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2023 NURS 6440 PREDICTOR EXAM QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS GRADED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED

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2023 NURS 6440 PREDICTOR EXAM QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS GRADED A+ SUCCESS GUARANTEED

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2023 NURS 6440 PREDICTOR EXAM QUESTIONS
WITH ANSWERS GRADED A+ SUCCESS
GUARANTEED

 A 15 years old high school student with a mild sore throat and low-grade fever that has

persisted for about 3 weeks. She reports general malaise, fatigue, and loss of appetite. The

NP suspects mononucleosis. Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate intervention?

a. Palpate the lymph nodes and spleen

b. Examine the posterior oropharynx for petechiae

c. Obtain a CBC, throat culture, and heterophil antibody test.

d. Obtain an urinalyses and serum for LFTs and amylase



Explanation: mononucleosis is a symptomatic infection caused by the Epstein-Bar virus.

Common is people 15-24 years of age. Common signs and symptoms following incubation

period (1-2 months) include fatigue, chills, malaise, anorexia, white tonsillar exudates and

lymphadenopathy or posterior cervical region. Splenomegaly can be present. A maculopapular or

occasionally a petechial rash occurs in less than 15% of patients. A diagnosis is usually made

using the Monospot. In addition, neutropenia and lymphocytosis are usually detected in the CBC.



 A 32 years old male patient complaint of urinary frequency and burning on urination for 3

days. Urinalyses reveals bacteriuria and positive nitrites. He denies any past hx. Of urinary tract

infections. The initial treatment should be:

a. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Sulfatrim) for 7-10 day

b. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3-5 days

c. Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole for 3 days

d. 750 mg ciprofloxacin as a one-time dose


1

,2023 NURS 6440 PREDICTOR EXAM QUESTIONS
WITH ANSWERS GRADED A+ SUCCESS
GUARANTEED
Explanation: trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMPS) is usually n appropriate medication to

treat urinary tract infections in most patients. In the case of community resistance to TMPS

>20%^, another medication should be substituted. In men, the appropriate length of time is 7-10

days. Women may be treated for 3 days for uncomplicated UTI



 Which agent is most effective for the treatment of nodulocystic acne?

a. Benzoyl peroxide (Benzac)

b. Retinoic acid (Retin A)

c. Topical tetracycline

d. Isotretinoin)



Explanation: Isotretinoin (Accutane) is a systemic agent indicated for treatment with severe

inflammatory acne. Guidelines for its use must be clearly understood by the patient. A woman of

childbearing age must use an effective method of contraception because isotretinoin is

teratogenic. There are many restrictions in prescribing this medication because of the teratogenic

effects is given during pregnancy. Therefore, it is a pregnancy category X.



 An 18 y/o woman is taking a combined hormonal oral contraceptive. She should be

instructed to use a backup method for the prevention of pregnancy

a. Throughout the week of placebo pills

b. If prescribed topiramate (Topamax) for the treatment of migraines.

c. If prescribed amoxicillin/clavulanate (Augmentin) for a sinus infection

d. if she forgets to take a single dose of the contraceptive


2

,2023 NURS 6440 PREDICTOR EXAM QUESTIONS
WITH ANSWERS GRADED A+ SUCCESS
GUARANTEED

Explanation: Anticonvulsant including phenytoin (Dilantin), carbamazepine (Tegretol),

primidone (Mysoline), topiramate (Topamax) and oxcarbazepine (Trileptal) reduce the

effectiveness of contraceptives. Depo-medroxyprogesterone acetate injections or levonorgestrel-

releasing intrauterine devices would be a better method of contraceptive for patients taking

anticonvulsants. Most commonly used antibiotics have not been proven to reduce the

effectiveness of contraceptives. Rifampin is an exception, and additional …. Be used by women

taking this drug and using oral contraceptives, transdermal, or vaginal ring preparations.

Additional backup contraception should be used if taking antifungal agents. No additional

protection is needed thought the week of placebo pills. Missing one single dose of contraceptive

does not require additional protection, missing more than one doses does.



 A 44 years old female patient has diabetes. Her total cholesterol (TC) is 250 mg/dl (6.5

mmol/L), LDL= 190 mg/dL (4.94 mmol/L), HDL= 25 mg/dL (65 mmol/L), and triglycerides=

344 mg/dL (8.94 mmol/L). What agent have the greatest effect on improving her lipid profile

and reducing morbidity and mortality associates with dyslipidemia?

a. Niacin (Niaspan)

b. Atorvastatin

c. Omega 3 fatty acids

d. Fenofibrates

Explanation: First and foremost, it is essential to educate individuals on a heart-healthy

lifestyle. LDL-C is one of the major culprits in the development of atherosclerotic heart disease.

The target level of LDL-C is between 50 to 70mg/dl to prevent plaque formation in the blood

vessels. Guidelines strongly recommend statin therapy because they primarily lower LDL-C
3

, 2023 NURS 6440 PREDICTOR EXAM QUESTIONS
WITH ANSWERS GRADED A+ SUCCESS
GUARANTEED
levels, but they also have the secondary effects of lowering triglyceride and increasing HDL-C

levels.



 A 30 years old female comes into a clinic with classic signs and symptoms of appendicitis.

The NP fails to refer the patient to a surgeon. The appendix ruptures and the woman die. This is

an example of

a. Failure of diligence

b. Professional liability

c. Negligence

d. Malpractice



Explanation: malpractice, a negligence tort, occurs when a health care professional’s actions fall

bellow the appropriate standard of care and hurts the patient. In this case the patient came with

sings and symptoms indicating appendicitis and the NP failed to refer the patient..



 A NP has recently been hired to work in a fast track facility. The NP employer asked if

she has “a problem prescribing medications for emergency contraception.” The NP replies

affirmatively. This is:

a. Grounds for dismissal

b. An ethical dilemma for the NP




4

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