PHARMACOLOGY Comprehensive Exam Questions With Complete Solutions | Latest Update Graded A+ (2023/2024)

Which of the following types of drugs will have maximum oral bioavailability? A. High hydrophilic drugs B. Chemically unstable drugs C. Drugs with high first-pass metabolism D. Largely hydrophobic, yet soluble in aqueous solutions - ANSWER-D. Largely hydrophobic, yet soluble in aqueous solutions Two related drug preparations show comparable ability to reach the systemic circulation in the same amounts and possess similar times to achieve peak plasma concentration. Such drugs are considered as being A. bioavailable B. bioequivalent C. therapeutically equivalent D. very hydrophilic - ANSWER-B. bioequivalent Which of the following organs with distribution of a drug be greatest in terms of blood flow: mass ratio? A. Brain B. Heart C. Liver D. Kidney - ANSWER-D. Kidney Which of the following is TRUE about therapeutic index? A. There is no difference between the slopes of the dose response curves for the therapeutic and lethal effects B. The margin of safety is large if the ratio of median lethal dose and effective dose is 1 C. Cardiac glycosides and cancer chemotherapeutic agents have large therapeutic index D. The higher the ratio between the LD50 and ED50, the safer the drug - ANSWER-D. The higher the ratio between the LD50 and ED50, the safer the drug Which of the following is TRUE about quantal dose response relationship? A. There is greater magnitude of response as the dose increases B. The effect of the dose is judged to be either present or absent C. It is not used to determine the LD50 of drugs D. All of the above - ANSWER-B. The effect of the dose is judged to be either present or absent Which of the following statement/s best describes the U-shaped dose-response curve? A. It is a dose-response curve observed for chemotherapeutic drugs B. At low dose, adverse effect is not observed C. Surpassing the dose required to maintain homeostasis, overdose toxicity can ensue D. All of the above - ANSWER-C. Surpassing the dose required to maintain homeostasis, overdose toxicity can ensue Which of the following is a bacteriostatic antibiotic? A. Amikacin B. Azithromycin C. Vancomycin D. Streptomycin - ANSWER-B. Azithromycin In choosing an antimicrobial agent, which of the following principles is correct? A. A higher threshold for empirical therapy should be used in critically ill patients B. If therapy is not working, change the present antimicrobial therapy immediately C. Distinguish new infection from failure of initial therapy D. Host factors do not affect breadth of empirical therapy - ANSWER-C. Distinguish new infection from failure of initial therapy A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV infection with no complaint but a CD4 count of 150 cells/mm3. He was given cotrimoxazole by this attending physician. This type of therapy is A. empirical B. definitive C. post treatment suppressive D. prophylaxis - ANSWER-D. prophylaxis Concurrent administration of a β-lactamase inhibitor such as clavulanate or sulbactam to this type of agents markedly expands their spectrum of activity, particularly against H. influenzae, E. coli, Klebsiella, Proteus, and B. fragilis. A. Carbapenem B. Aminopenicillin C. Isoxazolyl penicillin D. Monobactam - ANSWER-B. Aminopenicillin Which of the following antibiotics inhibits the last step in peptidoglycan synthesis? A. Erythromycin B. Penicillin C. Metronidazole D. Vancomycin - ANSWER-B. Penicillin Which of the following is a protein synthesis inhibitor that target ribosome? A. Quinupristin B. Amikacin C. Azithromycin D. Polymyxin - ANSWER-A. Quinupristin Which of the following is the mechanism of action of doxycycline? A. Inhibition of initiation and misreading of B. Binding to 30 S subunit and inhibiting the binding of aminoacyl-t-RNA to A site C. Inhibiting peptidyl transferase activity D. Binding to 50 S subunit - ANSWER-B. Binding to 30 S subunit and inhibiting the binding of aminoacyl-t-RNA to A site Aminoglycosides inhibit protein synthesis by which of the following mechanisms? A. By binding irreversibly to the 50S ribosomal subunit B. By preventing access of aminoacyl tRNA to the acceptor site on the mRNA-ribosome complex C. By causing misreading and premature termination of mRNA translation D. By reversible binding and inhibition of isoleucyl tRNA - ANSWER-C. By causing misreading and premature termination of mRNA translation Which of the following steps precedes the others in selecting a P-drug? A. Choose an effective group according to criteria B. Define the diagnosis C. Specify the therapeutic objective D. Make inventory of effective groups of drugs - ANSWER-B. Define the diagnosis Which of the following is considered as the first selection criterion when making an inventory of effective groups of drugs? A. Cost of treatment B. Safety C. Efficacy D. Suitability - ANSWER-C. Efficacy Which of the following is an advantage of using Latin abbreviations in prescription writing? A. Better patient compliance B. More difficult alteration by the patient C. Improved writing skills of the physician D. Lesser occurrence of medication errors - ANSWER-B. More difficult alteration by the patient Which of the following characteristics would best ensure percutaneous absorption? A. Low partition coefficient B. Molecular weight 500 Da C. Adequate solubility in both water and oil D. Capacity to pass through stratum corneum - ANSWER-D. Capacity to pass through stratum corneum Which vehicle for topically applied drugs spreads and removes easily and can be applied in many locations of the body? A. Gel B. Lotion C. Ointment D. Cream - ANSWER-D. Cream Which antibiotic for cutaneous bacterial infections is relatively safest on the premise that it does not affect normal skin flora? A. Mupirocin B. Neomycin C. Gentamicin D. Bacitracin - ANSWER-A. Mupirocin What is the likely reason for the strong anticholinergic activity in first generation antihistamines? A. The drug is less lipophilic B. The drug is highly lipophilic C. The drug is a substrate of P-glycoprotein D. The drug cannot cross the blood-brain barrier - ANSWER-B. The drug is highly lipophilic You and your friend are about to go to Siargao via land trip after your final exams. He asks you what he can take for "seasickness" and to avoid vomiting along the way. Which among the following is NOT TRUE of about the drug you will recommended? A. Readily crosses the blood-brain barrier B. Able to block autonomic receptors C. Selectively blocks H1 and H2 receptors D. Metabolized by CYP450 - ANSWER-C. Selectively blocks H1 and H2 receptors ER nurse mistakenly uses histamine for skin test on 23 year old female patient, instead of antibiotics. Question: Which of the following is directly responsible for the wheal formation? A. Axonal reflex B. Smooth muscle activation C. Increased capillary permeability D. Direct vasodilating effect of histamine - ANSWER-C. Increased capillary permeability Which of the following statements correctly pairs the antifungal drugs with their likely mechanism of action? A. Nystatin - inhibits ergosterol synthesis B. Amphotericin B - inhibits thymidylate synthetase C. Griseofulvin - interferes with microtubule function D. Flucytosine - inhibits fungal mycolic acid synthesis - ANSWER-C. Griseofulvin - interferes with microtubule function Which of the following statements best explains the mechanism of action of azoles? A. Formation of artificial pores in the fungal membrane B. Inhibition or conversion of squalene to lanosterol C. Inhibition or conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol D. Inhibition of fungal mitosis - ANSWER-C. Inhibition or conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol You want to use an antifungal that targets the fungal cell wall. Which component of the cell wall is commonly targeted? A. Chitin B. Beta-glucan C. Protein D. Ergosterol - ANSWER-B. Beta-glucan What is the site of action for platinum analogues and alkylating agents? A. Deoxyribonucleotides B. Deoxyribonucleic acid C. Ribonucleotides D. Ribonucleic acid - ANSWER-B. Deoxyribonucleic acid The primary target of folic analogs is the enzyme A. dihydrofolate reductase B. GAC transformylase C. thymidine synthase D. AICAR transformylase - ANSWER-A. dihydrofolate reductase This antineoplastic inhibits the enzyme ribonucleotide reductase, the rate-limiting step in the biosynthesis of DNA A. Cytarabine B. Hydroxyurea C. Fludarabine D. Melphalan - ANSWER-B. Hydroxyurea Which of the following antineoplastic drugs is correctly matched to its mechanism of action? A. Pemetrexed - Inhibits protein synthesis B. Cytarabine - Forms adducts with DNA C. Eribulin - Inhibits function of microtubules D. Capecitabine - inhibits dihydrofolate reduction - ANSWER-C. Eribulin - Inhibits function of microtubules Cyclooxygenase (COX) is a family of enzymes that A. make various prostaglandins from arachidonic acid B. metabolize NSAIDs C. are inhibited by allopurinol and febuxostat