MN 553 UNIT 1 QUIZ | MN 553: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY & PHARMACOTHERAPEUTICS | COMPLETE TEST BANK | CHAPTERS 1-52 WITH CORRECT ANSWERS

MN 553 UNIT 1 QUIZ | MN 553: ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY & PHARMACOTHERAPEUTICS | COMPLETE TEST BANK | CHAPTERS 1-52 WITH CORRECT ANSWERS. Drugs administered via IV: 1 . Need to be lipid soluble in order to be easily absorbed 2 Begin distribution into the body immediately . 3 . Are easily absorbed if they are nonionized 4 . May use pinocytosis to be absorbed 14. When a medication is added to a regimen for a synergistic effect, the combined effect of the drugs is: 1 . The sum of the effects of each drug individually 2 Greater than the sum of the effects of each drug individually . 3 . Less than the effect of each drug individually 4 . Not predictable, as it varies with each individual 15. Which of the following statements about bioavailability is true? 1 Bioavailability issues are especially important for drugs with narrow therapeutic . ranges or sustained-release mechanisms. 2 . All brands of a drug have the same bioavailability. 3 . Drugs that are administered more than once a day have greater bioavailability than drugs given once daily. 4 . Combining an active drug with an inert substance does not affect bioavailability. 16. Which of the following statements about the major distribution barriers (blood-brain or fetal-placental) is true? 1 . Water soluble and ionized drugs cross these barriers rapidly. 2 The blood-brain barrier slows the entry of many drugs into and from brain cells. . 3 . The fetal-placental barrier protects the fetus from drugs taken by the mother. 4 . Lipid-soluble drugs do not pass these barriers and are safe for pregnant women. 17. Drugs are metabolized mainly by the liver via phase I or phase II reactions. The purpose of both of these types of reactions is to: 1 . Inactivate prodrugs before they can be activated by target tissues 2 . Change the drugs so they can cross plasma membranes 3 Change drug molecules to a form that an excretory organ can excrete . 4 . Make these drugs more ionized and polar to facilitate excretion 18. Once they have been metabolized by the liver, the metabolites may be: 1. More active than the parent drug 2. Less active than the parent drug 3. Totally “deactivated” so they are excreted without any effect 4. All of the above 19. All drugs continue to act in the body until they are changed or excreted. The ability of the body to excrete drugs via the renal system would be increased by: 1 . Reduced circulation and perfusion of the kidney 2 . Chronic renal disease 3 . Competition for a transport site by another drug 4 Unbinding a nonvolatile drug from plasma proteins 20. Steady state is: 1. The point on the drug concentration curve when absorption exceeds excretion 2. When the amount of drug in the body remains constant 3. When the amount of drug in the body stays below the minimum toxic concentration 4. All of the above 21. Two different pain medications are given together for pain relief. The drug—drug interaction is: 1 . Synergistic 2 . Antagonistic 3 . Potentiative 4 Additive . 22. Actions taken to reduce drug—drug interaction problems include all of the following EXCEPT: 1 . Reducing the dosage of one of the drugs 2 . Scheduling their administration at different times 3 Prescribing a third drug to counteract the adverse reaction of the combination . 4 . Reducing the dosage of both drugs 23. Phase I oxidative-reductive processes of drug metabolism require certain nutritional elements. Which of the following would reduce or inhibit this process? 1. Protein malnutrition 2. Iron-deficiency anemia 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2 24. The time required for the amount of drug in the body to decrease by 50% is called: 1 . Steady state 2 Half-life 3 . Phase II metabolism 4 . Reduced bioavailability time 25. An agonist activates a receptor and stimulates a response. When given frequently over time, the body may: 1 . Upregulate the total number of receptors 2 . Block the receptor with a partial agonist 3 . Alter the drug’s metabolism 4 Downregulate the numbers of that specific receptor 26. Drug antagonism is best defined as an effect of a drug that: 1 . Leads to major physiological and psychological dependence 2 Is modified by the concurrent administration of another drug 3 . Cannot be metabolized before another dose is administered 4 . Leads to a decreased physiological response when combined with another drug 27. Instructions to a client regarding self-administration of oral enteric-coated tablets should include which of the following statements? 1 “Avoid any other oral medicines while taking this drug.” . 2 . “If swallowing this tablet is difficult, dissolve it in 3 ounces of orange juice.” 3 . “The tablet may be crushed if you have any difficulty taking it.” 4 “To achieve best effect, take the tablet with at least 8 ounces of fluid.” . 28. The major reason for not crushing a sustained-release capsule is that, if crushed, the coated beads of the drugs could possibly result in: 1 . Disintegration 2 Toxicity . 3 . Malabsorption 4 . Deterioration 29. Which of the following substances is the most likely to be absorbed in the intestines rather than in the stomach? 1 Sodium bicarbonate . 2 . Ascorbic acid 3 . Salicylic acid 4 . Glucose 30. Which of the following variables is a factor in drug absorption? 1 . The smaller the surface area for absorption, the more rapidly the drug is absorbed. 2 A rich blood supply to the area of absorption leads to better absorption. . 3 . The less soluble the drug, the more easily it is absorbed. 4 . Ionized drugs are easily absorbed across the cell membrane. 31. An advantage of prescribing a sublingual medication is that the medication is: 1 Absorbed rapidly . 2 . Excreted rapidly 3 . Metabolized minimally 4 . Distributed equally 32. Drugs that use CYP 3A4 isoenzymes for metabolism may: 1. Induce the metabolism of another drug 2. Inhibit the metabolism of another drug 3. Both 1 and 2 4. Neither 1 nor 2 33. Therapeutic drug levels are drawn when a drug reaches steady state. Drugs reach steady state: 1 . After the second dose 2 After four to five half-lives 3 . When the patient feels the full effect of the drug 4 . One hour after IV administration 34. Upregulation or hypersensitization may lead to: 1 . Increased response to a drug 2 . Decreased response to a drug 3 An exaggerated response if the drug is withdrawn . 4 . Refractoriness or complete lack of response Chapter 3. Rational Drug Selection Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. An NP would prescribe the liquid form of ibuprofen for a 6-year-old child because: 1 . Drugs given in liquid form are less irritating to the stomach. 2 A 6-year-old child may have problems swallowing a pill. . 3 . Liquid forms of medication eliminate the concern for first-pass effect. 4 . Liquid ibuprofen does not have to be dosed as often as the tablet form. 2. In deciding which of multiple drugs used to use to treat a condition, the NP chooses Drug A because it: 1. Has serious side effects and it is not being used for a life-threatening condition 2. Will be taken twice daily and will be taken at home 3. Is expensive, but covered by health insurance 4. None of these are important in choosing a drug 3. A client asks the NP about the differences in drug effects between men and women. What is known about the differences between the pharmacokinetics of men and women? 1 . Body temperature varies between men and women. 2 . Muscle mass is greater in women. 3 Percentage of fat differs between genders. 4 . Proven subjective factors exist between the genders. 4. The first step in the prescribing process according to the World Health Organization is: 1 . Choosing the treatment 2 . Educating the patient about the medication 3 Diagnosing the patient’s problem 4 . Starting the treatment 5. Treatment goals in prescribing should: 1 . Always be curative 2 Be patient-centered 3 . Be convenient for the provider 4 . Focus on the cost of therapy 6. The therapeutic goals when prescribing include(s): 1. Curative 2. Palliative 3. Preventive 4. All of the above 7. When determining drug treatment the NP prescriber should: 1 . Always use evidence-based guidelines 2 Individualize the drug choice for the specific patient 3 . Rely on his or her experience when prescribing for complex patients 4 . Use the newest drug on the market for the condition being treated 8. Patient education regarding prescribed medication includes: 1 . Instructions written at the high school reading level 2 Discussion of expected adverse drug reactions 3 . How to store leftover medication such as antibiotics 4 . Verbal instructions always in English 9. Passive monitoring of drug effectiveness includes: 1 . Therapeutic drug levels 2 . Adding or subtracting medications from the treatment regimen 3 . Ongoing provider visits 4 Instructing the patient to report if the drug is not effective 10. Pharmacokinetic factors that affect prescribing include: 1 . Therapeutic index 2 . Minimum effective concentration 3 Bioavailability 4 . Ease of titration 11. Pharmaceutical promotion may affect prescribing. To address the impact of pharmaceutical promotion, the following recommendations have been made by the Institute of Medicine: 1 Conflicts of interest and financial relationships should be disclosed by those providing education. 2 . Providers should ban all pharmaceutical representatives from their office setting. 3 . Drug samples should be used for patients who have the insurance to pay for them, to ensure the patient can afford the medication. 4 . Providers should only accept low-value gifts, such as pens and pads of paper, from the pharmaceutical representative. 12. Under new U.S. Food and Drug Administration labeling, Pregnancy Categories will be: 1 . Strengthened with a new coding such as C+ or C- to discern when a drug is more or less toxic to the fetus 2 Changed to incorporate a pregnancy risk summary and clinical considerations on