MICROBIOLOGY FINAL TEST BANK| COMPREHENSIVE SOLUTIONS UPDATE

MICROBIOLOGY FINAL TEST BANK| COMPREHENSIVE SOLUTIONS UPDATEMICROBIOLOGY FINAL TEST BANK| COMPREHENSIVE SOLUTIONS UPDATE Penicillin controls bacterial growth by: A) preventing synthesis of the lipopolysaccharide layer B) inhibiting protein synthesis C) preventing cross-link formation in peptidoglycan D) preventing generation of the proton motive force preventing cross-link formation in peptidoglycan Reproduction via binary fission leads to what type of growth under optimal conditions: A) linear B) mixed C) exponential D) uptake-limited exponential Protection against osmotic lyses is provided by: A) lysosomes B) the cellular plasma membrane C) the cell's capsule D) the cell wall the cell wall Name associated with the presense of a cell wall and a capsule together in a bacterial cell wall: A) the envelope B) the capsule C) the cytoplasmic membrane D) the cell wall the envelope Which of the following is true about the lag phase: A) cells adapt to a new medium B) in some cases it may be very short C) cells replenish spent materials D) all of the above all of the above A student is asked by the professor to sub-culture a bacterial organism onto fresh media for future studies. However during sub-culturing the students lock the test tube preventing oxygen flow into the media. After days the culture dyes. What type of culture did the student have at hand: A) obligate aerobe B) strict anaerobe C) facultative anaerobe D) none of the above obligate aerobe Staining procedure designed for bacterial families with high lipid content and resistant to standard staining: A) gram stain B) negative staining C) acid fast staining D) simple stain acid fast staining Which of the following is not considered a starvation response? A) endospore formation B) synthesis of starvation proteins C) cell death at a logrtihmic rate D) a decrease in cellular size and nucleoid condensation cell death at a logrtihmic rate Organelle responsible for the synthesis of protein in a eukaryotic cell: A) the smooth ER B) the rough ER C) the Golgi complex D) the nucleus the rough ER Which of the following is the most important structure related to microbial attachment to cells? A) flagellum B) plasmid C) peptidoglycan D) glycocalix glycocalix Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct when comparing prokaryotic and eukaryotic genome? A) bacteria mostly have one circular DNA molecule B) Eukaryotes have linear DNA C) Both A and B D) None of the above Both A and B membranes allow some molecules to pass but not all. A) Permeable B) Inverted Membrane C) Selectively Membrane D) Impermeable Selectively Membrane The ribosome binding site A) forms a stem-loop structure in the RNA B) is located upstream of the promoter sequence C) is located immediately upstream of the start codon D) is more likely to be associated with an operon than with a gene encoding a single protein is located immediately upstream of the start codon The nucleus of a eukaryote does not contain A) nuclear membrane B) nucleoid C) nuclear pores D) nucleolus nucleoid The protein coat and lipid envelopes are components that help to protect the viral A) capsid B) genome C) tegument D) spikes genome Which of the following helps protect bacteria from lysis in dilute solution and helps to determine cellular morphology? A) plasma membrane B) capsule C) gas vacuoles D) cell wall cell wall Chapter 35 Questions Parasite are organisms that A. Live in a host B. Depend metabolically on the host C. Can cause disease D. All of the above All of the above Opportunistic pathogens are different from primary pathogens because A. Opportunistic pathogens causes disease by direct interaction with the healthy host B. Opportunistic pathogens are part of a normal flora that can causes disease when it gains access to other sites or the host is immunocompromised C. There are no differences between primary and opportunistic pathogens D. Primary pathogens only cause disease in an immunocompromised host Opportunistic pathogens are part of a normal flora that can causes disease when it gains access to other sites or the host is immunocompromised Pathogenicity is the ability to A. Ability of a parasite to cause disease B. The ability of a parasite to generate a pathway C. The ability of a parasite to grow rapidly in a short amount of time D. None of the above Ability of a parasite to cause disease Which of these are part of the chain of infection? A. Agent identity B. Virulence of agent C. Half-life of the agent D. All of the above E. A and B A and B What is a reservoir in terms of pathogens? A. A place inside the pathogen where materials are stored B. The human body that the pathogen infects C. The natural environmental location in which the pathogen normally resides The natural environmental location in which the pathogen normally resides What allows a pathogen to outcompete host cells and resist their defenses? A. A suitable environment B. Competition with other host cells C. Transcription factors D. Virulence factors Virulence factors What are intoxications? A. Diseases that results from entry of a specific preformed toxin into the host B. A condition caused by toxins in the blood of the host C. The condition of being drunk D. The ability of a host to fight against a toxin Diseases that results from entry of a specific preformed toxin into the host Symptoms are A. Objective changes experienced by the patient B. Objective changes in the body that can be directly observed C. Subjective changes experienced by the patient D. Subjective changes in the body that can be directly observed Subjective changes experienced by the patient Give the correct order of the course of infection A. Prodromal stage, incubation period, period of illness, convalescence B. Incubation period, prodromal stage, period of illness, convalescence C. Convalescence prodromal stage, incubation period, period of illness D. Period of illness, convalescence, prodromal stage, incubation period Incubation period, prodromal stage, period of illness, convalescence Pathogenicity Islands A. Increases bacterial virulence B. Absent in nonpathogenic members C. Common sequence characteristics D. Can be spread through horizontal transfer of virulence genes to bacteria E. All of the above All of the above True or False: The first step in disease is entrance and attachment True Adherence is mediated by what special molecule? A. Cohesions B. Autolysins C. Biofilms D. None of the above None of the above Which of these are adherence structures? A. Flagella, pili B. Fimbriae, cilia C. Flagella, cilia D. Fimbriae, pili Fimbriae, pili Penetration can be A. Passive and occur through spreading to deeper tissue by way of skin lesion or wound B. Active and occur through use of lytic substances C. Directly through the shear will of the pathogen D. A and B A and B Bacteremia and septicemia can occur when a bacteria or pathogen enters the A. Respiratory system B. Endocrine system C. Circulatory system D. Gastrointestinal system Circulatory system Exotoxins are toxins that A. Work inside the bacteria/pathogen itself B. Mostly produced by gram negative bacteria C. Are highly immunogenic D. Are soluble, heat-labile, proteins E. B, C, and D B, C, and D Endotoxins are toxins that A. Are heat stable B. Weakly immunogenic C. Cause general system effects D. All of the above All of the above What is the toxic component of lipopolysaccharide? A. protein portion, amino acid A B. lipid portion, lipid C C. Nucleotide portion, phosphate D D. lipid portion, lipid A lipid portion, lipid A What is a mycotoxin? A. Secondary metabolite of fungi B. Secondary metabolite of photosynthesis C. Secondary metabolite of prokaryotes D. Secondary metabolite of roots Secondary metabolite of fungi Biofilm Development causes issues by A. Decreasing virulence B. Increasing virulence C. Stopping chronic infection D. B and C Increasing virulence Capsules prevent A. Phagocytosis B. Bacterial death C. Infection D. Septicemia Phagocytosis A droplet nuclei is A. Usually propelled from the circulatory system B. Usually propelled from the respiratory system C. Usually propelled from the Urinary tract Usually propelled from the respiratory system Vertical transmission happens from A. Child to mother B. Father to child C. Child to Father D. Mother to Child Mother to Child True or False: Genomics is the study of molecular organization of genomes, their information content, and gene products they encode True Sanger DNA sequencing is referred to as A. Elongation method B. DNA description and copying C. Chain-termination DNA sequencing D. Nucleotide-ending DNA replication Chain-termination DNA sequencing The gel used to determine sequence in Sanger Sequencing is read from A. Top to bottom B. Side to side C. Left to right D. Bottom to top Bottom to top Whole Genome sequencing was developed in 1995 by A. Schlieden and Schwan B. Robert Hooke C. Dr. Gordon D. J. Craig Venter and Hamilton Smith J. Craig Venter and Hamilton Smith Bioinformatics is done A. In vivo B. In vitro C. In silico D. In situ In silico Respectively, the 5' and 3' end of an open reading frame have A. Ribosomal binding site and terminator sequence B. End codon and terminator sequence C. Start codon and nucleotides D. DNA polymerase and RNA Ribosomal binding site and terminator sequence What is a BLAST A. Blind local assignment search tool B. Basic local alignment search tool C. Basic linked assignment search transfer D. Building local alignment swift transfer Basic local alignment search tool Functional genomics provides information on A. All of the below B. Metabolic pathways C. Transport mechanisms D. Regulatory and signal transduction mechanisms All of the below True or False: A transcriptome is only a defined portion of all rRNA present after a period of stable environment False A core genome and pan-genome are defined as A. Core genome is the set of genes found in less than half the members of a monophyletic group while the pan-genome is a combination of all genes of all strains B. Pan-genome is a set of genes found in all members of a monophyletic group and a core genome is a combination of all genes of all strains. C. A core genome is a set of genes found in all members of aa monophyletic group while a pan-genome is a combination of all genes of all strains D. None of the above A core genome is a set of genes found in all members of aa monophyletic group while a pan-genome is a combination of all genes of all strains Pseudogenes are genes in relatives A. Functional; pathogenic B. Non-functional; non-pathogenic C. Non-functional; pathogenic D. Functional; non-pathogenic Non-functional; non-pathogenic True or False: A type of metagenomics is environmental genomics True Two types of regulation are A. Regulation of gene expression and transcriptional expression B. Regulation of gene expression and altered activity of enzymes and proteins C. Permanent shut off of enzymes and transcription D. There is no regulation of genes Regulation of gene expression and altered activity of enzymes and proteins What is the central Dogma of Biology? A. DNA mRNA protein B. mRNA DNA protein C. Protein mRNA DNA D. DNA Protein mRNA DNA mRNA protein True or False: constitutive genes are housekeeping genes that are expressed continuously by the cell. True Inducible genes are genes that code for enzymes needed only in certain environments A. ATP synthase B. Proton pumps C. Inducible D. Constitutive Inducible Inducible enzymes are present only when what is available? A. Substrate B. Inducer C. Effector molecule D. All of the above All of the above Repressible genes have enzymes that A. Function in biosynthetic pathways B. Function in catabolic pathways C. Are always present unless end product in biosynthetic pathway is available D. Are always present unless end product in catabolic pathway is available E. A and C A and C Negative transcriptional control deals with the binding of regulatory protein (repressor) at DNA regulatory site (operator) to inhibit the initiation of transcription. What effect does this have? A. DNA replication is stopped B. Stops translation C. mRNA expression is reduced D. There is no effect mRNA expression is reduced Positive control is the binding of a regulatory protein (activator protein) at a regulatory region on DNA (activator binding sires) and promotes transcription initiation. What effect does this have? A. mRNA synthesis is increased B. DNA synthesis is increased C. tRNA synthesis is increased D. There is no effect mRNA synthesis is increased True or false: the lac repressor (lacI) binds the operator and inhibits transcription True The tryptophan operon only functions in what case? A. Absence of tyrosine B. Absence of tryptophan C. Presence of tyrosine D. Presence of tryptophan Presence of tryptophan Attenuation, or the termination of transcription within a leader region, occurs when there is formation of ? A. Formation of the 1-2 stem loop B. Formation of the 2-3 stem loop C. Formation of the 3-4 stem loop D. Formation of the 1-4 stem loop Formation of the 3-4 stem loop Regulon is A. Group of regulators B. Group of genes or operons controlled by a common regulatory protein C. Group of proteins controlled by a common gene D. None of the above Group of genes or operons controlled by a common regulatory protein Global regulatory systems often use many types of regulation such as: A. Two component signal transduction systems B. Phosphorelay systems C. Regulatory proteins D. Alternative sigma factors E. All of the above All of the above True or False: Two component regulatory systems are found in all three domains of life True Respectively, Env Z and OmpR are A. Response regulator and sensor kinase B. Senor kinase and response regulator C. Both are sensor kinases D. Both are response regulators Senor kinase and response regulator OmpC is a and OmpF is a A. Large porin protein ; small porin protein B. Small porin protein ; large porin protein Small porin protein ; large porin protein Genotype is the A. Specific set of genes an organism possess B. Specific set of genetic variation in an organism C. Specific set of proteins found in genes D. None of these Specific set of genes an organism possess When type R cells and Type S DNA extract is mixed and grown on a plate, what will happen? A. There will be no growth B. There will be growth of fungi C. There will be DNA transformation D. The cells will destroy the DNA There will be DNA transformation DNA and RNA are polymers of nucleotides that are linked together by A. Glycosidic linkages B. Phosphodiester bonds C. Nucleic acid bands D. Peptide bonds Phosphodiester bonds DNA and RNA sugars are A. DNA sugar is ribose and RNA sugar is deoxyribose B. DNA sugar and RNA sugar are deoxyribose C. DNA sugar is deoxyribose and RNA sugar is ribose D. DNA sugar and RNA sugar are ribose DNA sugar is deoxyribose and RNA sugar is ribose Proteins have A. Carboxy group B. Amino group C. Side chain D. All of the above All of the above DNA synthesis is A. Non-conservative B. Semiconservative C. Completely conservative D. B and C Semiconservative True or False: The replication fork is where DNA is unwound True DNA synthesis goes in A. 5' to 4' direction B. 5' to 5' direction C. 3' to 5' direction D. 5' to 3' direction 5' to 3' direction What is the purpose of topoisomerases? A. Sits on top of DNA isomers B. Breaks one strand of DNA to relive tension from rapid unwinding of double helix C. Prevents supercoiling D. B and C B and C Lagging strand synthesis happens in short fragments called A. Okazaki fragments B. Replication fragments C. Lagging fragments D. DNA fragments Okazaki fragments True or false: Primase synthesizes a DNA primer false What is the purpose of DNA polymerase III? A. Makes RNA primers B. This does not exist C. Proofreads the DNA D. None of the above Proofreads the DNA Catenanes form when A. When daughter RNA strands do not separate B. When two circular daughter chromosomes do not separate C. When DNA synthesis does not begin correctly D. None of the above When two circular daughter chromosomes do not separate True or False: the template strand of DNA directs RNA synthesis and is read in the 3' to 5' direction. True The coding region ends with a A. antisense codon B. Stop codon C. Neither A and B D. Both A and B Stop codon True or false: DNA sequences coding for tRNA and dTNA are considered genes false What types of RNA can be synthesized in transcription A. mRNA B. tRNA C. rRNA D. All of the above All of the above UGA, UAA, and UAG are all version of A. Start codon B. Stop codon C. Both of these D. None of these Stop codon Attachment of amino acid to tRNA is catalyzed by A. Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase B. Aminoacyl-rRNA synthetase C. aminoacyl-mRNA synthetase D. None of the above Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase What are the products of fueling reactions? A. Precursor molecules B. Reducing power C. ATP D. All of the above All of the above Antibiotics can A. Inhibit anabolic pathways B. Protect anabolic pathways C. Have no effect on anabolic pathways Inhibit anabolic pathways True or false: metabolism is carefully regulated True Catabolic and anabolic pathways are as some enzymes function in direction(s) A. Identical; both B. Not identical; both C. Identical; only one D. Not identical; only one Not identical; only one Anabolic and catabolic reactions are A. Located in separate compartments B. Allowed to operate simultaneously but independently C. A and B D. None of them A and B Calvin cycle is A. Used by most autotrophs to fix CO2 B. Used in the stroma of chloroplasts C. Happens in the mitochondria D. A and B A and B In the Calvin cycle, what is reduced and regenerated? A. 3-phospho-glycerate is reduced and RuBP is regenerated B. 3-phospho-glycerate is regenerated and RuBP is reduced C. Glucose is reduced and RuBP is regenerated D. B and C 3-phospho-glycerate is reduced and RuBP is regenerated The reductive TCA cycle A. Is a CO2 fixation pathway B. Runs the same way as the oxidative TCA cycle C. Runs the opposite way of the oxidative TCA cycle D. A and C A and C In gluconeogenesis, synthesis of glucose and related sugars is done by starting with A. Fructose B. Glucose C. Non-glucose precursors D. Genesis precursors Non-glucose precursors Gluconeogenesis and glycolysis A. Are functionally reverses of each other B. Are functionally the same C. Are both catabolic processes D. None of the above Are functionally reverses of each other Nitrogen fixation is the A. Oxidation of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia B. Reduction of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia C. Oxidation of ammonia to atmospheric nitrogen D. Reduction of ammonia to atmospheric nitrogen Reduction of atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia Nitrogenase activity requires A. 3 steps to reduce N2 to 2 molecules of NH3 B. Large amount of ATP C. Nitrogen D. All of the above All of the above True or False: ammonia nitrogen is easily incorporated into organic material because it is more reduced than other forms of inorganic nitrogen True What is used to transport Nag-Nam pentapeptide unites across the cell membrane? A. Bactoprenol B. Bacillus C. Glucose D. Streptomyces Bactoprenol What is the function of autolysins? A. Causes a limited digestion of peptidoglycan B. Allows for new material to be added to wall C. Allows for division to occur D. All of the above All of the above Sulfur is important in synthesis of which amino acids? A. Alanine and cysteine B. Cysteine and methionine C. Methionine and tryptophan D. Tyrosine and tryptophan Cysteine and methionine In the case of Purines and pyrimidines: A. Purines have 2 rings and pyrimidines have 3 B. Purines have 1 ring and pyrimidines have 2 C. Purines have 2 rings and pyrimidines have 1 D. Purines and pyrimidines both have two rings Purines have 2 rings and pyrimidines have 1 True or false: Most bacterial and eukaryotic lipids contain fatty acids True Which nutritional type is matched incorrectly with its carbon source A. Photolithoautotroph use CO2 as a carbon source B. Chemolithoautotrophs use CO2 as a carbon source C. Chemolithoheterotrophs use CO2 as a carbon source D. Chemoorganoheterotrophs use an organic carbon source Chemolithoheterotrophs use CO2 as a carbon source Which is not a chemoorganotrophic fueling process? A. Aerobic respiration B. Anaerobic respiration C. Fermentation D. All of these are chemoorganotrophic fueling processes All of these are chemoorganotrophic fueling processes What is the final electron acceptor of aerobic respiration? A. Carbon B. Oxygen C. Sulphur D. Nitrogen Oxygen The type of phosphorylation that occurs in fermentation to produce ATP is A. Photophosphorylation B. Oxidative phosphorylation C. Chemiosmotic phosphorylation D. Substrate-level phosphorylation Substrate-level phosphorylation True or false: Amphibolic pathways can function as catabolic and anabolic pathways True Where does the Embden-meyerhof pathway take place? A. Endoplasmic reticulum B. Mitochondria C. Cytoplasm D. Outside of the cell Cytoplasm Which of these is not generated by the TCA cycle A. 2 molecules of CO2 B. 3 molecules of NADH C. One GTP D. 2 molecules of O2 2 molecules of O2 The Phosphate/Oxygen refers to what? A. The ratio of phosphate to oxygen in a cell B. The amount of ATP produced from the movement of two electrons through a ETC, donated by reduction of an oxygen atom C. The ratio of oxygen to phosphorous D. ATP to phosphorous ratio The amount of ATP produced from the movement of two electrons through a ETC, donated by reduction of an oxygen atom What is a use of proton motive force? A. Bacterial flagella rotation B. Diffusion C. ATP production D. A and C A and C When are reserve polymers used? A. In the absence of oxygen B. In the absence of carbon C. In the absence of external nutrients D. In the absence of Sulphur In the absence of external nutrients What is the function of a protease? A. Hydrolyzes proteins to amino acids B. Hydrolyzes amino acids to proteins C. Hydrolyzes carbohydrates to proteins D. Hydrolyzes sugars to proteins Hydrolyzes proteins to amino acids True or False: Bacteriorrhodopsin-based phototrophy uses an electron transport chain. False Metabolism is A. Catabolic reactions B. Anabolic reactions C. Combination of anabolism and catabolism D. None of the above Combination of anabolism and catabolism What types of work are completed by a cell? A. Transparent work, chemical works, matrix work B. Chemical work, transport work, mechanical work C. Trade work, conventional work, symbiotic work D. Chemical work, transport work, matrix work Chemical work, transport work, mechanical work What is the equation for free energy (i.e. what does G =)? A. TS - H B. S - TH C. H - TS D. T - HS H - TS Exergonic reactions have A. +G˚' B. - G˚' C. 0 G˚' D. G˚' has no effect on exergonic reactions - G˚' ATP is said to have A. A high phosphate transfer potential B. A low phosphate transfer potential C. No phosphate transfer potential D. A neutral phosphate transfer potential A high phosphate transfer potential The more electrons a molecule has, the A. Less energy rich it is B. Less powerful it is C. More positive it is D. The more energy rich it is The more energy rich it is Which is not an electron carrier? A. FADH2 B. NAD C. NADP D. ATP ATP Enzymes can A. Speed up rate of reaction B. Inhibit reactions C. Slow down reactions D. Lower activation energy E. A and D A and D A transition-state complex A. Resembles both the substrate and the products B. Looks more like the products C. Looks more like the reactants D. Look more like the enzyme Resembles both the substrate and the products Enzyme activity is impacted by which of the following? A. Substrate concentration B. pH C. Temperature D. All of the above All of the above In enzyme inhibition, the competitive inhibitor A. Binds enzyme at site other than the active site B. Directly competes with substrate to bind the active site C. Changes an enzymes shape so that it becomes less active D. None of the above Directly competes with substrate to bind the active site An example of reversible control measures of post translational regulation of enzyme activity is: A. Allosteric regulation B. Covalent modification C. Permanent shut off D. A and B A and B The allosteric effector A. Binds non-covalently at regulatory site B. Positive effector increases enzyme activity C. Negative effector inhibits enzyme D. All of the above All of the above Feedback inhibition is A. Also called end-product inhibition B. Does not use a pacemaker enzyme C. Cannot manage an entire pathway D. All of the above Also called end-product inhibition Isoenzymes are A. Different Enzymes that work on different reactions B. Different enzymes that catalyze same reaction C. Similar enzymes that work on the same reaction D. None of the above Different enzymes that catalyze same reaction Antibiotics are A. Chemicals that help microbes live and do not cause death B. Kill susceptible microbes or inhibit their growth C. Can be used against viruses D. None of the above Kill susceptible microbes or inhibit their growth Who developed the concept of selective toxicity? A. Sahachiro Hata B. Gerhard Domagk, Jacques and Therese Trefouel C. Paul Ehrlich D. Robert Hooke Paul Ehrlich Penicillin was A. Accidentally discovered by Alexander Fleming B. Not useful against bacteria C. First discovered by Ernest Duchesne D. A and C A and C Selective toxicity is A. The ability of a drug to kill or inhibit pathogen while damaging the host as little as possible B. The ability of a drug to kill or inhibit metabolic action of the host C. The level at which the drug becomes too toxic for patient D. Ratio of toxic does to therapeutic dose The ability of a drug to kill or inhibit pathogen while damaging the host as little as possible Effectiveness can be expressed by A. Minimal inhibitory concentration B. Minimal lethal concentration C. Minimal effective concentration D. A and B A and B In a disk diffusion test, the observation is on A. Clear zones of no growth around disk B. Growth around the disk C. Color change D. Bubbles developing Clear zones of no growth around disk Penicillins A. Are inhibitors of cell wall synthesis B. Have a beta-lactam ring C. Do not have any known resistant bacteria D. A and B A and B Mode of action of penicillin is to A. Work on inactive bacteria B. Work on growing bacteria by blocking synthesis of cell wall and leading to lysis C. Work on growing bacteria by unblocking synthesis of cell wall and leading to a thickened cell wall D. Does not work on bacteria Work on growing bacteria by blocking synthesis of cell wall and leading to lysis Cephalosporins A. Are structurally and functionally different from penicillin B. Are narrow spectrum antibiotics C. Cannot be used in place of penicillin D. None of the above None of the above Aminoglycoside antibiotics A. Large group, all with a cyclohexane ring and amino sugar B. Binds to 30S ribosomal subunit C. A and B D. Binds the 50S ribosomal subunit A and B Tetracyclines are A. Narrow spectrum, bacteriostatic B. Broad spectrum, bacteriostatic C. Narrow spectrum, bactericidal D. Broad spectrum, bactericidal Broad spectrum, bacteriostatic True or False: Macrolides, broad spectrum and typically bacteriostatic, are used for patients that are allergic to penicillin True True or false: Chloramphenicol binds to 23s rRNA on 50S ribosomal subunit and inhibits peptidyl transferase reaction True True or False: Quinolones act by promoting bacterial DNA-gyrase and topoisomerase II False Treating a systemic mycose A. Can be difficult to control B. Cannot kill you C. Is easy to control D. Is just like treating a superficial mycose Can be difficult to control Sterilization is A. The use of sterile objects B. Destruction or removal of all visible organisms C. Another word for disinfection D. Used to kill only planktonic organisms Destruction or removal of all visible organisms Population size is a condition influencing effectiveness of antimicrobial agent activity because? A. The larger the population size, the faster the death rate B. The smaller the population size, the faster the death rate C. The larger the population size, the slower the death rate D. B and C B and C True or false: Filtration is used to reduce microbial populations in the air True Moist heat can A. Destroy viruses B. Destroy fungi C. Destroy bacteria D. Is not a good control method E. A, B, and C A, B, and C True/False: steam sterilization is effective against all types of microorganisms, even spores. True UV works by A. Causing adenine dimers to prevent replication B. Wavelength that is 280 C. Causes thymine dimers preventing replication and transcription D. None of the above Causing adenine dimers to prevent replication Which if the following is true A. Ionizing radiation only sterilizes a surface and does not penetrate deep into objects B. Ionizing radiation destroys endospores but it not always effective against viruses C. It is used for sterilization and pasteurization of antibiotics D. All of these are incorrect Ionizing radiation destroys endospores but it not always effective against viruses Overuse of the chemical agent triclosan, which is an antiseptic, has done what? A. Selected for bacteria that are susceptible to it B. Caused an increase of bacterial growth C. Selected for bacteria that are resistant to it D. Allowed for sepsis to occur on surfaces Selected for bacteria that are resistant to it Alcohols are A. Sporicidal B. Bactericidal C. Fungicidal D. B and C B and C Quaternary ammonium compounds are detergents that are A. Amphipathic organic cleaning agents B. Amphibolic cleaning agents C. Amphipathic inorganic cleaning agents D. Amphibolic inorganic cleaning agents Amphipathic organic cleaning agents Sterilizing Gases can be used for? A. Fungicidal purposes B. To activate DNA C. Sterilize heat-sensitive materials D. None of the above Sterilize heat-sensitive materials Which of the following are false? A. Aerobes grow in the presence of atmospheric oxygen B. Obligate aerobes require oxygen C. Anaerobes grow in the absence of oxygen D. Obligate anaerobes require oxygen Obligate anaerobes require oxygen True or False: Facultative anaerobes do not require oxygen but grow better in its presence. True What are protective enzymes against toxic reactive oxygen species? A. Peroxide and phosphatase B. Catalase and oxygenase C. Peroxidase and Catalase D. None of the above Peroxidase and Catalase What is the purpose of carotenoid pigments A. To aid in photooxidation B. To prevent photooxidation C. To create free radicals D. To cause radiation damage To prevent photooxidation Bacterial cells in biofilms communicate in a density dependent manner called A. Quantitative Sensing B. Quorum Sensing C. Quintessential Sensing D. None of the above Quorum Sensing Selective media is different from differential media in that: A. Selective media favors the growth of some microorganisms and inhibits others while differential media distinguishes between groups of microorganisms based on biological characteristics B. Selective media distinguishes between groups of microorganisms based on biological characteristics while differential media favors the growth of some microorganism and inhibits the growth of others C. Selective and differential media do not differ in use. D. Selective and differential media are not media used for distinguishing purposes. Selective media favors the growth of some microorganisms and inhibits others while differential media distinguishes between groups of microorganisms based on biological characteristics What does growth refer to in terms of a growth plate ? A. The growth of individual cells B. The growth of the plate C. The growth of a microbial population D. All of these The growth of a microbial population In the exponential phase of growth what happens? A. Rate of growth is slow B. Rate of growth stops C. Rate of growth and division is constant D. Exponential phase is not a phase of growth Rate of growth and division is constant Cells that are persister cells have A. Long term survival characteristics B. Increased virulence C. Decreased virulence D. A and B A and B Generation time is A. The time required for the population to double in size B. The time required for the population to triple in size C. The time required for one half of the population to die D. The time required for one fourth of the population to die The time required for the population to double in size True or false: Whether or not a cell is alive or dead is always clear cut in microbiology. false True or false: Turbidimetric measures are a quick, easy, and sensitive way to measure cell mass True What is the method by which most bacteria divide? A. Binary fusion B. Sexual reproduction C. Binary fission D. Nuclear fission Binary fission What happens when MreB is mutated? A. Chromosome will segregate B. Chromosomes will not segregate C. MreB does not have an effect on chromosome segregation D. Chromosomes will breakdown Chromosomes will not segregate What is not a part of septation? A. Selection of site for septum formation B. Linkage of Z ring to plasma membrane (cell wall) C. Disassembly of cell wall synthesizing machinery D. Constriction of cell and septum formation Disassembly of cell wall synthesizing machinery What is the purpose of a penicillin binding protein? A. Link penicillin strands and catalyze controlled degradation for new growth B. Link amylase to the cell wall C. Cause programmed cell death D. Link peptidoglycan strands and catalyze controlled degradation for new growth ... What intermediate filament homologue is responsible for the comma shape of the vibrio bacteria cell? A. Crescentin B. Moonin C. Cruvin D. Tubulin Crescentin Extremophiles are microbes that grow in A. Moderate environmental conditions B. Cold pools of water but do not grow well there C. Under your house D. Under harsh conditions that would kill most other organisms Under harsh conditions that would kill most other organisms True or false: Plasmolysis may occur when the environment around the cell is hypertonic. True pH is A. The measure of the relative acidity of a solution B. The negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration C. More acidic the lower the number D. All of the above All of the above True or false: microbes can regulate their internal temperature. false What is not an adaptation of thermophiles? A. More H bonds B. More proline C. More cysteine D. More chaperones More cysteine Which is matched incorrectly? A. Viruses - protein ad nucleic acid B. Viroids - only RNA C. Satellites - only nucleic acids D. Prions - only nucleic acids Prions - only nucleic acids True or False: Viruses can reproduce independent of living cells and carry out cell division False Capsids A. Are large macromolecular structures which serve as protein coats of viruses B. Are made of subunits called protomers C. Can be helical, icosahedral, or complex D. All of the above All of the above True or false: animal virus envelopes usually arise from host cell plasma or nuclear membranes. True Envelop proteins may project from the envelope surface as spikes or peplomers. This can be useful for? A. Preventing identification of the virus B. Helping identify the virus C. A role in protein replication D. Has no reason at all Helping identify the virus True or False: the Viral genome is only circular. False Which is not a method used in viral entry A. Fusion of the viral envelop with host membrane to allow for nucleocapsid to enter B. Endocytosis in a vesicle and then endosome aids in viral uncoating C. Injection of protein D. Injection of nucleic acid Injection of protein Enveloped viruses use what type of method for virion release? A. Lysis B. Explosion C. Degeneration D. Budding Budding Metastasis is A. Spread of cancerous cells throughout the body B. Reversion to a more primitive state C. A benign tumor D. Abnormal new cell growth Spread of cancerous cells throughout the body Oncogenes may A. Come from a virus B. Be transformed hot proto-oncogenes C. Have a role in carcinogenesis D. All of the above All of the above Elements unique to archaea include A. Unique rRNA gene structure B. Capable of methanogenesis C. Capable of the Krebs cycle D. A and B A and B True or false: the largest Archaean is a multicellular form that ca reach 30 mm in length. True Halococcus survives in high-saline habitats by preventing the dehydration of its cytoplasm. This is done by the use of what type of pump? A. Sodium pump B. Chlorine pump C. Proton pump D. Potassium pump Chlorine pump True or false: Some Archaeans can use diglycerol tetraethers in lipids and membranes. True True or false: Archaea have an additional 5.8S ribosomal RNA unit which is not seen in the large eukaryotic subunit. false The plasma membrane A. Is a selectively permeable barrier B. Encompasses the cytoplasm C. Interacts with external environment D. All of the above All of the above The lipid bilayer has A. Amphibolic lipids B. Amphipathic lipids C. No proteins D. Only carbohydrates Amphipathic lipids True or False: bacterial membranes lack sterols but do contain sterol-like molecules called hopanoids. True Which is not part of the classes of growth factors A. Amino acids B. Purines C. Heme D. Glucose Glucose Which is matched correctly A. Gram positive stains purple and gram negative stains purple B. Gram positive stains pink and gram negative stains purple C. Gram positive stains purple and gram negative stains pink D. Gram positive stains pink and gram negative stains Gram positive stains purple and gram negative stains pink