NURS 6630N Final Exam
NURS 6630N Week 11 FINAL EXAM
NURS-6630N: Psychopharmacologic Approaches
to Treatment of Psychopathology.
Latest New Versions
76 Q & A in Each Version, Verified and 100 % Correct|
Best document for Exam
Absolute Satisfaction
, Test Week 11 Final Exam
Started 2/8/19 10:24 AM
Submitted 2/8/19 11:55 AM
Due Date 2/11/19 1:59 AM
Status Completed
Attempt Score 71 out of 75 points
Time Elapsed 1 hour, 30 minutes out of 2
hours
Results Submitted Answers
Displayed
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is caring for a patient with fibromyalgia. Which second-line treatment does
the PMHNP select that may be effective for managing this patient’s pain?
Selected C.
Answer: Imipramine
(Tofranil)
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is working with the student to care for a patient with diabetic peripheral
neuropathic pain. The student asks the PMHNP why SSRIs are not consistently useful in
treating this particular patient’s pain. What is the best response by the PMHNP?
Selected B.
Answer: “SSRIs only increase serotonin
levels.”
Question 3
, 1 out of 1 points
A patient is being prescribed bupropion and is concerned about the side effects. What
will the PMHNP tell the patient regarding bupropion?
Selected C.
Answer: It can cause cardiac
arrhythmias.
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP prescribes an obese patient phentermine (Adipex-p)/topiramate ER
(Topamax) (Qsymia), Why is topiramate (Topamax) often prescribed with phentermine
(Adipex-P)?
Selected B.
Answer: Phentermine (Adipex-P) works by suppressing appetite while
topiramate (Topamax) acts by inhibiting appetite.
Question 5
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is performing a quality assurance peer review of the chart of another
PMHNP. Upon review, the PMHNP reviews the chart of an older adult patient in long-term
care facility who has chronic insomnia. The chart indicates that the patient has been
receiving hypnotics on a nightly basis. What does the PMHNP find problematic about this
documentation?
Selected B.
Answer: Hypnotics have prolonged half-lives that can cause drug
accumulation in the elderly.
Question 6
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association with
aggressive behaviors in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a
standard dose of atypical antipsychotics?
Selected C.
Answer: The doses are based on achieving 60% D2 receptor
occupancy.
NURS 6630N Week 11 FINAL EXAM
NURS-6630N: Psychopharmacologic Approaches
to Treatment of Psychopathology.
Latest New Versions
76 Q & A in Each Version, Verified and 100 % Correct|
Best document for Exam
Absolute Satisfaction
, Test Week 11 Final Exam
Started 2/8/19 10:24 AM
Submitted 2/8/19 11:55 AM
Due Date 2/11/19 1:59 AM
Status Completed
Attempt Score 71 out of 75 points
Time Elapsed 1 hour, 30 minutes out of 2
hours
Results Submitted Answers
Displayed
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is caring for a patient with fibromyalgia. Which second-line treatment does
the PMHNP select that may be effective for managing this patient’s pain?
Selected C.
Answer: Imipramine
(Tofranil)
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is working with the student to care for a patient with diabetic peripheral
neuropathic pain. The student asks the PMHNP why SSRIs are not consistently useful in
treating this particular patient’s pain. What is the best response by the PMHNP?
Selected B.
Answer: “SSRIs only increase serotonin
levels.”
Question 3
, 1 out of 1 points
A patient is being prescribed bupropion and is concerned about the side effects. What
will the PMHNP tell the patient regarding bupropion?
Selected C.
Answer: It can cause cardiac
arrhythmias.
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP prescribes an obese patient phentermine (Adipex-p)/topiramate ER
(Topamax) (Qsymia), Why is topiramate (Topamax) often prescribed with phentermine
(Adipex-P)?
Selected B.
Answer: Phentermine (Adipex-P) works by suppressing appetite while
topiramate (Topamax) acts by inhibiting appetite.
Question 5
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is performing a quality assurance peer review of the chart of another
PMHNP. Upon review, the PMHNP reviews the chart of an older adult patient in long-term
care facility who has chronic insomnia. The chart indicates that the patient has been
receiving hypnotics on a nightly basis. What does the PMHNP find problematic about this
documentation?
Selected B.
Answer: Hypnotics have prolonged half-lives that can cause drug
accumulation in the elderly.
Question 6
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association with
aggressive behaviors in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a
standard dose of atypical antipsychotics?
Selected C.
Answer: The doses are based on achieving 60% D2 receptor
occupancy.