send with the patient as a
backup. - T
T/F: Magnetic Resonance Imaging is widely used in theater, as its utility in the acute
management of combat trauma was extensively establishment during Operation
Enduring Freedom. - F
All trauma patients arriving at a Role ___ will receive proper and expeditious radiologic
screening of injuries. - role 3
T/F: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. - F
The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: - hearing loss, tinnitus (ringing in the ear), aural
fullness, recruitment (ear pain with loud noise), difficulty localizing sounds, difficulty
hearing in a noisy background, and vertigo
Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either
_____________or _____________. - temporary (temporary threshold shift, TTS) or
permanent (permanent threshold shift, PTS)
The ear, specifically the _____________, is the most sensitive organ to primary blast
injury (PBI). - tympanic membrane (TM)
T/F: The smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the
likelihood is of spontaneous closure. - T
The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do so within
the first ___________ after injury. - 8 weeks
, Acute management of intratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide objective
documentation of facial movement using the _____________ scale. - House-
Brackmann grading
T/F: For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must
always be provided regardless of contraindications. - F
Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? - otic capsule violating temporal bone
fractures, secondary infections of the inner ear or vestibular nerves, trauma induced
endolymphatic hydrops, and activation of subclinical superior semicircular canal
dehiscence
All Service Members that develop symptoms consistent with noise trauma (acute
tinnitus, muffled hearing, fullness in the ear) should: - be educated and directed to self-
report for evaluation and possible treatment as soon as practicable
What is the best course of action if you find debris in the external auditory canal or in
the middle ear? - treat the patient with a fluoroquinolone and steroid containing topical
antibiotic (e.g., four (4) drops of ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone or ofloxacin in the
affected ear three (3) times a day for seven (7) days).
Hearing loss that persists ___ hours after acoustic trauma warrants a hearing test or
audiogram. - 72
T/F: Vestibular trauma to the inner ear may manifest in vertigo. - T
All patients with subjective hearing loss and tinnitus following blast exposure should: -
have the exposure documented, and should be evaluated by hearing testing as soon as
possible.
Patients with TTS greater than ______ losses in three consecutive frequencies should
be considered candidates for high dose oral and/or transtympanic steroid injections
when not otherwise contraindicated. - 25 dB
What are indications for endotracheal intubation during your initial burn survey? -
comatose patient, symptomatic inhalation injury, deep facial burns, and burns over 40%
Total Body Surface Area (TBSA)
Burn casualties with injuries greater than ___ Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) are at
high risk of hypothermia. - 20%
T/F: When providing point of injury care to a burn patient, you must immediately debride
blisters and cover burns with loose, moist gauze wraps or a wet clean sheet. - F
Calculate a burn patient's initial burn size using the Rule of _____. - nines
approved grade boosting solution
The initial radiographic evaluation of a trauma patient begins with supine Anterior-
Posterior (AP) chest and pelvis radiographs taken in the trauma bay usually with a(n) -
portable x-ray machine
T/F: Computed Tomography scanning has been largely replaced by cervical spine
radiographic evaluation (CSRE) and should only be performed when CSRE is
unavailable. - F
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a Computed Tomography scanner? -
Role 3
What is the lowest level of care equipped with a portable x-ray machine? - Role 2
Members of the trauma team should have _____ aprons and thyroid shields available
near the trauma bay for radiation safety. - lead
Distance is also protective from radiation exposure. If feasible based on the patient's
condition, any personnel without lead shielding should move a short distance away from
the x-ray unit. The recommended minimal distance is - 6 feet
While the FAST scan has been validated only in hemodynamically unstable blunt
trauma patients, it has become a standard tool in the trauma bay and Emergency
Department (ED) in most trauma patients. FAST stands for - Focused Abdominal
Sonographic Assessment for Trauma
FAST in combat trauma has a sensitivity of only 56% and specificity of - 98%
T/F: The FAST exam remains the most sensitive test for hollow viscus injury and
mesenteric injury - F
T/F: At the Role 3, properly trained providers including radiologists, surgeons, and
emergency physicians, can perform and interpret FAST scans in the emergency
department on a handheld portable device. - T
A FAST examination is performed with a portable hand-held machine most commonly
using a standard 3-7 MHz curved array _______________ probe. - US
The standard FAST examination is focused on evaluating for the presence of
______________ in certain areas of the body. - free intraperitoneal fluid
,When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the right upper
quadrant. You are inspecting between which two organs? - liver and kidney
When performing a FAST examination on a patient, you inspect the left upper quadrant.
You are inspecting between which two organs? - spleen and kidney
An 18g ______________ IV is typically desired for Computed Tomography IV access. -
antecubital
T/F: The goal of Computed Tomography contrast injection is to provide concurrent solid
organ enhancement, arterial enhancement, and pulmonary arterial. - T
T/F: When performing Computed Tomography scan on a Military Working Dog, utilize a
scanning protocol based on the adult settings to include the doses of and rates of
contrast administration. - F
T/F: All patients evacuated through casualty evacuation should have images sent
electronically ahead of time as well as have a CD created to send with the patient as a
backup. - T
T/F: Magnetic Resonance Imaging is widely used in theater, as its utility in the acute
management of combat trauma was extensively establishment during Operation
Enduring Freedom. - F
All trauma patients arriving at a Role ___ will receive proper and expeditious radiologic
screening of injuries. - role 3
T/F: Patients exposed to hazardous noise are only at risk for aural trauma. - F
The symptoms of acoustic trauma are: - hearing loss, tinnitus (ringing in the ear), aural
fullness, recruitment (ear pain with loud noise), difficulty localizing sounds, difficulty
hearing in a noisy background, and vertigo
Acoustic trauma may result in sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL) that is either
_____________or _____________. - temporary (temporary threshold shift, TTS) or
permanent (permanent threshold shift, PTS)
The ear, specifically the _____________, is the most sensitive organ to primary blast
injury (PBI). - tympanic membrane (TM)
T/F: The smaller the size of the tympanic membrane perforation, the greater the
likelihood is of spontaneous closure. - T
The majority of tympanic membrane perforations that close spontaneously do so within
the first ___________ after injury. - 8 weeks
, Acute management of intratemporal facial nerve injury is to provide objective
documentation of facial movement using the _____________ scale. - House-
Brackmann grading
T/F: For significant facial pareses/paralyses, early administration of steroids must
always be provided regardless of contraindications. - F
Which inner ear abnormalities may cause vertigo? - otic capsule violating temporal bone
fractures, secondary infections of the inner ear or vestibular nerves, trauma induced
endolymphatic hydrops, and activation of subclinical superior semicircular canal
dehiscence
All Service Members that develop symptoms consistent with noise trauma (acute
tinnitus, muffled hearing, fullness in the ear) should: - be educated and directed to self-
report for evaluation and possible treatment as soon as practicable
What is the best course of action if you find debris in the external auditory canal or in
the middle ear? - treat the patient with a fluoroquinolone and steroid containing topical
antibiotic (e.g., four (4) drops of ciprofloxacin/dexamethasone or ofloxacin in the
affected ear three (3) times a day for seven (7) days).
Hearing loss that persists ___ hours after acoustic trauma warrants a hearing test or
audiogram. - 72
T/F: Vestibular trauma to the inner ear may manifest in vertigo. - T
All patients with subjective hearing loss and tinnitus following blast exposure should: -
have the exposure documented, and should be evaluated by hearing testing as soon as
possible.
Patients with TTS greater than ______ losses in three consecutive frequencies should
be considered candidates for high dose oral and/or transtympanic steroid injections
when not otherwise contraindicated. - 25 dB
What are indications for endotracheal intubation during your initial burn survey? -
comatose patient, symptomatic inhalation injury, deep facial burns, and burns over 40%
Total Body Surface Area (TBSA)
Burn casualties with injuries greater than ___ Total Body Surface Area (TBSA) are at
high risk of hypothermia. - 20%
T/F: When providing point of injury care to a burn patient, you must immediately debride
blisters and cover burns with loose, moist gauze wraps or a wet clean sheet. - F
Calculate a burn patient's initial burn size using the Rule of _____. - nines
