evolve med surg hesi quize 100% solved
A 20-year-old female client calls the nurse to report a lump she found in her breast. Which response is
the best for the nurse to provide?
A) Check it again in one month, and if it is still there schedule an appointment.
B) Most lumps are benign, but it is always best to come in for an examination.
C) Try not to worry too much about it, because usually, most lumps are benign.
D) If you are in your menstrual period it is not a good time to check for lumps. -ANS-B) Most lumps are
benign, but it is always best to come in for an examination.
(B) provides the best response because it addresses the client's anxiety most effectively and encourages
prompt and immediate action for a potential problem. (A) postpones treatment if the lump is malignant,
and does not relieve the client's anxiety. (C and D) provide false reassurance and do not help relieve
anxiety.
The nurse should be correct in withholding a dose of digoxin in a client with congestive heart failure
without specific instruction from the healthcare provider if the client's
A) serum digoxin level is 1.5.
B) blood pressure is 104/68.
C) serum potassium level is 3.
D) apical pulse is 68/min. -ANS-C) serum potassium level is 3.
Hypokalemia (C) can precipitate digitalis toxicity in persons receiving digoxin which will increase the
chance of dangerous dysrhythmias (normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L). The therapeutic range
for digoxin is 0.8 to 2 ng/ml (toxic levels= >2 ng/ml); (A) is within this range. (B) would not warrant the
nurse withholding the digoxin. The nurse should withhold the digoxin if the apical pulse is less than
60/min (D).
In assessing a client diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism, the nurse expects the laboratory test
results to indicate a decreased serum level of which substance?
A) Sodium.
B) Antidiuretic hormone.
C) Potassium.
,D) Glucose. -ANS-C) Potassium.
Clients with primary aldosteronism exhibit a profound decline in the serum levels of potassium (C)
(hypokalemia)--hypertension is the most prominent and universal sign. (A) is normal or elevated,
depending on the amount of water reabsorbed with the sodium. (B) is decreased with diabetes
insipidus. (D) is not affected by primary aldosteronism.
Based on the analysis of the client's atrial fibrillation, the nurse should prepare the client for which
treatment protocol?
A) Diuretic therapy.
B) Pacemaker implantation.
C) Anticoagulation therapy.
D) Cardiac catheterization. -ANS-C) Anticoagulation therapy.
The client is experiencing atrial fibrillation, and the nurse should prepare the client for anticoagulation
therapy (C) which should be prescribed before rhythm control therapies to prevent cardioembolic
events which result from blood pooling in the fibrillating atria. (A, B, and D) are not indicated.
Which information about mammograms is most important to provide a post-menopausal female client?
A) Breast self-examinations are not needed if annual mammograms are obtained.
B) Radiation exposure is minimized by shielding the abdomen with a lead-lined apron.
C) Yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous normal x-rays.
D) Women at high risk should have annual routine and ultrasound mammograms. -ANS-C) Yearly
mammograms should be done regardless of previous normal x-rays.
The current breast screening recommendation is a yearly mammogram after age 40 (C). Breast self-
exam (A) continues to be a priority recommendation for all women because a small lump (or tumor) is
often first felt by a woman before a mammogram is obtained. The radiation exposure from a
mammogram is low, so (B) is not normally provided. The frequency of using routine and ultrasound
mammograms (D) in women with high-risk variables, such as a history of breast cancer, the presence of
BRC1 and BRC2 genes, or 2 first-degree relatives with breast cancer, should be recommended and
followed closely by the healthcare provider.
, In assessing cancer risk, the nurse identifies which woman as being at greatest risk of developing breast
cancer?
A) A 35-year-old multipara who never breastfed.
B) A 50-year-old whose mother had unilateral breast cancer.
C) A 55-year-old whose mother-in-law had bilateral breast cancer.
D) A 20-year-old whose menarche occurred at age 9. -ANS-B) A 50-year-old whose mother had unilateral
breast cancer.
The most predictive risk factors for development of breast cancer are over 40 years of age and a positive
family history (occurrence in the immediate family, i.e., mother or sister). Other risk factors include
nulliparity, no history of breastfeeding, early menarche and late menopause. Although all of the women
described have one of the risk factors for developing breast cancer, (B) has the greater risk over (A, C,
and D).
Which reaction should the nurse identify in a client who is responding to stimulation of the sympathetic
nervous system?
A) Pupil constriction.
B) Increased heart rate.
C) Bronchial constriction.
D) Decreased blood pressure. -ANS-B) Increased heart rate.
Any stressor that is perceived as threatening to homeostasis acts to stimulate the sympathetic nervous
system and manifests as a flight-or-fight response, which includes an increase in heart rate (B). (A, C, and
D) are responses of the parasympathetic nervous system.
A client receiving cholestyramine (Questran) for hyperlipidemia should be evaluated for what vitamin
deficiency?
A) K.
B) B12.
C) B6.
D) C. -ANS-A) K.
A 20-year-old female client calls the nurse to report a lump she found in her breast. Which response is
the best for the nurse to provide?
A) Check it again in one month, and if it is still there schedule an appointment.
B) Most lumps are benign, but it is always best to come in for an examination.
C) Try not to worry too much about it, because usually, most lumps are benign.
D) If you are in your menstrual period it is not a good time to check for lumps. -ANS-B) Most lumps are
benign, but it is always best to come in for an examination.
(B) provides the best response because it addresses the client's anxiety most effectively and encourages
prompt and immediate action for a potential problem. (A) postpones treatment if the lump is malignant,
and does not relieve the client's anxiety. (C and D) provide false reassurance and do not help relieve
anxiety.
The nurse should be correct in withholding a dose of digoxin in a client with congestive heart failure
without specific instruction from the healthcare provider if the client's
A) serum digoxin level is 1.5.
B) blood pressure is 104/68.
C) serum potassium level is 3.
D) apical pulse is 68/min. -ANS-C) serum potassium level is 3.
Hypokalemia (C) can precipitate digitalis toxicity in persons receiving digoxin which will increase the
chance of dangerous dysrhythmias (normal potassium level is 3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L). The therapeutic range
for digoxin is 0.8 to 2 ng/ml (toxic levels= >2 ng/ml); (A) is within this range. (B) would not warrant the
nurse withholding the digoxin. The nurse should withhold the digoxin if the apical pulse is less than
60/min (D).
In assessing a client diagnosed with primary hyperaldosteronism, the nurse expects the laboratory test
results to indicate a decreased serum level of which substance?
A) Sodium.
B) Antidiuretic hormone.
C) Potassium.
,D) Glucose. -ANS-C) Potassium.
Clients with primary aldosteronism exhibit a profound decline in the serum levels of potassium (C)
(hypokalemia)--hypertension is the most prominent and universal sign. (A) is normal or elevated,
depending on the amount of water reabsorbed with the sodium. (B) is decreased with diabetes
insipidus. (D) is not affected by primary aldosteronism.
Based on the analysis of the client's atrial fibrillation, the nurse should prepare the client for which
treatment protocol?
A) Diuretic therapy.
B) Pacemaker implantation.
C) Anticoagulation therapy.
D) Cardiac catheterization. -ANS-C) Anticoagulation therapy.
The client is experiencing atrial fibrillation, and the nurse should prepare the client for anticoagulation
therapy (C) which should be prescribed before rhythm control therapies to prevent cardioembolic
events which result from blood pooling in the fibrillating atria. (A, B, and D) are not indicated.
Which information about mammograms is most important to provide a post-menopausal female client?
A) Breast self-examinations are not needed if annual mammograms are obtained.
B) Radiation exposure is minimized by shielding the abdomen with a lead-lined apron.
C) Yearly mammograms should be done regardless of previous normal x-rays.
D) Women at high risk should have annual routine and ultrasound mammograms. -ANS-C) Yearly
mammograms should be done regardless of previous normal x-rays.
The current breast screening recommendation is a yearly mammogram after age 40 (C). Breast self-
exam (A) continues to be a priority recommendation for all women because a small lump (or tumor) is
often first felt by a woman before a mammogram is obtained. The radiation exposure from a
mammogram is low, so (B) is not normally provided. The frequency of using routine and ultrasound
mammograms (D) in women with high-risk variables, such as a history of breast cancer, the presence of
BRC1 and BRC2 genes, or 2 first-degree relatives with breast cancer, should be recommended and
followed closely by the healthcare provider.
, In assessing cancer risk, the nurse identifies which woman as being at greatest risk of developing breast
cancer?
A) A 35-year-old multipara who never breastfed.
B) A 50-year-old whose mother had unilateral breast cancer.
C) A 55-year-old whose mother-in-law had bilateral breast cancer.
D) A 20-year-old whose menarche occurred at age 9. -ANS-B) A 50-year-old whose mother had unilateral
breast cancer.
The most predictive risk factors for development of breast cancer are over 40 years of age and a positive
family history (occurrence in the immediate family, i.e., mother or sister). Other risk factors include
nulliparity, no history of breastfeeding, early menarche and late menopause. Although all of the women
described have one of the risk factors for developing breast cancer, (B) has the greater risk over (A, C,
and D).
Which reaction should the nurse identify in a client who is responding to stimulation of the sympathetic
nervous system?
A) Pupil constriction.
B) Increased heart rate.
C) Bronchial constriction.
D) Decreased blood pressure. -ANS-B) Increased heart rate.
Any stressor that is perceived as threatening to homeostasis acts to stimulate the sympathetic nervous
system and manifests as a flight-or-fight response, which includes an increase in heart rate (B). (A, C, and
D) are responses of the parasympathetic nervous system.
A client receiving cholestyramine (Questran) for hyperlipidemia should be evaluated for what vitamin
deficiency?
A) K.
B) B12.
C) B6.
D) C. -ANS-A) K.
