NCCT Exam Practice Questions With Answers | Latest 2023/2024 (Graded A+)

Which of the following needle gauges is most commonly used for venipuncture? A. 21-23 B. 18-20 C. 16-17 D. 24-25 - ANSWER Correct response: 21-23 Rationale: The gauge of a needle refers to its outer diameter (smaller numbers= larger diameters and vice versa). The most commonly used needle for venipuncture is a 21-23 gauge. The needle size must be large enough to prevent hemolysis (break down of blood cells). While scheduling an appointment, the medical office assistant's computer freezes. When attempting to restart the program, which of the following should the medical office assistant do first? A. Unplug computer from the outlet source. B. Shut down the computer. C. Restart the computer. D. Press the Ctrl, Alt and Delete keys. - ANSWER Correct response: Press the Ctrl, Alt and Delete keys. Rationale: By pressing the CTRL, ALT and Delete keys, at one time, the computer can reboot by shutting down and then restarting. By pulling the power cord, you can run the risk of damaging the files and hardware. Which of the following types of licensure must a physician have and maintain to legally dispense, prescribe, or administer controlled substances? A. narcotics B. business C. pharmaceutical D. occupational - ANSWER Correct response: narcotics Rationale: A physician must obtain and renew narcotics licensure by state and federally through the Drug Enforcement Agency. Pharmaceutical, business, and occupational licensure is not a requirement of physicians for controlled substances. The physician has instructed the medical assistant to obtain a patient's temperature. Before placing the oral thermometer in the patient's mouth, it is important to ensure the accuracy of the reading by asking the patient if she has A. recently ingested hot or cold food or beverages. B. pain with swallowing. C. taken her prescribed medications today. D. had a fever in the last 24 hours. - ANSWER Correct response: recently ingested hot or cold food or beverages. Rationale: An oral temperature reading can be falsely elevated or decreased if a patient ingests hot or cold food or drink close to the time the temperature is taken. Prescribed medications would not cause the reading to be inaccurate (though they may help accurately reduce the fever if they include antipyretics). Neither having a fever within the last 24 hours nor trouble swallowing should have any bearing on the accuracy of an oral temperature reading, provided it is taken correctly. Which of the following government agencies requires the medical office to develop an exposure control plan? A. FDA B. CDC C. OSHA D. EPA - ANSWER Correct response: OSHA Rationale: Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is the main Federal agency committed to enforcement of safety and health legislation. The purpose of the CDC is to protect Americans from health, safety and security threats, both foreign and in the U.S.A. The FDA is responsible for protecting the public health by assuring the safety, efficacy, and security of human and veterinary drugs, biological products, medical devices, the nations food supply, cosmetics, and products that emit radiation. The EPA demonstrates the government's commitment to protecting public health and the environment. The medical assistant should refer to which of the following agencies to access updated immunization schedules? A. CDC B. FEMA C. FDA D. OSHA - ANSWER Correct response: CDC Rationale: Centers for Disease Control (CDC) maintains the most current and up to date immunization schedule recommendations online. The Food & Drug Administration (FDA) is a federal agency of the United States Department of Health and Human Services and is tasked with providing accurate, science-based health information to the public. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA), a federal agency of the United States that regulates workplace safety and health. Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA): a US government body intended to coordinate responses to a disaster in the US itself. Forced Vital Capacity is measured by instructing the patient to A. exhale as fast and hard as possible and document the reading. B. move the one way valve to a minimum of 4000 ml capacity. C. forcefully breath air out and continue to exhale for at least 6 seconds. D. complete a minimum of eight acceptable efforts to validate the test. - ANSWER Correct response: forcefully breath air out and continue to exhale for at least 6 seconds. Rationale: Respiratory tests are performed to assess and/or monitor lung function. A spirometer measures how fast and how much air is pushed/forced out of the lungs. Forced Vital Capacity (FVC) is measured by instructing the patient to forcefully breath air out and continue to exhale for at least 6 seconds. When doing spirometry testing, the total attempts should be limited to 8, not a minimum of 8. The one way valve should not be moved to 4000 mL capacity. A patient should blow out as hard and fast for as long as possible, and 3 acceptable attempts are documented to ensure test validity (not just the highest reading). An older adult patient arrives to have blood drawn. While assessing the arms for venipuncture, the medical assistant notices scar tissue in the anticubital areas and is unable to palpate a vein. Which of the following is an appropriate alternative course of action? A. Draw blood from the hand using an evacuated tube system. B. Use a larger gauge needle to penetrate through the scar tissue. C. Draw blood from the hand using a winged infusion set. D. Perform a capillary puncture on the lateral thumb. - ANSWER Correct response: Draw blood from the hand using a winged infusion set. Rationale: Areas with visible scar tissue should be avoided when selecting a site for venipuncture. Scarring can cause the area to be difficult to puncture and may obstruct blood flow. So, the best approach is to draw blood from the hand using a winged infusion set (a.k.a. butterfly). Use of an evacuated tube could collapse the vein due to the vacuum pressure. A capillary puncture would not be the best approach because a venous draw on the hand would give a superior specimen. When managing multiple incoming calls, the medical assistant should handle which of the following calls first? A. A patient calling to schedule a follow-up visit for uncontrolled pain after hip surgery. B. A neurologist seeing a patient on consult. C. A patient calling to cancel today's appointment for a needle biopsy of a breast mass. D. A lawyer with a subpoena asking for patient information. - ANSWER Correct response: A neurologist seeing a patient on consult. Rationale: The medical assistant's main priority is to handle the most urgent call promptly. A neurologist calling to report on a referred patient would take priority over anyone scheduling or cancelling an appointment. The other calls can be put on hold or they can opt to have their names and phone numbers taken for calls to be returned and handled when time permits. A lawyer with a subpoena can also wait for a return call until all other priorities have been handled. Which of the following actions should the medical assistant take when disposing of a needle following a venipuncture? A. Recap the needle and place it immediately in a sharps container. B. Recap the needle and place it on the blood collection tray. C. Place the needle with safety device activated immediately in a sharps container. D. Push the needle guard over the needle until it clicks and then place in a biohazard bag. - ANSWER Correct response: Place the needle with safety device activated immediately in a sharps container. Rationale: To minimize risk of needlestick exposure and/or injury, the medical assistant should place the needle with safety device activated immediately in a sharps container. Recapping the needle increases the risk of an accidental needlestick and is not recommended (if the needle has a needle guard, it should be activated to minimize risk). All needles should be promptly disposed of in a sharps container, not in a biohazard bag or on the blood collection tray. While emptying the autoclave, the medical assistant notices that the wrapped instruments are damp. The medical assistant should A. leave the instruments in the autoclave and run the cycle again. B. remove the instruments and place them on the Mayo stand for surgery. C. remove the instruments and set them on the counter to dry. D. leave the instruments in the autoclave with the door slightly open to finish drying. - ANSWER Correct response: leave the instruments in the autoclave with the door slightly open to finish drying. Rationale: Microorganisms can enter through a moist wrap, which is why it is not advisable to touch or move the contents of an autoclave before they have had sufficient time to dry. Leave all contents in the autoclave and crack to door to allow them to air dry appropriately. A patient expresses cultural beliefs about an alternative method of pain management that differs from the medical assistant's own view. How should the medical assistant respond? A. "The physician does not recommend that approach." B. "Tell me more about how this approach has worked for you." C. "Standard pharmaceutical methods of pain management are proven to be more effective." D. "Perhaps you should see a neurologist." - ANSWER Correct response: "Tell me more about how this approach has worked for you." Rationale: A respectful approach enhances patient-centered care, displays professionalism, and shows appreciation for diversity. The medical assistant should have the patient tell them more about their approach and how it has worked for them. The other options do not allow the patient to express their feelings to the medical assistant, and would not be the right response. A medical office assistant is reviewing a patient's encounter that is documented in the medical record prior to completing a CMS-1500 form. She notices that the physician upcoded the encounter. The medical office assistant has the ethical obligation to A. alter the code. B. debate the code. C. down code the code. D. change the code. - ANSWER Correct response: debate the code. Rationale: It is within the medical assistant's ethical responsibility to debate the code. It is illegal to purposely "upcode" an encounter for any reason. The coding system is specific and should be followed. The office assistant does not have the authority to change, alter, or down code the code without consulting the physician. Which of the following is the purpose of scheduling preadmission testing (PAT) prior to surgery? A. To ensure the procedure is covered by the patient's insurance. B. To assess preparation and recovery time needed before and after surgery. C. To provide documentation to the insurance company to waive the copay. D. To assess patients' health to make sure they can tolerate the proposed surgical procedure. - ANSWER Correct response: To assess patients' health to make sure they can tolerate the proposed surgical procedure. Rationale: Testing is performed prior to a surgery as an assessment of the patient's health. It is used to measure whether or not the surgical procedure can be tolerated. It's a matter of risk versus benefit. If the preadmission testing shows that the patient is not "strong" enough ("healthy" enough) to tolerate the surgical procedure, it could be more harmful to proceed with the surgery than to delay or cancel it (since the surgery could do more harm than good). Which of the following is a CLIA waived test that can be performed by the medical assistant? A. chemical urinalysis B. differential C. Gram stain analysis D. crossmatch - ANSWER Correct response: chemical urinalysis Rationale: A medical assistant can perform a chemical urinalysis test, which shows if the patient has protein or glucose in their urine, but would require intervention by the primary care provider. A chemical urinalysis can also tell what the specific gravity of the urine, meaning how diluted or concentrated it is. The test is done with a small dipstick that changes color when it comes into contact with urine. The medical assistant then compares the stick to a chart to see what is in the urine and if anything is abnormal. A differential is done by a laboratory technician. It is done by drawing blood and then placing the blood on a glass slide to look for any signs of infection or anemia. A Gram stain analysis is also done in the lab under a microscope when a bacterial or viral infection is suspected. Cross-matching is a test administered before a blood transfusion to ensure the donor's blood is compatible with the recipient. This test is performed by a certified laboratory technologist. Which of the following acts involves the termination of a patient from the care of a physician without reasonable, written notice of withdrawal from the case? A. slander B. battery C. discrimination D. abandonment - ANSWER Correct response: abandonment Rationale: A physician or primary care provider who wishes to end a patient-physician relationship must follow a formal notification process to avoid a claim of patient abandonment. The medical assistant may help with this process to ensure proper completion. Steps include writing a formal notification letter informing the patient, including reason(s) for withdrawal and effective time frame, mailing the letter certified with return receipt, ensuring a copy of the letter and all documentation is placed in the patient's medical record, documenting the termination in the patient's record and actions taken. The medical assistant should stamp checks with the restrictive endorsement "for deposit only" to prevent A. loss or theft. B. overdraft fees. C. stop-payment. D. nonsufficient funds. - ANSWER Correct response: loss or theft. Rationale: Endorsement is required to ensure transfer funds from one party to another under the Uniform Negotiable Instrument Act, applicable in all states. Which of the following medical office software applications uses an electronic signature? A. scheduling B. spreadsheets C. encoders D. EHR - ANSWER Correct response: EHR Rationale: The use of Electronic Health Records (EHR) requires an electronic signature. Other office applications, such as spreadsheets, encoders, and scheduling programs don't require signatures. The medical assistant is collecting a urine sample on a patient to test for pregnancy. Which of the following is the correct CLIA-waived test? A. FBG B. hgb C. hct D. hCG - ANSWER Correct response: hCG Rationale: The medical assistant would test the hCG (Human Chorionic Gonadotropin) levels to test for pregnancy. This hormone is produced during pregnancy by cells in the placenta and can be detected by a urine test. To test hgb (hemoglobin) levels, a blood sample is taken to determine how much oxygen is being carried by red blood cells. Since a pregnancy test is taken using a urine sample, a hemoglobin test would not be necessary. Fasting Blood Glucose (FBG) levels are also tested using a blood sample, and used to determine how much sugar is in the blood. Hematocrit (hct) is also a blood sample that shows how many red blood cells there are in proportion to the total blood volume. Which of the following phone calls should be handled first? A. A patient concerned about laboratory results about HIV B. A physician returning a page C. A patient complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath D. A patient previously treated with a blood pressure of 142/90 aggressively asking for refills - ANSWER Correct response: A patient complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath Rationale: By following the ABC rule (airway, breathing, circulation), the patient complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath should be handled first since he/she is exhibiting signs of respiratory distress. The other patients do not require immediate medical attention, therefore, they should be handled after the patient with chest pain and shortness of breath. The medical assistant preps the median cubital vein for a venipuncture procedure. How should the medical assistant prep the patient's skin? A. Wipe the area from top to bottom. B. Use a circular motion, from the inside out. C. Use a circular motion, from the outside in. D. Wipe the area from bottom to top. - ANSWER Correct response: Use a circular motion, from the inside out. Rationale: A venipuncture is considered a minimally invasive procedure. The fact that the skin will be punctured leaves open the potential to introduce an infection. Therefore, proper care should be taken to minimize the risk of contamination (of the sample) and infection (to the patient). Prep the puncture site with an alcohol pad or equivalent by using a circular motion, from the inside out. A basic rule of thumb is to use a "clean to dirty" approach. The circular motion is the appropriate prepping motion (instead of up and down or side to side).