Adult Health Care 7th Edition By Cooper-Test Bank

Chapter 1: Introduction to Anatomy and Physiology MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The anatomic term ____ means toward the midline. a. anterior b. posterior c. medial d. cranial 2. What are the smallest living components in our body? a. Cells b. Organs c. Electrons d. Osmosis 3. What is the largest organelle, responsible for cell reproduction and control of other organelles? a. Nucleus b. Ribosome c. Mitochondrion d. Golgi apparatus 4. When the patient complains of pain in the bladder, the patient will indicate discomfort in which body cavity? a. Pelvic b. Mediastinum c. Dorsal d. Abdominal 5. The four phases of cell division all occur in: a. diffusion. b. mitosis. c. osmosis. d. filtration. 6. Telophase is which phase of cell reproduction during mitosis? a. First phase b. Latent phase c. Final phase d. Spindle phase 7. The nurse is aware that which muscle group is both striated and involuntary? a. Skeletal b. Glial c. Cardiac d. Visceral 8. What is a group of several different kinds of tissues arranged so that together they can perform a more complex function than any tissue alone? a. Organ b. System c. Cell d. Endoplasmic reticulum 9. What traits describe visceral muscles? a. Smooth and voluntary b. Smooth and involuntary c. Striated and voluntary d. Striated and involuntary 10. How are the thoracic and abdominal cavities separated? a. By the pleura b. By the diaphragm c. By the sagittal plane d. By the peritoneum 11. What is the broad section of biology dealing with the description of human structure? a. Hematology b. Anatomy c. Kinesiology d. Physiology 12. ____ explains the processes and functions of many structures of the body and how they interact with one another. a. Anatomy b. Mitosis c. Filtration d. Physiology 13. The anatomic structure that is not in the thoracic cavity is/are the _____. a. Heart b. Lungs c. Blood vessels d. Transverse colon 14. When several organs and parts are grouped together for certain functions, they form: a. tissues. b. systems. c. cells. d. membranes. 15. What are the distinct surface proteins of the plasma membrane essential in determining? a. Tissue typing b. Blood count c. Effectiveness of a drug d. Sexual maturity 16. In anatomic terminology, posterior means toward the: a. tail. b. head. c. back. d. trunk. 17. What does the transverse body plane divide? a. The front and back (coronal) of the body b. The body lengthwise (two equal halves) c. The superior and inferior portions of the body d. The body into axial and appendicular 18. Caudal is defined as toward the ____. a. head b. feet c. tail d. chest 19. What is the term for movement of water from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration? a. Absorption b. Filtration c. Diffusion d. Osmosis 20. What is the type of tissue composed of cells that contract in response to a message from the brain or spinal cord? a. Epithelial b. Connective c. Membrane d. Muscle 21. What is the type of tissue associated with the storage of fat? a. Areolar tissue b. Adipose tissue c. Osseous tissue d. Muscle tissue 22. What are the thin sheets of tissue that lubricate and line the body surfaces that open to the outside environment? a. Mucous membranes b. Serous membranes c. Cytoplasm d. Involuntary visceral muscles 23. What is the process by which a cell digests a foreign material by surrounding it? a. Pinocytosis b. Phagocytosis c. Absorption d. Diffusion 24. Active transport in the movement of ions and other water-soluble particles across cell membranes requires that the body uses its:: a. rapid filtration. b. charged diffusion. c. a chemical pump. d. osmosis. 25. What is the term for the passage of water containing dissolved materials through a membrane as the result of a greater mechanical force on one side? a. Metabolism b. Mitosis c. Filtration d. Osmosis 26. The nurse is aware that when a patient complains of pain in the epigastric region, the source of the pain is most likely to be a disorder involving the: a. gallbladder. b. transverse colon. c. stomach. d. appendix. 27. What are tissues that cover the outside of the body and some internal structures? a. Connective b. Epithelial c. Nerve d. Muscle 28. When the nurse assesses an arm in proximal to distal order, the assessment is performed from: a. the shoulder to the fingers. b. front to back. c. fingers to the center of the body. d. center of the body to the fingers. 29. What is the function of epithelial membranes? a. Secretes mucus, lines ends of bones, and lines bursae b. Lines ends of bones, secretes synovial fluid, and lines internal surfaces of organs c. Covers the wall of lower digestive tract, secretes mucus, and lines lungs, peritoneum, and pericardium d. Lines lungs, peritoneum, and pericardium, and secretes synovial fluid 30. The nurse explains that pinocytosis is a process by which cells: a. divide. b. take in extracellular fluid. c. use a chemical pump. d. convert mitochondria. MULTIPLE RESPONSE 31. Which are among the 11 body systems? (Select all that apply.) a. Lymphatic b. Cellular c. Digestive d. Reproductive e. Accessory f. Spinal cord 32. Which of the following are characteristics of visceral muscles? (Select all that apply.) a. Involuntary b. Smooth c. Striated d. Independent from the spinal cord e. Voluntary f. Present in the blood vessels 33. Which of the following are passive transport mechanisms that move material across the cell membranes? (Select all that apply.) a. Diffusion b. Evaporation c. Filtration d. Osmosis e. Mitosis f. Anaphase 34. The nurse clarifies that the dorsal cavity is composed of the (select all that apply) : a. Descending colon b. Kidneys c. Gallbladder d. Brain e. Pancreas f. Spinal cavities COMPLETION 35. The nurse clarifies that the three functions of epithelial tissue are _____________,___________, and __________. 36. The nurse explains that ___________are small saclike structures inside the cell that digest compounds that have invaded the cell. 37. The body plane that divides the body into the ventral and dorsal section is the_________ plane. OTHER 38. List in order of increasing complexity the structural levels of organization of the body. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D) a. Body as a whole b. Cellular c. Organs d. Tissue e. Chemical f. System 39. Place the body structures in cranial-caudal priority. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D) a. Ribs b. Neck c. Clavicle d. Mandible e. Radius f. Occiput 40. Using a poster, the nurse demonstrates the protection of the nucleus. Arrange the layers starting with the most superficial. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D) a. Endoplasmic reticulum b. Nuclear membrane c. Nucleus d. Plasma membrane e. Cytoplasm Chapter 2: Care of the Surgical Patient MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. The patient who had a nephrectomy yesterday has not used the patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) delivery system but admits to being in pain but fearful of addiction. What is the nurse’s best response? a. “Modern analgesic drugs do not cause addiction.” b. “Pain relief is worth a short period of addiction.” c. “Addiction rarely occurs in the brief time postsurgical analgesia is required.” d. “Addiction could be a real concern.” 2. A 73-year-old patient with diabetes was admitted for below-the-knee amputation of his right leg. Removal of his right leg is an example of which type of surgery? a. Palliative b. Diagnostic c. Reconstructive d. Ablative 3. In which situation might surgery be delayed? a. The patient has taken Dilantin today. b. An illegible signature is on the consent form.. c. The patient is still taking anticoagulants. d. The admission office is unable to confirm insurance coverage. 4. Which circumstance could prevent the patient from signing his informed consent for a cholecystectomy? a. The patient complains of pain radiating to the scapula. b. The patient received an injection of Demerol, 75 mg IM, 1 hour ago. c. The patient is 85 years of age. d. The patient is concerned over his lack of insurance coverage. 5. The nurse anticipates that the patient will be given ______________anesthesia because of the extensive tissue manipulation involved in a hysterectomy. a. general b. regional c. specific d. preoperative 6. The nurse caring for a patient who had an epidural block for a vaginal repair should be alert for: a. a flushing of the face and torso. b. numbness of the perineum. c. complaint of thirst. d. a sudden drop in blood pressure. 7. Why might the older adult patient not respond to surgical treatment as well as a younger adult patient? a. Poor skin turgor b. Fear of the unknown c. Response to physiological changes d. Decreased peristalsis related to anesthesia 8. The postoperative nursing intervention that would be contraindicated for a 45-year-old patient who has had a repair of a cerebral aneurysm and is presenting signs of increased intracranial pressure (ICP) would be: a. coughing every 2 hours. b. turning every 2 hours. c. monitoring intravenous therapy at 50 ml/hr. d. assessing vital signs every 2 hours. 9. The nurse acting as a circulating nurse has a responsibility for: a. observing for breaks in sterile technique. b. identifying and handling surgical specimens correctly. c. assisting with surgical draping of the patient. d. maintaining count of sponges, needles, and instruments during surgery. 10. Which statement made by a patient during a preoperative assessment would be significant to report to the charge nurse and surgeon? a. “I have been taking an herbal product of feverfew for my migraines.” b. “I exercise for 3 hours a day.” c. “I drink 2 glasses of wine a day.” d. “I use atropine eyedrops every day.” 11. A patient is on postoperative day 2 after a nephrectomy. What is the most effective way to increase her peristalsis? a. Ambulation b. An enema c. Encouraging hot liquids d. Administering a laxative 12. A patient is transferred from the operating room to the recovery room after undergoing an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of his left ankle. Which is the first assessment to make? a. Check ankle dressings for hemorrhage. b. Check airway for patency. c. Check intravenous site. d. Check pedal pulse. 13. Frequent assessment of a postoperative patient is essential. What is one of the first signs and symptoms of hemorrhage? a. Increasing blood pressure b. Decreasing pulse c. Restlessness d. Weakness, apathy 14. The nurse instructing a postsurgical patient in the use of thrombolytic deterrent stockings would include which of the following instructions? a. Disregard appearance of edema above the stocking b. Massage legs to smooth wrinkles out of stockings c. Wring stockings thoroughly before hanging to dry d. Wash stockings in warm water and mild soap 15. The patient is brought into PACU still unconscious. What should the nurse do when the nurse assesses an oral temperature of 94° F? a. Notify the charge nurse immediately b. Offer warm fluids through a straw c. Do nothing, this is a normal reaction to anesthesia d. Cover with a warm blanket 16. In which location are guidelines for ensuring that all nursing interventions on the day of surgery completed and documented? a. In the nurse’s notes b. In the anesthesia record c. In the preoperative checklist d. In the progress notes 17. While turning a patient who had a bowel resection yesterday, the wound eviscerated. What is the initial nursing intervention? a. Place the patient in the high Fowler’s position. b. Give the patient fluids to prevent shock. c. Replace the dressing with sterile fluffy pads. d. Apply a warm, moist normal saline sterile dressing. 18. When should the nurse offer prescribed analgesics to a patient who is 24 hours postoperative? a. Only when the patient asks. b. When the onset of pain is assessed. c. Sparingly to avoid drug dependence. d. Only when severe pain is assessed. 19. What should the nurse do to minimize the potential for venous stasis? a. Place pillows under the knee in a position of comfort b. Assist patient to sit with feet flat on the floor c. Assist with early ambulation d. Perform gentle leg massage 20. The nurse clarifies that serum potassium levels are determined before surgery to: a. assess kidney function. b. determine respiratory insufficiency. c. prevent arrhythmias related to anesthesia. d. measure functional liver capability. 21. In performing the preoperative assessment, the nurse discovers that the patient is allergic to latex. What should the nurse do initially? a. Notify the diet kitchen to omit peaches from diet tray b. Apply a medical alert band to patient’s wrist c. Tag chart with allergy alert d. Place patient in an isolation room 22. Which of the following early postoperative observations should be reported immediately? a. “Coffee ground” emesis b. Shivering c. Scanty urine output d. Evidence of pain 23. When the postoperative patient complains of sudden chest pain combined with dyspnea, cyanosis, and tachycardia, the nurse recognizes the signs of: a. hypovolemic shock. b. dehiscence. c. atelectasis. d. pulmonary embolus. 24. The removal of a nondiseased appendix during a hysterectomy is classified as: a. major, emergency, diagnostic b. major, urgent, palliative c. minor, elective, ablative d. minor, urgent, reconstructive 25. Which medication would cause surgery to be delayed if it had not been discontinued several days before surgery? a. Analgesic agent b. Antihypertensive agent c. Anticoagulant agent d. Antibiotic agent 26. The most appropriate intervention by the nurse to decrease the pain of an abdominal incision while coughing would be to: a. Support the surgical site with a pillow b. Position patient in a side-lying position c. Medicate with prescribed narcotic before coughing d. Ask the patient to cross arms over the chest to increase force of cough 27. The nurse would include the nursing diagnosis of deficient knowledge, postoperative, when the patient scheduled for a bowel resection tomorrow remarks: a. “I am going to have adequate pain medication after surgery.” b. “I know you all are going to make me cough and walk soon after surgery.” c. ”I am glad I will get to go home tomorrow evening.” d. “I will have to put up with dressing changes.” 28. What instruction should a nurse give when teaching the patient to cough effectively after surgery? a. Breathe through the nose, hold breath, and exhale slowly. b. Take three deep breaths and cough from the chest. c. Inhale while contracting the abdominal muscles and exhale while contracting the diaphragm. d. Take short, frequent panting breaths and cough from the throat to clear accumulated mucus. 29. What is the responsibility of the nurse as a witness to informed consent? a. Explain the surgical options b. Explain the operative risks c. Verify/obtain the patient’s signature d. Verify the patient’s understanding of the procedure 30. On the patient’s return to the medical-surgical unit, the nurse performing an abdominal assessment can affirm an absence of bowel sounds after listening in each quadrant for at least: a. 30 seconds. b. 1 minute. c. 2 minutes. d. 3 minutes. 31. When the patient asks the nurse to make sure no one sees her with her dentures out, the nurse recognizes the common preoperative fear of: a. anesthesia. b. loss of control. c. fear of separation from family. d. mutilation. 32. What is the ideal time for preoperative teaching? a. Immediately before surgery to eliminate fear b. 2 months in advance so the patient can prepare c. 1 to 2 days before the surgery when anxiety is not as high d. In the surgical holding area 33. In preparation for the return of the surgical patient, the patient’s bed and equipment should be in what position? a. Lowest position with side rails elevated with oxygen and suction equipment available b. Highest position with side rails elevated with IV pole and pump at bedside c. Lowest position with side rails down on the receiving side d. Highest position with the side rails down on receiving side and up on opposite side MULTIPLE RESPONSE 34. A postoperative patient who had a left inguinal hernia repair is ready for his discharge instructions. Which information should the nurse provide? (Select all that apply.) a. Care of the wound site and any dressings b. When he may operate a motor vehicle c. Signs and symptoms to report to the physician d. Call the physician’s office once he arrives home e. Report bowel movements to the physician f. Actions and side effects of any medications 35. Which of the following are considerations for the older adult surgical patient? (Select all that apply.) a. The need for specific clear preoperative and postoperative teaching b. Awareness of lower morbidity and mortality rate c. Presence of coexisting conditions d. Increased risk of respiratory complications e. Expectation of normal recovery time 36. Which of the following are preoperative conditions that may affect the patient’s response to surgery? (Select all that apply.) a. Age b. Religion c. Mental status d. Occupation e. Nutritional status 37. Which interventions in preparing the patient for abdominal surgery may be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? a. Vital signs b. Insertion of N/G tube c. Enema d. Height and weight e. Obtaining operative consent f. Sterile gowning COMPLETION 38. ______________ therapy is performed to alleviate or decrease uncomfortable symptoms without curing the problem. 39. Discharge planning for a surgical procedure begins in the ______________ period and continues through the _____________ period. 40. The type of anesthesia that uses a combination of drugs to reduce the level of consciousness and provides amnesia is _________________ __________. 41. The nurse is aware that there is a loss of _________ during catabolism after severe tissue injury. 42. The nurse explains that to promote deep breathing and improve lung expansion and oxygenation the patient should use the _____________ ______________ at regular intervals during the day. 43. The nurse caring for a postsurgical patient is aware that the patient should void ____ to _____ hours postsurgery. OTHER 44. A patient is transferred from the operating room to the recovery room after undergoing an amputation of his left foot. Place the interventions in the correct order for immediate assessment once the patient enters the PACU. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D) a. System review b. Breathing c. Circulation d. Airway e. Level of consciousness 45. Place the instructions for controlled coughing in the correct sequence. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D) a. Inhale deeply and hold breath for a count of three b. Document exercise and patient reaction c. Cough 2 or 3 times without inhaling then relax d. Take several deep breaths e. Inhale through nose f. Exhale through pursed lips Chapter 3: Care of the Patient with an Integumentary Disorder MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. What should the nurse do when administering a therapeutic bath to a patient who has severe pruritus? a. Use Burow’s solution to help promote healing b. Rub the skin briskly to decrease pruritus c. Limit bathing to 3 times a week d. Ensure that bath area is at least 85 degrees and dehumidified 2. A frail, older adult home health patient who had chickenpox as a child has been exposed to varicella (chickenpox) several days ago. What should the nurse do? a. Assess frequently for herpes zoster b. Be aware of the patient’s immunity to chickenpox c. Encourage the patient to have a pneumonia vaccine d. Arrange for the patient to receive gamma globulin 3. A patient has herpes zoster (shingles) and is being treated with acyclovir (Zovirax). What should the nurse do when administering this drug? a. Apply lightly, being careful not to completely cover the lesion b. After application, wrap in warm wet dressings c. Use gloves d. Rub medication into lesions 4. A child has been sent to the school nurse with pruritus and honey-colored crusts on the lower lip and chin. The nurse believes these lesions most likely are: a. chickenpox. b. impetigo. c. shingles. d. herpes simplex type I. 5. A school nurse assesses a child who has an erythematous circular patch of vesicles on her scalp with alopecia and complains of pain and pruritus. Why would the nurse use a Woods lamp? a. To dry out the lesions b. To reduce the pruritus c. To kill the fungus d. To cause fluorescence of the infected hairs 6. A patient, age 46, reports to his physician’s office with urticaria with elevated lesions that are white in the center with a pale red border on hands and arms. He says, “It itches like crazy.” Which type of lesion would the nurse include in her documentation? a. Macules b. Plaques c. Wheals d. Vesicles 7. The home health nurse assessing skin lesions uses the PQRST mnemonic as a guide. What does the S in this guide indicate? a. Severity of the symptoms b. Site of the lesions c. Symptomatology of the lesions d. Surface area of the lesions 8. What would the nurse stress to the 17-year-old girl who has been prescribed Accutane for her acne? a. Avoid alcoholic beverages b. Drink at least 1000 mL of fluid daily c. Use dependable birth control to avoid pregnancy d. Avoid exposure to the sun 9. A 30-year-old African American had surgery 6 months ago and the incision site is now raised, indurated, and shiny. This is most likely which type of tissue growth? a. Angioma b. Keloid c. Melanoma d. Nevus 10. A patient, age 37, sustained partial- and full-thickness burns to 26% of the body surface area. When would the greatest fluid loss resulting from the burns occur? a. Within 12 hours after burn trauma b. 24 to 36 hours after burn trauma c. 24 to 48 hours after burn trauma d. 48 to 72 hours after burn trauma 11. Most of the deaths from burn trauma in the emergent phase that require a referral to a burn center result from: a. infection. b. arrhythmias with cardiac arrest. c. hypovolemic shock and renal failure. d. adrenal failure. 12. The nurse takes into consideration that carbon monoxide intoxication secondary to smoke inhalation is often fatal because carbon monoxide: a. binds with hemoglobin in place of oxygen. b. interferes with oxygen intake. c. is a respiratory depressant. d. is a toxic agent. 13. A nurse arrives at an accident scene where the victim has just received an electrical burn. What is the nurse’s primary concern? a. The extent and depth of the burn b. The sites of entry and exit c. The likelihood of cardiac arrest d. Control of bleeding 14. A patient, age 27, sustained thermal burns to 18% of her body surface area. After the first 72 hours, the nurse will have to observe for the most common cause of burn-related deaths, which is: a. shock. b. respiratory arrest. c. hemorrhage. d. infection. 15. Two weeks after a severe burn of over 20% of the body, the patient vomits bright red blood. Which condition is most likely? a. Curling ulcer b. Paralytic ileus c. Hypoglycemia perforation of the stomach by the NG tube d. Gastritis 16. When providing the open method of treatment for a patient who is 52 years old with burns to the lower extremities, what would a nurse include in the nursing plan? a. Change the dressing using good medical asepsis b. Provide an analgesic immediately after the dressing change c. Perform circulation checks every 2 to 4 hours d. Keep the room temperature at 85° F (29.4° C) to prevent chilling 17. The nurse has staged a pressure ulcer that has a shallow crater with a dry pink wound bed as a: a. stage I b. stage II c. stage III d. stage IV 18. What would the nurse dressing a necrotic pressure ulcer with a minimal exudate most likely use? a. Hydrocolloid dressing b. Alginate dressing c. Hydrofiber dressing d. Transparent film 19. The nurse is caring for a 26-year-old male patient who was burned 72 hours ago. He has partial-thickness burns to 24% of his body surface area. He begins to excrete large amounts of urine. What should the nurse do? a. Increase the IV rate and monitor for burn shock b. Monitor for signs of seizure activity. c. Assess for signs of fluid overload d. Raise the foot of the bed and apply blankets 20. A patient with severe eczema is starting a coal tar derivative treatment. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan for the patient relative to this treatment? a. Drink at least 1000 mL of fluid daily b. Avoid exposure to sunlight for 72 hours after use c. Bathe with an astringent soap d. Reduce intake of high calcium foods 21. What should the nurse examine in assessing a patient for tinea corporis? a. Soles of the feet b. Scalp c. Armpits d. Abdomen 22. What is the initial intervention for relief of the pruritus of dermatitis venenata? a. Apply baking soda to lesions b. Wash area with copious amounts of water c. Apply cool compresses continuously d. Expose area to air 23. The nurse debriding a burn wound explains that the purpose of debridement is to: a. increase the effectiveness of the skin graft. b. prevent infection and promote healing. c. promote suppuration of the wound. d. promote movement in the affected area. 24. A patient has been admitted to the hospital with burns to the upper chest. The nurse notes singed nasal hairs. The nurse needs to assess this patient frequently for which condition? a. Decreased activity b. Bradycardia c. Respiratory complications d. Hypertension 25. Which may indicate a malignant melanoma in a nevus on a patient’s arm? a. Even coloring of the mole b. Decrease in size of the mole c. Irregular border of the mole d. Symmetry of the mole 26. A nurse can assess cyanosis in a dark-skinned patient by noting the color of the: a. conjunctiva. b. sclera. c. lips and mucous membranes. d. soles of the feet. 27. A patient developed a severe contact dermatitis of the hands, arms, and lower legs after spending an afternoon picking strawberries. The patient states that the itching is severe and cannot keep from scratching. Which instruction would be most helpful in managing the pruritus? a. Use cool, wet dressings and baths to promote vasoconstriction. b. Trim the fingernails short to prevent skin damage from scratching. c. Expose the areas to the sun to promote drying and healing of the lesions. d. Wear cotton gloves and cover all other affected areas with clothing to prevent environmental irritation. 28. What is the best instruction by the nurse regarding reducing the risk factors for melanoma? a. Avoid exposure to the sun and use protective measures when exposure occurs. b. Have all nevi removed. c. Watch for changes in moles, especially on the back. d. Use a sun lamp for tanning. 29. Which patient instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan relative to the management of systemic lupus erythematosus? a. Maintain a balance between rest and activity b. Increase activity to promote mobility c. Increase exposure to the sun to increase vitamin D absorption d. Increase sodium consumption 30. Which patient statement indicates that more teaching is needed regarding antibiotic therapy for the treatment of cellulitis? a. ”My skin is cleared up. I don’t think I need the medication anymore.” b. “Cellulitis can come back at any time.” c. “If I had washed that scratch with soap and water, I probably would not have gotten cellulitis.” d. ”Cellulitis is contagious.” 31. What should a patient be assessed for upon the diagnosis of genital herpes? a. Hepatitis B b. Syphilis c. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV). d. Cirrhosis 32. The school nurse recognizes the signs of scabies when a child presents with: a. small fluid filled blisters that sting when scratched. b. dry scaly patches in body creases that itch. c. wavy threadlike lines on the body and pruritus. d. cluster of papular lesions with pruritus. 33. Melanocytes give rise to the pigment melanin, which is responsible for skin color. Where can the melanocytes be found? a. Dermis b. Superficial fascia c. Epidermis d. Loose connective tissue MULTIPLE RESPONSE 34. Which of the following are major functions of the skin? (Select all that apply.) a. Excretion of wastes b. Protection c. Vitamin C synthesis d. Temperature regulation e. Prevention of dehydration 35. During primary survey assessment of a burn patient, the nurse checks for which of the following as early signs of carbon monoxide poisoning? (Select all that apply.) a. Dizziness b. Urticaria c. Vomiting d. Headache e. Vertigo f. Unsteady gait 36. What is a common diagnostic criterion for identifying systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)? (Select all that apply.) a. Butterfly rash over nose and cheeks b. Photosensitivity c. Severe abdominal pain d. Skin ulcers e. Polyarthralgias and polyarthritis f. Immobility 37. Which of the following are nursing interventions and patient teaching for the treatment of head lice and scabies? (Select all that apply.) a. Clothing, linens, and bath articles thoroughly cleaned in hot water b. Stress nature and transmission of the disease c. Special carbohydrate diet to promote healing d. Complete isolation from the public COMPLETION 38. The most deadly skin cancer is ________________. 39. The three major glands of the skin are __________, ___________, and __________. 40. The nurse making the initial assessment of a burned patient in the emergency room observes that the entire right arm (anterior and posterior), right anterior leg, chest, and abdomen are covered with reddened skin and blisters. Using the Rule of Nines, the nurse estimates the percentage of burn to be______%. OTHER 41. Prioritize the intervention of the first responder to the victim during the emergent phase of burn management. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D.) a. Transport victim to hospital. b. Cover victim with clean cloth or sheet. c. Stop, drop, and roll. d. Remove all nonadherent clothing and jewelry. e. Provide an open airway. f. Control any bleeding. 42. Prioritize the interventions for a hospitalized severely burned victim during the emergent phase. (Separate letters by a comma and space as follows: A, B, C, D.) a. Tetanus prophylaxis b. Insert Foley catheter c. Insert nasogastric tube d. Establish airway e. Administer analgesics f. 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