NSG5003 WEEK 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 KNOWLEDGE CHECK QUIZ: ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY: SOUTH UNIVERSITY |100% VERIFIED AND CORRECT ANSWERS|

NSG5003 WEEK 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10 KNOWLEDGE CHECK QUIZ: ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY: SOUTH UNIVERSITY |100% VERIFIED AND CORRECT ANSWERS| NSG 5003 Week 1 Knowledge Check Quiz Question 1 (1 point) An organelle that is responsible for metabolism of cellular energy is referred to which of the following cell structures? Question 1 options: B) Mitochondrion C) Endoplasmic reticulum D) Nucleolus Next Page Page 1 of 5 Question 2 (1 point) Which of the following options is a chemical agent that causes cell injury? Question 2 options: A) Radiation B) Hypoxia C) Bacteria Next Page Page 2 of 5 Page 3 of 5 Question 3 (1 point) Breast changes of a girl in puberty or of a pregnant woman describe which type of cellular adaptation? Question 3 options: A) Hypertrophy B) Dysplasia D) Metaplasia Next Page Page 3 of 5 Question 4 (1 point) An active process of programed cellular self-destruction (cell death) describes which of the following cell functions Question 4 options: Necrosis Adaptation Fragmentation Next Page Page 4 of 5 Submit Quiz4 of 5 questions Question 5 (1 point) When extracellular fluid is hypotonic what is the resulting impact on the cell? Question 5 options: B) No change in cell size C) Cell shrinkage D) Cell death What is the sequence of steps in the development of a digestive enzyme by the pancreas cells from the initial transcription to the release from the cells? Question 1 options: b) The enzyme is transcribed from RNA by DNA in the nucleus, proceeds to the lysosomes for synthesis, and is transported in an encapsulated membrane to the cell membrane. c) The enzyme is transcribed by the mitochondria in the nucleus, proceeds to the ribosomes for synthesis, and is transported in a cytoskeleton to the cell membrane. d. The enzyme is transcribed from DNA by RNA in the nucleus, proceeds to the Golgi complex for synthesis, and is transported in the cytosol to the cell membrane. Save Question 2 (0.5 points) Which organic compounds facilitate transportation across the cell membrane by acting as receptors, transport channels for electrolytes, and enzymes to drive active pumps? Question 2 options: a) Lipids b) Proteases c) Proteins d) Carbohydrates Save Question 3 (0.5 points) Understanding the various steps of proteolytic cascades, such as caspase-mediated apoptosis and complement cascades, may be useful in designing drug therapy for which human diseases? Question 3 options: a) Cardiac and vascular disorders b) Autoimmune and malignant disorders c) Gastrointestinal and renal disorders d) Endocrine and gastrointestinal disorders Save Question 4 (0.5 points) Which structure prevents water-soluble molecules from entering cells across the plasma membrane? Question 4 options: a) Carbohydrate chains b) Glycoprotein channels c) Membrane channel proteins d) Lipid bilayer Save Question 5 (0.5 points) Which form of cell communication is used to communicate within the cell itself and with other cells in direct physical contact? Question 5 options: a) Protein channel (gap junction) b) Plasma membrane–bound signaling molecules (involving receptors) c) Hormone secretion, such as neurotransmitters d) Extracellular chemical messengers such as ligands Save Question 6 (0.5 points) Which mode of chemical signaling uses blood to transport communication to cells some distance away? Question 6 options: a) Paracrine b) Autocrine c) Neurotransmitter d) Hormonal Save Question 7 (0.5 points) Which mode of chemical signaling uses local chemical mediators that are quickly taken up, destroyed, or immobilized? Question 7 options: a) Paracrine b) Autocrine c) Neurotransmitter d) Hormone Save Question 8 (0.5 points) How do cells receive communication from the ECF surrounding them? Question 8 options: a) Protein channel (gap junction) b) Plasma membrane–bound signaling molecules (involving receptors) c) Hormone secretion, such as neurotransmitters d) Chemical messengers such as ligands Save Question 9 (0.5 points) Under anaerobic conditions, which process provides energy for the cell? Question 9 options: a) Oxidative phosphorylation b) Glycolysis c) Lactolysis d) Passive transport Save Question 10 (0.5 points) What is the mechanism by which the energy produced from carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids is transferred to ATP? Question 10 options: a) Anaerobic glycolysis b) Oxidative cellular metabolism c) Oxidative phosphorylation d) Tricarboxylic acid phosphorylation Save Question 11 (0.5 points) Passive transport is best described by which statement? Question 11 options: a) Being driven by osmosis, hydrostatic pressure, and diffusion b) Involving receptors that can bind with substances being transported c) Being capable of transporting macromolecules d) Requiring energy generated by the cell Save Question 12 (0.5 points) Active transport occurs across which type of membranes? Question 12 options: a) Membranes that have a higher concentration of the solute on the outside of the cell b) Membranes that are semipermeable to water and small electrically uncharged molecules c) Membranes that have receptors that are capable of binding with the substances to be transported d) Membranes that have a cell membrane that is hydrophobic rather than hydrophilic Save Question 13 (0.5 points) Why is osmolality preferred over osmolarity as the measurement of osmotic activity in the clinical assessment of individuals? Question 13 options: a) Plasma contains sodium and chloride, which influence the volume of solution. b) Volume affects perfusion more than the weight of solutes. c) More of the weight of plasma is influenced by solutes, such as proteins and glucose, rather than by water. d) Osmotic activity depends on the concentration of solutes present in plasma, such as proteins and glucose. Save Question 14 (0.5 points) Why is it possible for potassium to diffuse easily into and out of cells? Question 14 options: a) Potassium has a greater concentration in the ICF. b) Sodium has a greater concentration in the ECF. c) The resting plasma membrane is more permeable to potassium. d) An excess of anions is inside the cell Save Question 15 (0.5 points) What causes a rapid change in the resting membrane potential to initiate an action potential? Question 15 options: a) Potassium gates open, and potassium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positive. b) Sodium gates open, and sodium rushes into the cell, changing the membrane potential from negative to positi c) Sodium gates close, allowing potassium into the cell, changing the membrane potential from positive to negative. d) Potassium gates close, allowing sodium into the cell, changing the membrane potential from positive to negative. Save Question 16 (0.5 points) The action of the platelet-derived growth factor is to stimulate the production of which cells? Question 16 options: a) Platelets b) Epidermal cells c) Connective tissue cells d) Fibroblast cells Save Question 17 (0.5 points) What is a consequence of leakage of lysosomal enzymes during chemical injury? Question 17 options: a) Enzymatic digestion of the nucleus and nucleolus occurs, halting DNA synthesis. b) Influx of potassium ions into the mitochondria occurs, halting ATP production. c) Edema of the Golgi body occurs, preventing the transport of proteins out of the cell. d) Shifting of calcium out of the plasma membrane occurs, destroying the cytoskeleton. Save Question 18 (0.5 points) During cell injury caused by hypoxia, an increase in the osmotic pressure occurs within the cell because: Question 18 options: a) Plasma proteins enter the cell. b) The adenosine triphosphatase (ATPase-driven pump is stronger during hypoxia. c) Sodium chloride enters the cell. d) An influx of glucose occurs through the injured cell membrane. Save Question 19 (0.5 points) Which statement is true regarding the difference between a subdural hematoma and an epidural hematoma? Question 19 options: a) No difference exists, and these terms may be correctly used interchangeably. b) A subdural hematoma occurs above the dura, whereas an epidural hematoma occurs under the dura. c) A subdural hematoma is often the result of shaken baby syndrome, whereas an epidural hematoma rapidly forms as a result of a skull fracture. d) A subdural hematoma usually forms from bleeding within the skull, such as an aneurysm eruption, whereas a epidural hematoma occurs from trauma outside the skull, such as a blunt force trauma. Save Question 20 (0.5 points) During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because: Question 20 options: a) Potassium moves out of the cell, and potassium and sodium are inversely related. b) The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in ATP levels. c) The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the cell membrane. d) Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside the cell. Save NSG 5003 Week 1 QUIZ 1. It is true that a eukaryotic cell: A. Is smaller than a prokaryotic cell. B. Contains structures called organelles. C. Lacks a well-defined nucleus. D. Does not contain histones. Rationale Eukaryotic cells contain organelles and histones, they have a well-defined nucleus, and are larger than prokaryotic cells. 2. The function of a histone found in a eukaryote cell focuses on cellular: A. Division B. Movement C. Activities D. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) folding Rationale The histones are binding proteins that cause the supercoiling of DNA into chromosomes and do not affect cellular division, movement, or activities. 3. An organelle that is responsible for the metabolism of cellular energy is referred to as a/an: A. Golgi complex B. C. Endoplasmic reticulum D. Nucleolus Rationale Mitochondria play a role in cellular metabolism, cellular respiration, and energy production. The Golgi complex is responsible for processing and packaging proteins from the endoplasmic reticulum, where they are synthesized. The nucleolus is a small, dense structure that contains the ribonucleic acid (RNA), DNA, and DNA-binding proteins. 4. Which statement best describes a desmosome? A. A desmosome is a barrier to diffusion. B. Desmosomes hold cells together by continuous bands. C. A desmosome is a communicating tunnel. D. Desmosomes function as a zona occludens. Rationale The desmosome is a type of cell junction. The other two types include tight junctions and gap junctions. Desmosomes hold cells together by forming a continuous band of epithelial tissue or belt (or button like) points of contact. They are also a source of structural stability. Tight junctions serve as barriers to diffusion and prevent the movement of substances through transport proteins. Gap junctions are clusters of communicating tunnels. 5. Which statement describes the function of a second messenger? A. Extracellular ligand that binds with membrane-bound receptors B. Intracellular enzyme that once will trigger a cascade of intracellular events C. Chemical messenger that opens specific channels in the cell membrane D. Chemical messenger that blocks a membrane-bound receptor signal Rationale The binding of a ligand to a cell surface receptor triggers the activation of intracellular second messengers. Second messengers activate signal transduction pathways in the cell that can initiate different intracellular events. Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP) and calcium (Ca++) are the two major second-messenger pathways. First messengers are the extracellular ligands that bind to cell surface receptors. Binding of first messengers can result in the opening or closing of specific cell membrane channels or the activation of second messengers. Which statement is correct regarding cellular energy? A. Glycolysis is the building of sugar molecules. B. Oxidative cellular metabolism is a single reaction making adenosine triphosphate (ATP). C. Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the mitochondria. D. Anaerobic glycolysis occurs in the presence of oxygen. Rationale Oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the mitochondria. This is the mechanism by which the energy produced from carbohydrates, fats, and proteins is transferred to ATP. Glycolysis is a process that breaks down glucose molecules; it produces a net of two ATP molecules. Oxidation is a process during which a pair of electrons are removed and transferred. Oxidative cellular metabolism involves 10 biochemical reactions. Anaerobic glycolysis occurs in the absence of oxygen. Aerobic means in the presence of oxygen. 7. Movement of a solute molecule from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration is called: A. Diffusion B. Filtration C. Osmosis D. Hydrostatic pressure Rationale Diffusion is the movement of a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. Osmosis is the movement of water down a concentration gradient from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration. Filtration is the movement of water and solute through a membrane because of a greater pushing pressure on one side of the membrane than the other. Hydrostatic pressure is the mechanical force of water pushing against a cell membrane. 8. Which of the following is an example of an energy-releasing process? A. Anabolis m B. Catabolism C. Substrate-induced reaction D. Second messenger system Rationale Catabolism is an energy-releasing process. The energy-using process is anabolism. A substrate is a specific substance that is converted to a product in the reaction. A second messenger is a "pass- it-on signal." This occurs when a first messenger activates a receptor that then triggers a pass-it- on signal. Which of the following describes the term chemotaxis? A. Uses the second messenger system B. Cellular signal affecting the cell of origin C. Movement of cells along a chemical gradient D. Ligands bind with receptors, triggering a second reaction Rationale Chemotaxis is cellular movement along a chemical gradient caused by chemical attraction. Autostimulation is when a cell releases a signal that actually affects the cell of origin. A pass-it- on signal is a description for a second messenger system. A second messenger system is a means by which a ligand binds with receptors of a membrane system and then triggers a second system or reaction. 10. Which of the following describes an amphipathic molecule? A. Hydrophobic and not Hydrophilic B. Hydrophilic and not Hydrophobic C. Hydrophobic and Hydrophilic D. Nonpolar Rationale The amphipathic molecule is both hydrophobic and hydrophilic. A hydrophilic molecule is a charged, water-loving molecule. A hydrophobic molecule is an uncharged or water-hating molecule. A polar molecule is another name for an amphipathic molecule. 11. Which of the following are functions of a protein? (Select all that apply.) A. Pores or transport channels B. C. Cell surface markers D. Synapses for cells Rationale Proteins may act as transport channels, pores, cell surface markers, enzymes that drive pumps, catalysts, and cell adhesion molecules (CAMs), or they may act as the key components of ATP synthesis. Synapses are the connections between two nerve cells. 12. Which of the following is the most common cause of cellular injury? A. Free radical–induced injury B. Chemical injury C. Hypoxia D. Mechanical factors Rationale Hypoxia is the most common cause of cellular injury and can be initiated by decreased oxygen in the environment, decreased hemoglobin, decreased red blood cells, or cardiovascular collapse. A free radical–induced injury, chemical injury, and mechanical factors are other types of cell injury but are not the most common. 13. Which chemical interferes with the excretion of urate while affecting the nervous and hematopoietic systems? A. Carbon monoxide B. Carbon tetrachloride C. Lead D. Mercury Rationale Lead can interfere with the excretion of urate and thus increase an individual's predisposition to gout; it affects the hematopoietic and nervous systems. Carbon monoxide is a gas that is an asphyxiate and interrupts respiration. Carbon tetrachloride was formerly used in dry cleaning. It damages the liver as it is converted into a highly toxic free radical. Mercury is a heavy metal and can worsen chronic conditions such as Alzheimer disease and multiple sclerosis. 14. A collection of blood that is located between the skull and the dura is called a/an: A. Epidural hematoma B. Contusion C. Subdural hematoma D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage Rationale Epidural hematomas are a collection of blood between the inner surface of the skull and the dura. A contusion is a bruise or bleeding into the skin and underlying tissue. A subdural hematoma is a collection of blood between the inner surface of the dura and the surface of the brain. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is a condition in which a cerebral arterial aneurysm ruptures. 15. The possible diagnosis of shaken baby syndrome is supported when an infant brought to the emergency department is found to have which type of cerebral hematoma? A. Epidura l B. Subdural C. Subarachnoid D. Avulsion Rationale A subdural hematoma is associated with blows, falls, or sudden acceleration or deceleration of the head, such as the sudden movements that occur with shaken baby syndrome. Epidural hematomas are the result of a torn artery, often associated with a skull fracture. Subarachnoid hemorrhage is a condition in which a cerebral arterial aneurysm has ruptured. An avulsion is a tear or rip in the skin, resulting when tensile strength of skin or tissue is exceeded. 16. Which term describes a tear or rip of the skin with a jagged and irregular edge? A. Abrasion B. Incision C. Laceration D. Incised wound Rationale Lacerations occur when the tensile strength of the skin is exceeded, resulting in ragged and irregular abraded edges; an extreme example is avulsion, in which a wide area of tissue is pulled away. An abrasion results from the removal of the superficial layers of the skin caused by friction between the skin and the injuring object. An incision is a precise cut with an instrument that leaves regular clean edges. An incised wound is longer than it is deep and has distinct edges without abrasion. 17. Which term describes oxygen failing to reach the blood? A. Suffocation B. Strangulation C. Drowning D. Petechiae Rationale Suffocation occurs when oxygen fails to reach the blood. It is a subgroup of asphyxial injuries. Strangulation is caused by compression and closure of the blood vessels and air passages by external pressure on the neck. Drowning occurs when water or fluid alters the delivery of oxygen. Petechiae are found on the neck of a victim who has been strangled. It is the result of compression of soft tissue and the breakage of blood vessels. 18. Heat exhaustion is defined as: A. Chilling or freezing of the cells B. Cramping of voluntary muscles C. Hemoconcentration from salt and water loss D. Significantly decreased blood volume Rationale Heat exhaustion is defined by a sufficient salt and water loss that results in hemoconcentration. Hypotension occurs secondary to fluid loss and may cause a collapse. The individual may feel weak and nauseated. Chills or freezing cells are associated with hypothermic injury. Heat cramps are cramping of voluntary muscles, usually the result of vigorous exercise. Heat stroke is a life- threatening condition associated with high environmental temperatures and humidity. Generalized peripheral vasodilation and decreased circulating blood volume are significant. 19. Which statement regarding altitude and illness is true? A. Caisson disease occurs when descending too quickly while diving. B. Pulmonary edema as the result of hypoxia and increased pulmonary hypertension. C. Gas emboli are caused by oxygen bubbles. D. Altitude sickness occurs from blast injuries. Rationale High altitude causes hypoxic injury. This hypoxia causes shunting of blood from the periphery to vital organs including the lungs and results in pulmonary hypertension. Caisson disease is often called the bends and occurs when divers ascend too quickly, resulting in a gas embolism. Gas emboli are formed when carbon dioxide and nitrogen, which are normally dissolved in blood, bubble out of solution. Blast injuries cause significant injury through the collapse of the thorax, the rupture of internal organs, and widespread hemorrhage. 20. Which form of necrosis is associated with tuberculous infections? A. Coagulative B. Liquefactive C. Fat D. Caseous Rationale Caseous necrosis is normally found in the lung from tuberculosis. Tissues appear soft and granular and resemble clumped cheese (hence the name caseous) and are surrounded by a granulomatous inflammatory wall; this pulmonary infection is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It is a combination of liquefactive and coagulation necrosis. Coagulative necrosis occurs primarily in the kidneys, heart, and adrenal glands and is caused by protein degradation. Liquefactive necrosis commonly occurs in the neurons and glial cells. Fat necrosis occurs in the breast, pancreas, and other abdominal structures. It is cellular dissolution caused by powerful enzymes called lipases. 21. Which statements are true regarding apoptosis? (Select all that apply.) A. B. C. Local cell death after severe and sudden injury D. Nuclear and cytoplasmic shrinkage of a cell Rationale Apoptosis is programmed cell death. It is an active process of cellular self-destruction that is implicated in normal embryonic development, as well as in rapidly proliferating cancer cells. Apoptosis affects single cells by causing nuclear and cytoplasmic shrinkage, followed by the fragmentation of the cell membrane. Necrosis is accidental cell death that occurs to local cells after a severe and sudden injury. 22. When considering water balance, which statement is the correct balance? A. Isotonic fluids cause increased cellular swelling. B. Hypertonic fluid causes increased cellular swelling. C. Hypotonic fluid causes cellular swelling. D. Hypernatremia causes cellular swelling. Rationale Hypotonic extracellular fluid (ECF) causes intracellular water gain and swelling. When the ECF is hypotonic, water moves from the intravascular space to the interstitial space, across the cell membrane, and into the cell. This action causes the cell to swell. An isotonic solution is equal to the plasma in concentration of solute molecules. Therefore no net water will move because equilibrium exists. The cell size is unchanged. A hypertonic fluid has excessive solute; therefore water will leave the cell and move into the vascular space to help balance this excess. Water leaving the cell results in cell shrinkage. Hypernatremia can occur with an acute gain in sodium or a loss of water, but generally it does not cause cellular swelling. 23. It is true that hyperchloremia: A. Occurs with a deficit of sodium. B. Occurs with an excess of bicarbonate. C. Has specific symptoms such as thirst. D. Requires treatment of the underlying disorder. Rationale Hyperchloremia (too much chloride) is usually related to an underlying disorder, and therefore treatment is centered on the underlying disorder. Because chloride usually follows sodium, this condition usually occurs with an increase in sodium and a deficit of bicarbonate. Normally, neither specific symptoms are observed nor treatments are available for chloride excess. 24. It is true that hyponatremia: A. Is commonly caused by inadequate sodium intake. B. Can occur with a decrease in total body water (TBW). C. Never occurs with burns, vomiting, or diarrhea. D. Occurs when sodium drops below 135 mEq/L. Rationale Hyponatremia occurs when the serum sodium drops below 135 mEq/L. It is the most common electrolyte disorder in individuals who are hospitalized. Although inadequate sodium intake can cause hyponatremia, it is uncommon. It can also occur with an increase in TBW or as a result of burns, vomiting, diarrhea, or gastrointestinal suctioning. 25. Which statement is true regarding potassium balance? A. Potassium is the major extracellular electrolyte. B. During acidosis, potassium shifts into the cell. C. Aldosterone is secreted when potassium is decreased. D. Insulin causes the movement of potassium into the cell. Rationale Insulin causes movement of potassium into the cell and is one of the treatments for hyperkalemia. Potassium balance is especially significant in the treatment of conditions requiring insulin administration, such as insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (type 1). Potassium is the major intracellular electrolyte and maintains the osmotic balance of the intracellular fluid (ICF) space. During acidosis, potassium is shifted out of the cell in exchange for hydrogen ions. Aldosterone is secreted when potassium is elevated, resulting in the excretion of potassium by the kidneys. 26. Which statement is true regarding hypokalemia? A. Hypokalemia occurs when the serum level is below 135 mEq/L. B. C. Dietary causes of hypokalemia are common. D. Diuretics do not cause hypokalemia. Rationale Hypokalemia is low potassium. Therefore hypokalemia is defined as a serum level less than 3.5 mEq/L. It is often caused by diuretics. Diabetic ketoacidosis does cause hypokalemia. Potassium is shifted out of the cell in exchange for hydrogen and then excreted. The serum level may remain within a normal range, but then when insulin is administered, potassium is shifted back into the cells and a deficit occurs. Potassium balance is especially significant in the treatment of conditions requiring insulin administration, such as insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus (type 1). Dietary causes are uncommon. 7. Hypernatremia is defined as levels above: A. 147 mEq/L B. 5.5 mEq/L C. 105 mEq/L D. 8.5 mg/dl Rationale Hypernatremia is defined as serum levels above 147 mEq/L. Hyperkalemia is defined as serum levels above 5.5 mEq/L, and hyperchloremia is defined as serum levels above 105 mEq/L. Hypocalcemia occurs when serum calcium concentrations are less than 8.5 mg/dl. 28. Which statement is true regarding magnesium? A. Hypomagnesemia occurs with a concentration less than 2.5 mEq/L. B. Magnesium is a major extracellular cation. C. Thirty percent is stored in the muscle and bone. D. Symptoms of hypomagnesemia include weakness and depression. Rationale Symptoms of low magnesium include weakness, tetany, increased reflexes, depression, ataxia, convulsions, and irritability. Magnesium level is normal when between 1.8 and 2.4 mEq/L and is a major intracellular cation. Thirty percent is stored in the cells, with 40% to 60% stored in the bones and muscle. 29. Which statement describes acidemia? A. State in which the pH of arterial blood is greater than 7.45 B. C. Systemic decrease in hydrogen ion concentration D. Systemic excess of base Rationale Acidemia is a state in which the pH of arterial blood is less than 7.35. Alkalemia is a state in which the pH of arterial blood is greater than 7.45. A systemic increase in hydrogen ion concentration or loss of base is termed acidosis. A systemic decrease in hydrogen ion concentration or an excess of base is termed alkalosis. 30. Common causes of edema formation (increased filtration of fluid from capillaries and lymph into surrounding tissues) include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A. Decreased hydrostatic pressure B. Decreased plasma oncotic pressure C. D. E. Sodium retention Rationale The five common causes of increased edema are: (1) increased hydrostatic pressure, (2) decreased plasma oncotic pressure, (3) increased capillary membrane permeability, (4) lymphatic obstruction, and (5) sodium retention. 31. Which of the following are clinical manifestations of hypokalemia? (Select all that apply.) A. Carbohydrate metabolism is affected as a result of decreased insulin secretion. B. Renal function is impaired. C. Neuromuscular excitability is decreased. D. Skeletal muscle is affected with increased contractility. Rationale Carbohydrate metabolism is affected by depressing insulin secretion and alters hepatic and skeletal muscle glycogen synthesis. Renal function may be impaired with a decreased ability to concentrate urine, and renal tubular atrophy and fibrosis may occur. Neuromuscular excitability is decreased causing skeletal muscle weakness, smooth muscle atony, and cardiac dysrhythmias. Hypokalemia causes the skeletal muscle to be weak. 32. Which treatments are appropriate for hyperkalemia? (Select all that apply.) A. B. C. Administering glucagon D. Sodium bicarbonate Rationale Calcium gluconate, treating the contributing cause, and sodium bicarbonate are all appropriate treatments. Calcium gluconate can be administered to restore normal neuromuscular irritability when serum potassium levels are dangerously high. Glucose, which readily stimulates insulin secretion, or the administration of glucose and insulin for those with diabetes, facilitates cellular entry of potassium. Sodium bicarbonate corrects metabolic acidosis and lowers serum potassium. Glucagon is administered to treat beta-blocker overdose or hypoglycemia. Breast changes of a girl in puberty or of a pregnant woman describe which type of cellular adaptation? Ans: An active process of programed cellular self-destruction (cell death) describes which of the following cell functions Ans: Apoptosis When extracellular fluid is hypotonic what is the resulting impact on the cell Ans: Cell Swelling NSG 5003 Week 2 Knowledge Check Quiz Question 1 The immune response is characterized by the activation of which two types of immunocytes? A) T cells and cytokin B) B cells and T cells C) IgG and IgE D) Neutrophils and macrophages Question 2 The chief functions of antibodies are to protect the host by which of following mechanisms? A) Blocking phagocytosis B) Neutralizing bacterial toxins C) Inactivating the inflammatory process D) Absorbing antigens Question 3 What is the term used to describe phagocyte function that causes them to stick to capillary and venule walls A) Diapedesis B) Phagocytosis C) Exudation D) Margination Question 4 Allergens are antigens that cause allergic responses, true or false? True False Question 5 Here are four types of hypersensitivity disorders. Which of the following is the most common and characterized by an immediate reaction? A) Type I B) Type II C) Type II D) Type IV NSG 5003 Week 3 Knowledge Check Quiz Question 1 Oncogenes are genes that are capable of: Question 1 options: a) Undergoing mutation that directs the synthesis of proteins to accelerate the rate of tissue proliferation b) Directing synthesis of proteins to regulate growth and to provide necessary replacement of tissue c) Encoding proteins that negatively regulate the synthesis of proteins to slow or halt the replacement of tissue d) Undergoing mutation that directs malignant tissue toward blood vessels and lymph nodes for metastasis Question 2 Burkitt lymphomas designate a chromosome that has a piece of chromosome 8 fused to a piece of chromosome 14. This is an example of which mutation of normal genes to oncogenes? Question 2 options: a) Point mutation b) Chromosome translocation c) Gene amplification d) Chromosome fusion Question 3 In childhood neuroblastoma, the N-myc oncogene undergoes which type of mutation of normal genes to oncogenes? Question 3 options: a) Point mutation b) Chromosome fusion c) Gene amplification d) Chromosome translocation Question 4 Which aberrant change causes the abnormal growth in a retinoblastoma? Question 4 options: a) Proto-oncogenes are changed to oncogenes. b) The tumor suppressor gene is turned off. c) Genetic amplification causes the abnormal growth. d) Chromosomes 9 and 21 are fused. Question 5 Two hits are required to inactivate tumor suppressor genes because: Question 5 options: a) Each allele must be altered, and each person has two copies, or alleles, of each gene, one from each parent. b) The first hit stops tissue growth, and the second hit is needed to cause abnormal tissue growth. c) Tumor suppressor genes are larger than proto-oncogenes, requiring two hits to effect carcinogenesis. d) The first hit is insufficient to cause enough damage to cause a mutation. Question 6 Chronic inflammation causes cancer by: Question 6 options: a) Increasing vasodilation and permeability that alter cellular response to DNA damage b) Liberating lysosomal enzymes when cells are damaged, which initiates mutations c) Releasing compounds such as reactive oxygen species that promote mutations d) Increasing the abundance of leukotrienes that are associated with some cancers Question 7 What is the consequence for cells when the functioning TP53 gene is lost as a result of mutation? Question 7 options: a) Cells undergo apoptosis. b) Cells escape apoptosis. c) Cells receive less oxygen. d) Cells adhere more readily. Question 8 Which gastrointestinal tract condition can be an outcome of both chemotherapy and radiation therapy? Question 8 options: a) Increased cell turnover b) Constipation c) Stomatitis d) Bloody stool Question 9 What is the role of vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) and basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF) in cell metastasis? Question 9 options: a) To stimulate growth of nearby tumor cells b) To develop new blood vessels to feed cancer cells c) To prevent cancer cells from escaping apoptosis d) To act as a chemical gradient to guide cells to blood vessels Question 10 It has been determined that a tumor is in stage 2. What is the meaning of this finding? Question 10 options: a) The cancer is confined to the organ of origin. b) The cancer has spread to regional structures. c) The cancer is locally invasive. d) The cancer has spread to distant sites. Question 11 Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer? Question 11 options: a) Pain is primarily a result of pressure caused by the tumor. b) Pain indicates metastasis of the cancer. c) Pain is usually the initial symptom of cancer. d) Pain is generally associated with late-stage cancer. Question 12 Which cancer may be treated with radiation delivered by brachytherapy? Question 12 options: a) Lung b) Colon c) Cervical d) Brain Question 13 By which process do cancer cells multiply in the absence of external growth signals? Question 13 options: a) Proto-oncogene b) Autocrine stimulation c) Reliance on caretaker genes d) Polymorphology Question 14 What is the role of caretaker genes? Question 14 options: a) Maintenance of genomic integrity b) Proliferation of cancer cells c) Secretion of growth factors d) Restoration of normal tissue structure Question 15 Which statement concerning benign tumors is true? Question 15 options: a) The resulting pain is severe. b) Benign tumors are not encapsulated. c) Benign tumors are fast growing. d) The cells are well differentiated. Question 16 Which characteristic among women correlates with a high morbidity of cancer of the colon, uterus, and kidney? Question 16 options: a) Women older than 45 years of age b) Women who have never had children c) Women who have a high body mass index (BMI) d) Woman who have smoked for more than ten years Question 17 Which cancers pose the highest risk for radiologists? Question 17 options: a) Thyroid b) Breast c) Blood d) Brain Question 18 The World Health Organization (WHO) defines grade 1 (overweight) as a body mass index (BMI) of: Question 18 options: a) 18.5 to 24.9 b) 25 to 29.9 c) 30 to 39.9 d) 40 to 50.9 Question 19 When are childhood cancers most often diagnosed? Question 19 options: a) During infancy b) At peak times of physical growth c) After diagnosis of a chronic illness d) After an acute illness Question 20 How should the nurse reply when parents question why a computed tomographic (CT) scan of the head was not ordered for their five-year-old child after a minor fall? Question 20 options: a) Physicians are cautious about ordering a CT scan on children younger than ten years of age. b) CT scans are seldom conclusive when used to diagnosis head injuries in young children. c) The child’s symptoms will determine whether a CT scan is necessary and worth the expense. d) Research suggests that repeated CT scans can increase the risk of developing brain cancer. NSG 5003 Week 4 Knowledge Check Quiz Question 1 What is the effect of oxidized low-density (LDLs) in atherosclerosis? Question 1 options: a) LDLs cause smooth muscle proliferation. b) LDLs cause regression of atherosclerotic plaques. c) LDLs increase levels of inflammatory cytokines. d) LDLs direct macrophages to the site in the endothelium. Save Question 2 Which inflammatory cytokines are released when endothelial cells are injured? Question 2 options: a) Granulocyte-macrophage colony-stimulating factor (GM-CSF) b) Interferon-beta (IFN-β), interleukin 6 (IL-6), and granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF) c) Tumor necrosis factor–alpha (TNF-α), interferon-gamma (IFN-γ), and interleukin 1 (IL-1) d) Interferon-alpha (IFN-α), interleukin 12 (IL-12), and macrophage colony-stimulating factor (M-CSF Save Question 3 When endothelia cells are injured, which alteration contributes to atherosclerosis? Question 3 options: a) Toxic oxygen radicals that oxidize low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) are released. b) Cells are unable to make the normal amount of vasodilating cytokines. c) Cells produce an increased amount of antithrombotic cytokines. d) Cells develop hypersensitivity to homocysteine and lipids. Save Question 4 Which factor is responsible for hypertrophy of the myocardium associated with hypertension? Question 4 options: a) Increased norepinephrine b) Adducin c) Angiotensin II d) Insulin resistance Save Question 5 What effect does atherosclerosis have on the development of an aneurysm? Question 5 options: a) Atherosclerosis causes ischemia of the intima. b) Atherosclerosis increases nitric oxide. c) Atherosclerosis erodes the vessel wall. d) Atherosclerosis obstructs the vessel. Save Question 6 Regarding the endothelium, what is the difference between healthy vessel walls and those that promote clot formation? Question 6 options: a) Inflammation and roughening of the endothelium of the artery are present. b) Hypertrophy and vasoconstriction of the endothelium of the artery are present. c) Excessive clot formation and lipid accumulation in the endothelium of the artery are present. d) Evidence of age-related changes that weaken the endothelium of the artery is present. Save Question 7 Which form of angina occurs most often during sleep as a result of vasospasms of one or more coronary arteries? Question 7 options: a) Unstable b) Stable c) Silent d) Prinzmetal Save Question 8 The pulsusparadoxus that occurs as a result of pericardial effusion is caused by a dysfunction in which mechanism? Question 8 options: a) Diastolic filling pressure of the right ventricle and reduction of blood volume in both ventricles b) Blood ejected from the right atrium and reduction of blood volume in the right ventricle c) Blood ejected from the left atrium and reduction of blood volume in the left ventricle d) Diastolic filling pressure of the left ventricle and reduction of blood volume in all four heart chambe Save Question 9 Ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure, characterize which form of cardiomyopathy? Question 9 options: a) Congestive b) Hypertrophic c) Septal d) Dystrophic Save Question 10 Amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or glycogen storage disease usually causes which form of cardiomyopathy? Question 10 options: a) Infiltrative b) Restrictive c) Septal d) Hypertrophic Save Question 11 In systolic heart failure, what effect does the renin-angiotensin- aldosterone system (RAAS) have on stroke volume? Question 11 options: a) Increases preload and decreases afterload b) Increases preload and increases afterload c) Decreases preload and increases afterload d) Decreases preload and decreases afterload Save Question 12 What is the cause of the dyspnea resulting from a thoracic aneurysm? Question 12 options: a) Pressure on surrounding organs b) Poor oxygenation c) Formation of atherosclerotic lesions d) Impaired blood flow Save Question 13 Which statement is true concerning the cells’ ability to synthesize cholesterol? Question 13 options: a) Cell production of cholesterol is affected by the aging process. b) Cells produce cholesterol only when dietary fat intake is low. c) Most body cells are capable of producing cholesterol. d) Most cholesterol produced by cells is converted to the low-density form. Save Question 14 What is the trigger for angina pectoris? Question 14 options: a) Atherosclerotic lesions b) Hyperlipidemia c) Myocardial necrosis d) Myocardial ischemia Save Question 15 Individuals being effectively managed for type 2 diabetes mellitus often experience a healthy decline in blood pressure as a result of which intervention? Question 15 options: a) Managed carbohydrate intake b) Appropriate exercise c) Insulin-sensitivity medication therapy d) Introduction of minimal doses of insulin Save Question 16 Most cardiovascular developments occur between which weeks of gestation? Question 16 options: a) Fourth and seventh weeks b) Eighth and tenth weeks c) Twelfth and fourteenth weeks d) Fifteenth and seventeenth weeks Save Question 17 The function of the foramen ovale in a fetus allows what to occur? Question 17 options: a) Right-to-left blood shunting b) Left-to-right blood shunting c) Blood flow from the umbilical cord d) Blood flow to the lungs Save Question 18 An infant has a continuous machine-type murmur best heard at the left upper sternal border throughout systole and diastole, as well as a bounding pulse and a thrill on palpation. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? Question 18 options: a) Atrial septal defect (ASD) b) Ventricular septal defect (VSD) c) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) d) Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect Save Question 19 An infant has a crescendo-decrescendo systolic ejection murmur located between the second and third intercostal spaces along the left sternal border. A wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound is also found. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? Question 19 options: a) Atrial septal defect (ASD) b) Ventricular septal defect (VSD) c) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) d) Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect Save Question 20 An infant has a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and a systolic thrill that can be detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? Question 20 options: a) Atrial septal defect (ASD) b) Ventricular septal defect (VSD) c) Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) d) Atrioventricular canal (AVC) defect NSG 5003 Week 5 Knowledge Check Quiz Question 1 5 out of 5 correct Saved Which statement best describes the major characteristic of bronchiolitis? Question 1 options: Destruction of lung parenchyma and collapse of distal airways Obstruction by eosinophilic mucous plugs in the upper airway Extensive constriction of the bronchioles Question 2 Saved Which of the following physiologic abnormalities is characteristic of emphysema? Question 2 options: Extensive inflammation of the lower airways Widespread occurrence of bronchial plugs collapse of proximal airways Question 3 Saved Which of the following describes an asthma that is common in children and adolescents, with bronchospasm occurring within 3 minutes of activity? Question 3 options: Occupational-induced Drug-induced Cardiac-induced Question 4 Saved Which of the following values is consistent with acute respiratory failure? Question 4 options: PaO2 of 100 mmHg PaCO2 of 40 mmHg pH greater than 7.6 Question 5 Saved What is the most life-threatening type of croup usually caused by Haemophilus influenzae? Question 5 options: Respiratory distress syndrome Cystic fibrosis Bronchiolitis NSG 5003 Week 6 Knowledge Check Quiz Question 1 Both iron and folate are vital to meet both the woman’s needs and those of the developing baby. They play an active role in the development of: Question 1 options: A) Erythrocytes B) Leukocytes C) Neutrophils D) Platelets Save Question 2 Within the first year of life, it is normal for a childs: Question 2 options: A) Reticulocyte count to rise B) Platelet count to fall C) Lymphocyte count to rise D) Eosinophil count to fall Save Question 3 A 63-year-old woman with diabetes notes that she has a general feeling of tiredness and a loss of appetite. The physician collects a CBC in addition to normal diabetic laboratory tests. The results indicate an anemia, and she is referred to a hematologist. The hematologist reviews her laboratory findings and begins to explain her diagnosis of megaloblastic anemia. Further testing indicates that the woman suffers from a vitamin B12 deficiency or PA. This condition is often associated with: Question 3 options: A) Chronic gastritis B) Thalassemia C) Thalassemia D) Inadequate dietary intake Save Question 4 The treatment for iron overload is Question 4 options: A) Vitamin C supplements B) Phlebotomy C) Aspirin D) Plasmapheresis Save Question 5 DIC is secondary to a wide variety of well-defined clinical conditions, specifically those that activate the clotting cascade. The clotting may result in the consumption of platelets, and clotting factors may lead to severe bleeding that is caused by: Question 5 options: A) Endothelial damage B) Lack of thrombin production C) Increased synthesis of thrombomodulin D) Platelet activation NSG 5003 Week 7 Knowledge Check Quiz Question 1 In the digestive system, the stomach is stimulated by eating to produce large volumes of gastric secretions. The secretion that is responsible for converting pepsinogen to pepsin and acts as a bactericide against swallowed organisms is: Question 1 options: A) Gastroferrin C) Intrinsic factor D) Chymotrypsin Save Question 2 The enteric nervous system regulates intestinal motility. Of the two movements that promote motility, the one that occurs more frequently is: Question 2 options: A) Segmentation C) Vagal stimulation D) Neural reflex Save Question 3 A 31-year-old woman visits a gastroenterologist’s office with complaints of diarrhea.The stool is bloody with mucous. Although the sample will be sent to a laboratory for analysis, the gastroenterologist suggests an endoscopy and histologic studies of biopsied tissue. She discusses the possible diagnoses, among them Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis. The type of diarrhea caused by See the (expanded ) discussion grading rubric below the inflammatory disorder of the intestine is: Question 3 options: A) Secretory B) Small-volume C) Motility Save Question 4 Patients who suffer from ulcerative colitis and Crohn disease have abdominal pain, which is the result of distention and inflammation. This type of pain is known as: Question 4 options: B) Referred C) Referred D) Somatic Save Question 5 With two major abnormalities in copper metabolism, diminished biliary excretion and failure to insert copper into the blood, a positive copper balance is present from birth in children with Wilson disease. The classic presentation of Wilson disease is a triad of neuromuscular abnormalities stemming from brain damage particularly in the: Question 5 options: A) Parietal lobe C) Corpus callosum D) Insular cortex Save NSG 5003 Week 8 Knowledge Check Quiz Question 1 The kidney is able to keep the rate of glomerular perfusion and GFR fairly constant over a range of arterial pressures. One mechanism responsible for the autoregulatory response in the kidney is: Question 1 options: Active transport Carrier mechanism Passive transport Save Question 2 Acute cystitis is an inflammation of the bladder and is the most common site of UTIs. A UTI is an inflammation of the urinary epithelium most usually caused by: Question 2 options: Fungus from the perineal area Herpes simplex 2 A worm or parasite Save Question 3 Different patterns of urinary sediment may be associated with varying types of glomerulonephritis. The loss of the negative electrical charge across the glomerular filtration membrane and an increase in filtration pore size enhances the movement of proteins into the urine. The type of sediment characterized by the presence of blood and varying degrees of protein in the urine is: Question 3 options: Urodynamic Polymorphic Crescentic Save Question 4 An 11-year old girl is seen in her pediatrician’s office. Her mother has scheduled an appointment because she is concerned that her daughter is developing faster than her friends. The pediatrician explains that a variety of factors influence the timing of puberty. The young client states that she has worn a bra for almost 2 years. Breast development is caused by the secretion of: Question 4 options: Estradiol Androgens Gonadotropin Save Question 5 In female adolescents, egg production occurs: Question 5 options: During leptin secretion During embryonic development(thought this was right -&Yes). NSG 5003 Week 9 Knowledge Check Quiz Question 1 Cheyne–Stokes respirations are described as a: Question 1 options: Sustained, deep, rapid but regular pattern of breathing Crescendo-decrescendo pattern of breathing, followed by a period of apnea Prolonged inspiratory period, gradually followed by a short expiratory period Completely irregular breathing pattern with random, shallow, deep breaths and irregular p Question 2 Vomiting is associated with CNS injuries that compress which of the brain’s anatomic locations? Question 2 options: Vestibular nuclei in the lower brainstem Floor of the third ventricle Any area in the midbrain Diencephalon Question 3 Which person is at the greatest risk of developing delirium? Question 3 options: An individual with diabetes, celebrating his or her seventieth birthday A depressed Hispanic woman An individual on the second day after hip replacement A patient in for uncontrolled hyper tension Question 4 A sudden, explosive, disorderly discharge of cerebral neurons is termed: Question 4 options: Reflex Seizure Epilepsy Convulsion Question 5 A complex partial seizure is described as: Question 5 options: Alternating of tonic and clonic movements Impairment of both consciousness and the ability to react to exogenous stimuli Focal motor movement without loss of consciousness One seizure followed by another in less than one minute Question 6 Status epilepticus is considered a medical emergency because of the: Question 6 options: Loss of consciousness Development of cerebral hypoxia Possibility of a head injury during seizures Decrease in brain metabolism Question 7 Tremors at rest, rigidity, akinesia, and postural abnormalities are a result of the atrophy of neurons in the: Question 7 options: Caudate lobe, which that produces serotonin Putamen, which produces gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) Substantia nigra, which produces dopamine Hypothalamus, which produces acetylcholine Question 8 Diffuse axonal injuries (DAIs) of the brain often result in: Question 8 options: Reduced levels of consciousness Mild but permanent dysfunction Fine motor tremors Visual disturbances Question 9 Which group is most at risk of spinal cord injury from minor trauma? Question 9 options: Children Adolescents Adults Older adults Question 10 What indicates that spinal shock is terminating? Question 10 options: Voluntary movement below the level of injury Reflex emptying of the bladder Paresthesia below the level of injury Decreased deep tendon reflexes and flaccid paralysis Question 11 Which term is used to describe a complication that can result from a spinal cord injury above T6 that is producing paroxysmal hypertension, as well as piloerection and sweating above the spinal cord lesion? Question 11 options: Craniosacral dysreflexia Parasympathetic dysreflexia Autonomic hyperreflexia Retrograde hyperreflexia Question 12 Why does a person who has a spinal cord injury experience faulty control of sweating? Question 12 options: The hypothalamus is unable to regulate body heat as a result of damage to the sympathetic system. The thalamus is unable to regulate body heat as a result of damage to the sympathetic nerv The hypothalamus is unable to regulate body heat as a result of damage to the parasympat system. The thalamus is unable to regulate body heat as a result of damage to spinal nerve roots. Question 13 Spinal cord injuries most likely occur in which region? Question 13 options: Cervical and thoracic Thoracic and lumbar Lumbar and sacral Cervical and thoracic-lumbar Question 14 The most likely rationale for body temperature fluctuations after cervical spinal cord injury is that the person has: Question 14 options: Developed bilateral pneumonia or a urinary tract infection (UTI) Sustained sympathetic nervous system damage resulting in disturbed thermal contro Sustained a head injury that damaged the hypothalamus’s ability to regulate temperature Developed septicemia from posttrauma infection Question 15 Multiple sclerosis is best described as a(an): Question 15 options: CNS demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus Inadequate supply of acetylcholine at the neurotransmitter junction as a result of an autoim disorder Depletion of dopamine in the CNS as a result of a virus Degenerative disorder of lower and upper motor neurons caused by viral-immune factors Question 16 What is the most common opportunistic infection associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)? Question 16 options: Non-Hodgkin lymphoma Kaposi sarcoma Toxoplasmosis Cytomegalovirus Question 17 It is true that Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS): Question 17 options: Is preceded by a viral illness Involves a deficit in acetylcholine Results in asymmetric paralysis Is an outcome of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) Question 18 It is true that myasthenia gravis: Question 18 options: Is an acute autoimmune disease Affects the nerve roots May result in adrenergic crisis Causes muscle weakness Question 19 In which disorder are acetylcholine receptor antibodies (immunoglobulin G [IgG] antibodies) produced against acetylcholine receptors? Question 19 options: Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) Multiple sclerosis Myasthenia gravis Parkinson disease Question 20 Question 20 options: What data confer the link between bipolar disorders and schizophrenia? Individuals with bipolar disorder who exhibit psychotic behaviors have deficits in reelin e linked to genetic loci located on chromosome 22. Individuals with schizophrenia who exhibit psychotic behaviors have deficits in serotonin genetic loci located on chromosome 16. Individuals with bipolar disorder who exhibit psychotic behaviors have deficits in gamma acid (GABA) linked to genetic loci located on chromosome 20. Individuals with schizophrenia who exhibit psychotic behaviors have deficits in reelin exp to genetic loci located on chromosome 18. NSG 5003 Week 10 Knowledge Check Quiz Question 1 During DKA, insulin counter-regulatory hormones, such as catecholamines and cortisol, increase. Profound insulin deficiency results in: Question 1 options: Decreased fat mobilization Increased glucose uptake Activation of bicarbonate buffering Question 2 As the young mother is walking to her car, she becomes aware that someone is following her. Her body responds with a “fight or flight” response, which is regulated by the adrenal medulla’s secretion of: Question 2 options: Cortisol Glucocorticoids Androgens Question 3 A 24-year-old mother visits her obstetrician’s office 1 week after delivering her baby. She is having trouble with breast- feeding and milk expression. The obstetrician prescribes a nasal spray that will stimulate the posterior pituitary to release which one of the following hormones? Question 3 options: Prolactin Calcitonin Incretin Question 4 Joints are classified based on the degree of movement they permit or on the connecting tissues that hold them together. A joint in which the two bony surfaces are united by a ligament or membrane is called Question 4 options: Gomphosis Articulation Symphysis Question 5 A 15 year of boy suffered a complete separation of a ligament from its bony attachment. This injury is known as Question 5 options: Lateral epicondylopathy Crepitus Malunion NSG 5003 Week 10 Knowledge Check Quiz: Advanced Pathophysiology: South University Question 1 A 15 year of boy suffered a complete separation of a ligament from its bony attachment. This injury is known as Question 1 options: Lateral epicondylopathy Crepitus Avulsion (100% sure) Malunion Question 2 Joints are classified based on the degree of movement they permit or on the connecting tissues that hold them together. A joint in which the two bony surfaces are united by a ligament or membrane is called Question 2 options: Syndesmosis (100% sure) Gomphosis Articulation Symphysis Question 3 During DKA, insulin counter-regulatory hormones, such as catecholamines and cortisol, increase. Profound insulin deficiency results in: Question 3 options: Decreased fat mobilization Activation of glucose forming pathways in the liver (100% sure). Increased glucose uptake Activation of bicarbonate buffering Question 4 A 24-year-old mother visits her obstetrician’s office 1 week after delivering her baby. She is having trouble with breast- feeding and milk expression. The obstetrician prescribes a nasal spray that will stimulate the posterior pituitary to release which one of the following hormones? Question 4 options: Oxytocin (100% sure). Prolactin Calcitonin Incretin Question 5 Bone formation requires collagen synthesis, fiber formation, and mineralization. The majority of the mineral content in the body is an analog of which naturally occurring mineral? Question 5 options: Periosteum Procallus Calcium phosphate Hydroxyapatite