NURS 6630N Final Exam
NURS 6630N Week 11 FINAL EXAM
NURS-6630N: Psychopharmacologic Approaches
to Treatment of Psychopathology.
Latest New Versions
76 Q & A in Each Version, Verified and 100 % Correct|
Best document for Exam
Absolute Satisfaction
,NURS 6630 Final
Exam
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Why does the PMHNP avoid prescribing clozapine (Clozaril) as a first-
line treatment to the patient with psychosis and aggression?
Selected A.
Answer: There is too high a risk of serious adverse side
effects.
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
A 75-year-old male patient diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease
presents with agitation and aggressive behavior. The PMHNP
determines which of the following to be the best treatment option?
Selected Answer: D.
Citalopram (Celexa) or Escitalopram (Lexapro)
, Question 3
1 out of 1 points
A group of nursing students seeks further clarification from the
PMHNP on how cholinesterase inhibitors are beneficial for
Alzheimer’s disease patients. What is the appropriate response?
Selected Answer: D.
Both
“A” &
“C.”
A. Acetylcholine (ACh) destruction is inhibited by blocking
the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. B. Effectiveness of these
agents occurs in all stages of Alzheimer’s disease. C. By
increasing acetylcholine, the decline in some patients may be
less rapid.
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP understands that slow-dose extended release stimulants
are most appropriate for which patient with ADHD?
Selected Answer: A.
8-year-old patient
Question 5
1 out of 1 points
An 8-year-old patient presents with severe hyperactivity, described as
“ants in his pants.” Based on self-report from the patient, his parents,
and his teacher; attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is
suspected. What medication is the PMNHP most likely to prescribe?
NURS 6630N Week 11 FINAL EXAM
NURS-6630N: Psychopharmacologic Approaches
to Treatment of Psychopathology.
Latest New Versions
76 Q & A in Each Version, Verified and 100 % Correct|
Best document for Exam
Absolute Satisfaction
,NURS 6630 Final
Exam
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Why does the PMHNP avoid prescribing clozapine (Clozaril) as a first-
line treatment to the patient with psychosis and aggression?
Selected A.
Answer: There is too high a risk of serious adverse side
effects.
Question 2
1 out of 1 points
A 75-year-old male patient diagnosed with Alzheimer’s disease
presents with agitation and aggressive behavior. The PMHNP
determines which of the following to be the best treatment option?
Selected Answer: D.
Citalopram (Celexa) or Escitalopram (Lexapro)
, Question 3
1 out of 1 points
A group of nursing students seeks further clarification from the
PMHNP on how cholinesterase inhibitors are beneficial for
Alzheimer’s disease patients. What is the appropriate response?
Selected Answer: D.
Both
“A” &
“C.”
A. Acetylcholine (ACh) destruction is inhibited by blocking
the enzyme acetylcholinesterase. B. Effectiveness of these
agents occurs in all stages of Alzheimer’s disease. C. By
increasing acetylcholine, the decline in some patients may be
less rapid.
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP understands that slow-dose extended release stimulants
are most appropriate for which patient with ADHD?
Selected Answer: A.
8-year-old patient
Question 5
1 out of 1 points
An 8-year-old patient presents with severe hyperactivity, described as
“ants in his pants.” Based on self-report from the patient, his parents,
and his teacher; attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is
suspected. What medication is the PMNHP most likely to prescribe?
