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NCLEX-RN Exam Pack Set 11 (75 Questions & Answers Updated 2023).

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NCLEX-RN Exam Pack Set 11 (75 Questions & Answers Updated 2023) 1. 1. Question A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism. A nurse checking the patient’s lab results would expect which of the following changes in laboratory findings? o A. Elevated serum calcium o B. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH) o C. Elevated serum vitamin D o D. Low urine calcium • 2. Question A patient with Addison’s disease asks a nurse for nutrition and diet advice. Which of the following diet modifications is not recommended? o A. A diet high in grains. o B. A diet with adequate caloric intake. o C. A high protein diet. o D. A restricted sodium diet. • 3. Question A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is in the second postoperative day following cholecystectomy. She has complained of nausea and isn’t able to eat solid foods. The nurse enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the patient’s symptoms? o A. Anesthesia reaction o B. Hyperglycemia o C. Hypoglycemia o D. Diabetic ketoacidosis • 4. Question A nurse assigned to the emergency department evaluates a patient who underwent fiberoptic colonoscopy 18 hours previously. The patient reports increasing abdominal pain, fever, and chills. Which of the following conditions poses the most immediate concern? o A. Bowel perforation o B. Viral gastroenteritis o C. Colon cancer o D. Diverticulitis o Option B: Several different viruses including rotavirus, norovirus, adenovirus, and astroviruses account for most cases of acute viral gastroenteritis. Most are transmitted via the fecal-oral route, including contaminated food and water. Transmission has also been shown to occur via fomites, vomitus, and possibly airborne methods. Norovirus is more resistant to chlorine and ethanol inactivation than other viruses. Acute gastroenteritis is defined by loose or watery diarrhea that consists of 3 or more bowel movements in a day. Other symptoms may include nausea, vomiting, fever, or abdominal pain o Option C: Colon cancer does not cause these symptoms. Tumor location on clinical presentation can be separated on left-sided with more changes in bowel habits and hematochezia, and right-sided with obscured anemia impacting on late stage at diagnosis. The provider should perform a thorough physical examination for signs of ascites, hepatomegaly, and lymphadenopathy. • 5. Question A patient is admitted to the same day surgery unit for liver biopsy. Which of the following laboratory tests assesses coagulation? Select all that apply. o A. Partial thromboplastin time o B. Prothrombin time o C. Platelet count o D. Hemoglobin o E. Complete Blood Count o F. White Blood Cell Count • 6. o Question A patient on the cardiac telemetry unit unexpectedly goes into ventricular fibrillation. The advanced cardiac life support team prepares to defibrillate. Which of the following choices indicates the correct placement of the conductive gel pads? o A. The left clavicle and right lower sternum. o B. Right of midline below the bottom rib and the left shoulder. o C. The upper and lower halves of the sternum. o D. The right side of the sternum just below the clavicle and left of the precordium. o • 7. Question The nurse performs an initial abdominal assessment on a patient newly admitted for abdominal pain. The nurse hears what she describes as “clicks and gurgles in all four quadrants” as well as “swishing or buzzing sound heard in one or two quadrants.” Which of the following statements is correct? o A. The frequency and intensity of bowel sounds varies depending on the phase of digestion. o B. In the presence of intestinal obstruction, bowel sounds will be louder and higher pitched. o C. A swishing or buzzing sound may represent the turbulent blood flow of a bruit and is not normal. o D. All of the above. • 8. Question A patient arrives in the emergency department and reports splashing concentrated household cleaner in his eye. Which of the following nursing actions is a priority? o A. Irrigate the eye repeatedly with normal saline solution. o B. Place fluorescein drops in the eye. o C. Patch the eye. o D. Test visual acuity. . • 9. Question A nurse is caring for a patient who has had hip replacement. The nurse should be most concerned about which of the following findings? o A. Complaints of pain during repositioning. o B. Scant bloody discharge on the surgical dressing. o C. Complaints of pain following physical therapy. o D. Temperature of 101.8 F (38.7 C). o • 10. Question A child is admitted to the hospital with an uncontrolled seizure disorder. The admitting physician writes orders for actions to be taken in the event of a seizure. Which of the following actions would not be included? o A. Notify the physician. o B. Restrain the patient's limbs. o C. Position the patient on his/her side with the head flexed forward. o D. Administer rectal diazepam. • 11. Question A patient who has received chemotherapy for cancer treatment is given an injection of Epoetin. Which of the following should reflect the findings in a complete blood count (CBC) drawn several days later? o A. An increase in neutrophil count. o B. An increase in hematocrit. o C. An increase in platelet count. o D. An increase in serum iron. .....................................................continued.............................................................

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NCLEX-RN Exam Pack Set 11 (75 Questions & Answers Updated
2023)
1. 1. Question
A patient is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of primary
hyperparathyroidism. A nurse checking the patient’s lab results
would expect which of the following changes in laboratory
findings?


o A. Elevated serum calcium

o B. Low serum parathyroid hormone (PTH)

o C. Elevated serum vitamin D

o D. Low urine calcium

Correct Answer: A. Elevated serum calcium
The parathyroid glands regulate the calcium level in the blood. In
hyperparathyroidism, the serum calcium level will be elevated. A normal PTH in
the presence of hypercalcemia is considered inappropriate and still consistent
with PTH-dependent hypercalcemia. PTH levels should be very low in those
patients with PTH-independent hypercalcemia. A comprehensive clinical
evaluation complemented by routine laboratory and radiologic studies should be
sufficient to establish a diagnosis of primary hyperparathyroidism in a patient
with persistent hypercalcemia and an elevated serum level of parathyroid
hormone.
o Option B: Parathyroid hormone levels may be
high or normal but not low. Patients with
primary hyperparathyroidism and other causes of
PTH- dependent hypercalcemia often have frankly
elevated levels of PTH, while some will have
values that fall within the reference range for
the general population. It is uncommon for
clinically occult malignancies to cause
hypercalcemia. Most patients with malignancy-

, associated hypercalcemia are known to have cancer,
or cancer is readily detectable on initial evaluation,
and PTH levels will be suppressed.
o Option C: Parathyroid hormone levels may be high or
normal but not low. The body will lower the level of
vitamin D in an attempt to lower calcium.
o Option D: Urine calcium may be elevated, with
calcium spilling over from elevated serum levels. This
may cause renal stones. A review of previous
medical records can often be of significant value in
establishing the cause of hypercalcemia. Most patients
with hyperparathyroidism have persistent or
intermittent hypercalcemia for many years before a
definitive diagnosis is established.
• 2. Question
A patient with Addison’s disease asks a nurse for nutrition and
diet advice. Which of the following diet modifications is not
recommended?


o A. A diet high in grains.

o B. A diet with adequate caloric intake.

o C. A high protein diet.

o D. A restricted sodium diet.

Correct Answer: D. A restricted sodium diet.
A patient with Addison’s disease requires normal dietary sodium to prevent
excess fluid loss. Do not reduce salt in the diet. The client may need to add extra
salt to his food during hot and humid weather or after exercise to replace salt lost
through sweating. Do not use salt substitutes.

o Option A: Addison’s disease is a rare
condition. It develops when the adrenal glands,
which are located above the kidneys, do not make
enough of certain hormones. These hormones are
important for normal body function. They help
the body cope with stress, hold salt and water,
and maintain blood pressure. The

, client should include complex carbohydrates in his
diet, including grains.
o Option B: A high protein diet is recommended for the
client with Addison’s disease. The adrenal fatigue diet
aims to stabilize blood sugar and balance cortisol
levels by limiting sugar while increasing the intake of
protein, healthy fats, veggies, and whole grains.
Healthy fats and high-quality proteins slow the blood
sugar rollercoaster and promote stable blood sugar
levels throughout the day.
o Option C: Adequate caloric intake is
recommended. Refined carbohydrates quickly break
down into sugar after you ingest them, which
causes a spike in blood sugar followed by a steep
decline. The diet discourages foods that are
inflammatory or hard to digest and may contribute
to gut health issues. The adrenal fatigue diet is
more about eating more foods that make the client
feel good and nourish the body versus restricting.
• 3. Question
A patient with a history of diabetes mellitus is in the second
postoperative day following cholecystectomy. She has
complained of nausea and isn’t able to eat solid foods. The nurse
enters the room to find the patient confused and shaky. Which of
the following is the most likely explanation for the patient’s
symptoms?


o A. Anesthesia reaction

o B. Hyperglycemia

o C. Hypoglycemia

o D. Diabetic ketoacidosis

Correct Answer: C. Hypoglycemia
A postoperative diabetic patient who is unable to eat is likely to
be suffering from hypoglycemia. The actual treatment
recommendations for a given patient should be individualized,
based on diabetes classification, usual diabetes regimen, state of

, glycemic control, nature and extent of surgical procedure, and
available expertise.
o Option A: An anesthesia reaction would not occur on
the second postoperative day. Anesthesia and surgery
cause a stereotypical metabolic stress response that
could overwhelm homeostatic mechanisms in patients
with pre-existing abnormalities of glucose metabolism.
The invariant features of the metabolic stress
response include release of the catabolic hormones
epinephrine, norepinephrine, cortisol, glucagons, and
growth hormone and inhibition of insulin secretion and
action.
o Option B: Confusion is a late sign of hyperglycemia.
Shakiness is not one of its symptoms. The
management approach in these categories of patients
always includes insulin therapy in combination with
dextrose and potassium infusion. Major surgery is
defined as one requiring general anesthesia of ?1 h. At
a minimum, blood glucose should be monitored before
and immediately after surgery in all patients. Those
undergoing extensive procedures should have hourly
glucose monitoring during and immediately following
surgery.
o Option D: Symptoms of DKA include excessive thirst,
frequent urination, abdominal pain, fruity-scented
breath, confusion, and shortness of breath. However,
shakiness is not a sign of DKA. The stress of surgery
itself results in metabolic perturbations that alter
glucose homeostasis, and persistent hyperglycemia is
a risk factor for endothelial dysfunction, postoperative
sepsis, impaired wound healing, and cerebral
ischemia. The stress response itself may precipitate
diabetic crises (diabetic ketoacidosis [DKA].
• 4. Question
A nurse assigned to the emergency department evaluates a
patient who underwent fiberoptic colonoscopy 18 hours
previously. The patient reports increasing abdominal pain, fever,
and chills. Which of the following conditions poses
the most immediate concern?

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