MAT 628 Domain IV Questions, Answers and Rationale

MAT 628 Domain IV Questions, Answers and Rationale 1. What does “extension lag” mean? a. Ability to only flex the knee b. Inability to fully backward bend(lumbar movement) c. One leg drags behind the other during gait d. Inability to fully extend the knee e. Inability to fully extend the hip An extension lag happens when the patient cannot fully extend his or her knee 2. What is the best method of determining the recovery status of the hand and forearm after a reflex injury? a. Use of KT-1000 arthrometer b. Assessing the strength of a handshake c. Manual muscle testing of the wrist d. Use of a hand dynamometer e. Electromyography testing A hand dynamometer is a simple tool used to objectively assess the functional strength of the hand and forearm Principles of Athletic Training Pg. 800-805 3. Which of the following is a correct sequence of tissue healing? a. Cellular response, regeneration, remodeling b. Remodeling, regeneration, Cellular response c. Rejection, regeneration, resolution d. Regeneration, resolution, remodeling e. None of the above Tissue healing begins with a cellular response, which is associated with vascular changes, followed by phase II, or regeneration, of both soft tissue and bone. The third phase is known as remodeling in which there is an increased organization of extracellular matrix and decreased synthetic activity. Principles of Athletic Training Pg.274-276 4. What amount of time it takes for complete remodeling of tissues to occur after a soft tissue injury? a. 1 to 3 months b. 6 to 9 months c. 4 to 6 weeks d. 12 to 24 months e. Up to one year It may take up to 1 year before soft tissue remodeling is complete. Principles of Athletic Training Pg 276, 450 5. Where is the primary location for adenosine triphosphate production in skeletal muscle? a. Sarcomere b. Sarcoplasm c. Sarcolemma d. Sarcoplasmic reticulum e. Mitochondria The primary location of adenosine triphosphate in the skeletal muscle is the sacromere 6. Sensory receptors located at the musculotendinous junction, which monitor active tension generated by the muscle during a contraction, are called? a. Pacinian corpuscles b. Ruffini receptors c. Golgi tendon organs d. Muscle spindles e. Contractile sensory receptors Golgi tendon organs are sensory receptors found in the muscle tendons that monitor the tension generated in a muscle during contraction Principles of Athletic Training Pg. 98-99 7. Which of the following describes neurapraxia? a. Demyelination of the axon sheath that leads to the conduction block. Usually heals in approximately 1 to 2 weeks b. Loss or disruption of the ax and myelin sheath. The epineurium is still intact c. An injury to the endoneurium, perineurium, and epineurium with a permanent neurological deficit d. A crush injury to a nerve causing damage to the epineurium. The perineurium is intact e. None of the above A neurapraxia is the demyelination of the axon sheath of a nerve fiber. This condition will cause a failure of the nerve to conduct impulses, causing a conduction block. It is usually reversible. 8. Bone grows via a process of apposition and resorption on its surface. Which of the following cells are responsible for the resorption of the bone during its growth or repair? a. Osteoblast b. Osteocytes c. Osteophils d. Osteoclasts e. None of the above Osteoclasts are cells that reabsorb bone during growth. Principles of Athletic Training Pg. 282 9. Why is the repair response so limited in articular cartilage of a joint after an injury in the adult athlete? a. Articular Cartilage cells do not undergo mitosis in the mature athlete b. Particular cartilage has poor venous supply c. Articular Cartilage has a low water content d. There are fewer mitochondria present in the articular Cartilage then in the hyaline cartilage e. All the above Cell division for new cartilage growth does not occur in the adult. Principles of Athletic Training Pg 274 10. What are the four sensations an athlete will experience with the application of cryotherapy? a. Cold, burning, cramping, numbness b. Pain, aching, stinging, cold c. Aching, burning, pain, numbness d. Cold, burning, aching, numbness e. Cold, burning, stinging, aching The patient will experience the feelings of cold, followed by burning, then aching, and finally numbness. Principles of Athletic Training Pg. 401-407 11. Effects of treating a sub acute musculoskeletal injury with a warm whirlpool include all the following except: a. Analgesia b. Stimulation of local circulation c. Decreased muscle spasm d. Increased deep tissue temperature e. Decreased joint stiffness A warm whirlpool is a superficial heater. It will only heat the superficial tissues. Principles of Athletic Training Pg. 409-411 12. Which cells are active after an injury to begin building collagen? a. Osteocytes b. Osteoblasts c. Granulocytes d. Osteoclasts e. Fibroblast Fibroblasts become active during the regeneration phase of the inflammatory response to begin building collagen. Principles of Athletic Training Pg. 273 13. Heat is dissipated in the body by all the following except: a. Shivering b. Convection c. The lungs d. Sweat evaporation e. Vasodilation Shivering is a method by which the body generates heat. Principles of Athletic Training Pg. 165-167 14. External muscular force available for useful work is the result of all the following factors except: a. The velocity of muscular shortening b. Whether the muscle is fast or slow twitch c. The angle of the pull of the muscle d. The length of the muscle e. C and D External force created by a muscle depends on the velocity of the muscle shortening (as the speed of shortening increases, the force decreases), the angle of the pull of the muscle (ie, when the muscle pulls at right angles to the bone it is moving, the muscular force will be optimal), and the length of the muscle (the tension developed with a contraction is greatest if the muscle is at its maximum resting length to start) Principles of Athletic Training Pg. 442 15. Balance and coordination are critical for athletic performance. Feedback from the muscles as to what they are doing during a particular activity is known as blank. The area of the brain that assists in controlling movement is blank. a. Proprioception, brainstem b. Muscle perception, Badulla c. kinesthesia, cortex d. Proprioception, cerebellum e. Kinesthesia, cerebrum Proprioception is the awareness of movement, changes of equilibrium, and posture of the body and its segments. The “control center” for proprioceptive awareness in the brain is located in the cerebellum. Principles of Athletic Training Pg. 446 16. What is a stretching exercise that consist of a “stretch and hold” position called? a. Static stretch b. PNF pattern c. Ballistic stretch d. Warm up e. B and C A static stretch requires that the patient stretch the muscle and hold the position to prevent a muscle injury, which may occur with ballistic stretching. Principles of Athletic Training Pg. 96,97 17. If hyperventilation does not adequately increase the oxygen supply in the blood during aerobic exercise, what must occur to meet the gas exchange demands? a. Increased cardiac output b. Decreased cardiac output c. Supplemental iron pills must be provided d. The activity must be discontinued e. None of the above The cardiovascular and respiratory systems must work together to meet the oxygen demands of the skeletal musculature during exercise. If the demand is not met by increasing the respiratory rate, the cardiac output must increase to increase the delivery of the red blood cells from the lungs to the heart to the muscles. Principles of Athletic Training Pg. 932-933 18. An injured athlete is led to a therapeutic mentor process in which he pictures himself being a bad way by the athletic trainer and assured the injury is not serious. He then pictures himself moving through rehabilitation, recovering nicely, and finally, returning to his sport fully healed. What is a therapeutic approach this recovery process called? a. Regression b. Thought stopping c. Biofeedback d. Meditation e. Visualization Visualization, also known as therapeutic imagery, incorporates the mental rehearsal of a positive rehabilitative experience followed by full recovery. It is a psychological tool used to enhance physical healing after an injury. Principles of Athletic Training Pg. 312 19. What must the athletic trainer establish with the athlete prior to and during rehab in order for the rehabilitation of injured athlete to be successful? a. A good rapport b. A position of dominance c. A deadline by which the athlete must return to full-time participation in his or her sport d. The understanding that the coach has the final decision in his or her rehabilitation sessions e. B and C For rehabilitation of an injury to be successful, the athletic trainer must establish a good rapport with the patient so that the patient is comfortable and there is a mutual environment of trust. 20. A basketball player who has sprained her ankle for the second time in three months reports to Athleta training facility for her third treatment session. The athletic trainer notices she is demanding and wants to know why the athletic trainer “did not fix her ankle the right way the first time.” She becomes somewhat threatening, stating that she will find someone else to help her if she is not successfully healed this time. What would be the best response to an attention seeking athlete? a. Give up and let her seek help somewhere else b. Work with the athlete as long as necessary to satisfy her need for attention c. Set specific but reasonable time limits with the athlete for treatment session so the athletic trainer is not overtaxed d. Encourage the athlete to take a more positive position on her rehabilitation and use humor to divert her attention away from the injury e. None of the above An attention seeking patient generally will not accept responsibility for him or herself and enjoys being dependent upon other individuals. As a result, the patient is demanding and is not satisfied with the amount of time the other patients receive, always wanting more time and attention by the athletic trainer taking care of him or her. This type of patient is very draining to the health care staff and requires specific boundaries so the staff is not burned out by the patient. 21. Is an athlete needs to lose weight for health reasons, how many calories must his or her daily diet be reduced by in order to lose 1 to 2 pounds per week? a. 250 to 500 cal/day b. 1000 to 2000 cal/week c. 1000 to 2000 cal/day d. 500 to 1000 cal/day e. None of the above In order to lose 1 to 2 pounds a week, an athlete must reduce his or her daily caloric intake by 500 to 1000 calories a day. Principles of Athletic Training Pg.154 22. Which modality would be best utilized if the desired therapeutic effect is decrease, edema, and inflammation? a. Moist heat packs b. Ultrasound c. Diathermy. d. Fluidotherapy e. Ice packs Cryotherapy is used as an anesthetic and to prevent or decrease the inflammatory process. Principles of Athletic Training Pg. 401-407 23. What are heat producing currents in the body that are formed by a magnetic field that is externally applied and shortwave diathermy called? a. Induction currents b. Magnetic currents c. Eddy current d. Alternating current e. Interferential current Eddy currents are heat producing currents that are administered by means of an induction coil or condenser plate of a short wave diathermy unit. It uses a magnetic field to create these currents within the tissues. Principles of Athletic Training Pg.430-432 24. High voltage pulse monophasic generators deliver current to deep tissues without damaging superficial tissues and are used for pain modulation. What type of wave form is used with this type of stimulator? a. Asymmetrical biphasic spiked pulse b. Monophasic squared pulse c. Symmetric biphasic pulses d. Monophasic spike delivered in Pairs e. None of the above A monophasic spike waveform delivered in pairs is used with high voltage pulsed generators. 25. Hey moist heat pack causes all of the following effects except: a. Higher superficial tissue temperatures b. Increases in muscle tissue temperature c. Sedation d. Reduction of muscle spasms e. Vasodilation Because a moist heat pack is a form of superficial heat, it does not increases the muscle tissue temperature. Principles of Athletic Training Pg. 408 26. What physiological effect occurs under the castle of an electrical stimulator? i. Vasodilation ii. Vasoconstriction iii. Tissue softening iv. Irritation a. I,III,IV b. II,III,IV c. I,II,III d. I,II,IV e. None of the above The negative pole or cathode will cause local vasodilation under the pad, tissue softening, irritation, and edema reduction. Principles of Athletic Training Pg.416-421 27. All the following are contraindications for using cryotherapy except: a. Raynaud's phenomenon b. Inflammation c. Vasculitis d. Cold urticaria e. A and D Inflammation of a body part is an indication for the use of cryotherapy. Principles of Athletic Training Pg.401-407 28. What would be a functional skill for a patient in an ankle rehabilitation program? a. Gastrocnemius flexibility b. Single leg hopping c. Lifting tolerance d. Anterior tibialis strengthening e. All of the above Single leg hopping would be an appropriate functional skill assessing the patient's readiness for play after an ankle injury. LIfting tolerance is not a skill. Principles of Athletic Training Pg.590-596 29. When rehabilitating a musculoskeletal injury, what is the proper progression of treatment? a. Range of motion, strength, endurance, proprioception b. Pain relief, agility, range of motion, strength c. Range of motion, pain relief, endurance, proprioception d. Proprioception, range of motion, strength, endurance e. Range of motion, endurance, strength, proprioception Normal range of motion of a joint must be restored before and concurrently with strengthening exercises during rehabilitation. Limb endurance and proprioception follow in the later phases of treatment. Principles of Athletic Training Pg 356 30. Which of the following PNF techniques is not a strengthening technique? a. Slow reversal b. Rhythmic stabilization c. Slow reversal hold relax d. Rhythmic initiation e. All the above Slow reversal hold relax is a PNF stretching technique. Principles of Athletic Training Pg. 456-461 31. During a lower extremity do you want flexion PNF pattern, what movements are taking place at the hip? a. Extension, abduction, internal rotation b. Flexion, abduction, internal rotation c. Extension, adduction, external rotation d. Flexion, adduction, external rotation e. Flexion, abduction, external rotation The hip is a moving into a pattern of flexion, adduction, and external rotation during a D1 flexion pattern. Principles of Athletic Training Pg. 456-461 32. During a D2 extension pattern of the upper extremity, what is the proper timing sequence? a. Shoulder extension, forearm pronation, finger flexion b. Shoulder flexion, scapular retraction, finger extension c. Shoulder abduction, forearm supination, finger extension d. Shoulder extension, forearm supination, finger flexion e. None of the above The proper timing sequence for a D2 extension pattern of the upper extremity is shoulder extension followed by forearm pronation and finger flexion. Principles of Athletic Training Pg. 456-461 33. According to Maitlands five grades of joint motion, which grade would be most appropriate when joint movement is limited by pain in spasm? a. I b. II c. III d. IV e. V Grade I joint mobilization is appropriate for decreasing pain and spasm. Principles of Athletic Training Pg. 374, 462-464 34. A patient is seen by the athletic trainer four weeks postoperatively after shoulder arthroscopy. During the athletic trainers assessment, it is found that the patient has limited abduction secondary to capsular stiffness. Which of the following joint glides would be appropriate to improve this motion? a. Inferior humeral glide b. Anterior humeral glide c. Posterior humeral glide d. Superior humeral glide e. All of the above/combined glides An inferior humeral glide is the proper glide to employ when trying to restore or increase shoulder abduction. Principles of Athletic Training Pg. 374 35. Which of the following statements accurately describes Isokinetic training? a. Generation of a muscular force with no visible joint movement b. Generation of a muscular force with visible joint movement that occurs at a constant speed but with variable external resistance c. Generation of a muscular force with visible joint movement at a variable speed but with a fixed external resistance d. Generation of a muscle force during muscular lengthening e. None of the above Isokinetic training is generation of a muscular force with observable joint movement that occurs at a constant speed with variable external resistance. Principles of Athletic Training Pg.111-112, 445 36. Which of the following massage techniques is a method of tapotement? a. Cupping b. Hacking c. Pinching d. All of the above e. None of the above Cupping, hacking, and pinching are all methods of tapotement Principles of Athletic Training Pg. 423-424 37. When massage is utilized to induce a sedated effect, which type of massage technique is indicated? a. Tapotment b. Vibration c. Petrissage d. Danish e. Effleurage Effleurage is a superficial or deep stroking technique used to produce relaxation. Principles of Athletic Training Pg. 422 38. What condition and component is needed to perceive the position of the foot as it lands on the ground after the swing phase of gait? a. Agility b. Balance c. Proprioception d. Kinesthesia e. Eccentric stretching Proprioception is the awareness of posture, positioning, and movement, as the limb is moved through space. Principles of Athletic Training Pg. 527-528 39.) Descending hills during running requires what type of muscular contraction by the quadriceps to do celebrate the body? E. The quadriceps must contract eccentric lead to allow for deceleration of the body and downhill running Principles of athletic training book PG.103 40.) What should I post season conditioning program specifically focus on? D. conditioning should focus on identifying and emphasizing specific areas of conditioning components the patient needs to improve upon Principles of athletic training book PG.89-91 41.) During the acute phase of the ankle injury the water temperature of the whirl pool should be set at what temperature B. During the acute phase of the ankle Andrew some form of cryotherapy should be initiated the water temperature should be set at 55°F to 65°F to prevent swelling Principles of athletic training book PG.410 42.) Before returning an athlete to full activity all of the following criteria should equal those taken from the uninvolved side at the end of the rehabilitation program except B. The girth measurements of the involve light do not have to be exactly equal before returning the patient to full activity as slight differences are normal Principles of athletic training book PG.441 43.) Which of the following components of a rehabilitation program is most often overlooked by the athletic trainer during rehabilitation? C. Restoration of normal proprioception of the affected limb is the most commonly forgotten component of the rehabilitation program Principles of athletic training book PG.446 44.) What type of exercise may be safely initiated immediately after knee surgery? C. Isometric strengthening exercises are the safest exercise to initiate immediately Principles of athletic training book PG.444 45.) When rehabilitating a patient who has been diagnosed with jumpers knee which muscle groups should eventually be strengthened B. Isometric strengthening exercises are the safest exercise to initiate immediately Principles of athletic training book PG.447 46.) I’m treating an athlete with trochanteric bursitis flexibility should be increased in which of the following muscles B. Jumpers knee is an ovary syndrome of the extensor mechanism of the name there is injury to the proximal pole of the patella as it is subject to repetitive attraction pole of the quadriceps musculature Principles of athletic training book PG.448 47.) I’m treating an athlete with trochanteric bursitis flexibility should be increased in which of the following muscles D. Trochanteric bursitis can be caused or aggravated by a tight tensor fascia muscle Principles of athletic training book PG.462 48.) A tight Achilles’ tendon can cause or in order to allow the lower leg to move Ofer the foot during running D. I talked to Kelly telling him cause early he’ll off or excessive pronation in order to allow the lower leg to move over the foot during running Principles of athletic training book PG.451 49.) Which of the following is not a factor in designing an appropriate treatment program A. The coaches opinion concerning when the athlete should return your plate should not influence that for trans professional judgment and designing a rehabilitation program and following prudent guidelines for care Principles of athletic training book PG.221 50.) When are you building a cervical strain what must the athletic trainer maintain the integrity of A. Range of motion and strength of shoulder girl is intimately related to the function of the cervical area Principles of athletic training book PG.402 51.) Which of the following sequences contains the appropriate steps and rehabilitating a grade 2 ankle sprain A. The proper sequence for rehabilitating a grade 2 ankle sprain includes rest ice compression elevation stretching exercises isometric exercises proprioception exercises an isotonic strengthening exercises Principles of athletic training book PG. 440-441 52.) When is the best time to begin a rehabilitation program after an injury E. Rehabilitation should begin as soon as possible after the injury with the initiation of modalities for pain relief. Principles of athletic training book PG.448-451 53.) We’re following the DAPRE technique of progressive resistive exercise the first of 10 repetitions is performed with a weight that is of the weight that will be lifted and sent three C. The first set of the 10 repetitions is with a way that is 50% of the rate that will be lifted in set three when utilizing the DAPRE technique of progressive resistive exercise Principles of athletic training book PG.443 54.) When rehabilitating a patient with patella for moral pain syndrome which muscle groups should be strengthened D. With a diagnosis of patella for moral pain syndrome chondomalica patella or sub Lexing patella it is important to strengthen the quadriceps with an emphasis on the fastest medialis oblique is a muscle and the hip abductors in order to improve the tracking of the patella Principles of athletic training book PG.716-717 55.) Which of the following exercises are appropriate and attempting to decrease the symptoms of thoracic outlet syndrome E. Stretching the anterior chest wall and strengthening the mid thoracic musculature improve posture and decrease pressure on the structures of the thoracic outlet Principles of athletic training book PG.858 56.) What are the most appropriate exercises for a diagnosis of lumbar spinal stenosis A. Stretching the anterior chest wall and strengthening the mid thoracic musculature improve posture and decrease pressure on the structures of the thoracic outlet Principles of athletic training book PG.446 57.) Which of the following is do not address proprioception C. Williams flexion exercises encourage a position of lumbar flexion which opens the vertible forminia Taking the pressure off the nerve root Principles of athletic training book PG.700-701 58.) One rehabilitating a shoulder in what area should strengthening exercises be initiated first E. The patient’s body is in a stable static position while using recumbent stationary bicycle it I need to rely on the proprioception to perform this activity Principles of athletic training book PG.665 59.) When rehabilitating a patient who has undergone an anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction which of the following muscle groups must be strengthen to support the graft D. Scapular musculature should be strengthened first to promote stability before the distal musculature is strengthen to provide mobility Principles of athletic training book PG.445 60.) Which of the following pieces of equipment is not considered closed kinetic chain B. Hamstring strengthening should be initiated early and anterior cruciate reconstruction rehabilitation because hamstrings are main secondary stabilizers for the anterior cruciate ligament the extension machine is not close chain exercises because the feet are not in contact with any surface Principles of athletic training book PG.779 61.) When rehabilitating the latter epicondylitis which muscle group needs to be strengthened B. Lateral epicondylitis is an overuse syndrome of the wrist extensors once inflammatory process is under control strengthening the wrist extensors will help prevent a reoccurrence of the problem Principles of athletic training book PG.451 62.) When rehabilitating the latter epicondylitis which muscle group needs to be strengthened B. Mackenzie extension exercises are appropriate for treating a lumbar herniated disc as they occur as a mechanical movement of the disc anteriorly away from the nerve root 63.) When rehabilitating the latter epicondylitis which muscle group needs to be strengthened C. When performing abdominal crunch patient she crosses arms across chest took his shin bend his knees in hell and then exhale as he pulls his torso up towards his knees Principles of athletic training book PG.634-635 64.) When rehabilitating a patient with a recent herniated lumbar disc which of the following is the most appropriate E. Running on a treadmill with most closely released to the type of activity a soccer player would participate in during his or her sport Principles of athletic training book PG.449 65.) Patient needs instruction on how to properly perform an abdominal set up what should the athletic trainer recommend A. Mechanical traction is not indicated for treatment of an acute sprain and strain Principles of athletic training book PG.473 66.) Which of the following muscle groups listed below are involved during a bench press C. The anterior deltoid triceps after Alice major and latissimus dorsi are all active while performing a bench press 67.) Which of the following muscle groups are involved during a full squat with weights C. The quadriceps hamstrings in erector spinae and gluteus maximus are all active and performing a full squat with weights Principles of athletic training book PG.9 68.) Which of the following muscles are involved in the seated military press D. The trapezius pectoralis major Seratus anterior and tricep musculature are all active when performing a seat in the military press Principles of athletic training book PG.9 69.) Which of the following describes a grade 3 joint mobilization technique B. Grade 3 joint mobilization is a large able to movement throughout the full available range of motion of the joint Principles of athletic training book PG.462-464 70.) When rehabilitating a patient it is important that the area being rehabilitated distressed with a variety of intensity and duration strength conditioning the body responds to the stresses by adapting to the specific demands imposed on it what is this principle known as A. The SA ID principal stands for a specific adoption to imposed demands Principles of athletic training book PG.90-91 71.) Which of the following is not an example of an isotonic device E. A wall is in immovable object and maybe use for isometric exercise during isotonic exercise there is a fixed resistance with variable speed of movement Principles of athletic training book PG.109-110 72.) When stretching during a warm-up routine which type of stretching should not be encouraged because it may lead to an injury A. Ballistic stretching places high intermittent demands on the muscle possibly exceeding its physiological limitations leading to muscle tear Principles of athletic training book PG.96 73.) In which of the following sports would plyometric training be beneficial C. Plyometric training involves loading a muscle eccentric Lee prior to performing a powerful Concentric contraction Principles of athletic training book PG.112 74.) Which of the following exercises improve proprioception feedback when rehabilitating a lower extremity injury B. Having a patient stand on an injured limb on a mini trampoline and Hanses proprioception by making the patient actually is slightly on level surface the goal is to have the patient maintain this position without wobbling or losing his or her balance Principles of athletic training book PG.441 75.) And I have it is recovering from a partial Meniscectomy performed five days ago all of the following actions would be appropriate at this time except D. Because you said your muscle training requires high muscle tension to be generated exercising the quadriceps the center clean is initiated in the latter stages of rehabilitation Principles of athletic training book PG.442 76.) Which of the following exercises should be avoided in early stages of anterior cruciate reconstruction rehabilitation A. For the extension exercises should be avoided in the early stages of anterior cruciate reconstruction rehabilitation because of high shearing forces placed on the tibia by contracting quadriceps Principles of athletic training book PG.448 77.) Do you exercises that are designed to stabilize the lumbar spine during low battery ability should include ans C. Partial sit ups assist in strengthening the domino and trunk extension exercise strengthen the erector spinae musculature Principles of athletic training book PG.454-455 78. An athletic trainer working in a sports medicine clinic may have to read a SOAP note. In what section would a finding such as a positive Lachman’s test be recorded? a. Subjective (S) b. Objective (O) c. Assessment (A) d. Plan (P) e. Special Tests (S) “Objective findings result from the athletic trainer’s visual inspection, palpation, and assessment of active, passive and resistive range of motion. Findings of special testing should also be noted here.” (Prentice. Pg. 369) 79. Bracing for scoliosis of the spine may be effective with all ages except: a. 5 year olds b. 10 year olds c. 18 year olds d. 14 year olds e. Bracing is not effective at any age “ 80. Ultrasound is based on the effect. a. Resonance b. Sounding c. Cativation d. Phoresor e. Reverse piezoelectric “A reverse (indirect) piezoelectric effect occurs when an alternating current is passed through a piezoelectric crystal, resulting in its contraction and expansion.” (Starkey. Pg. 170) 81. What medium does not trasmit ultrasound waves? a. Water b. Gel c. Body lotion d. Steroid creams e. Air “Air is not dense enough to transmit ultrasonic energy. A coupling agent must be used to allow the energy to pass out of the ransduce into the tissues. (Starke. Pg. 176) 82. What kind of heating method does a warm whirlpool utilize? a. Conduction b. Convection c. Radiation d. Evaporation e. All of the above “Energy is transferred to or from the body by means of convection. In a hot whirlpool, heat is transmitted to the body. In a cold whirlpool, heat is transmitted away.” (Starkey. Pg. 145) 83. What is the term used in ultrasound to describe the time that sound waves are being emitted during one pulse period? a. Ultrasound frequency b. Cavitation c. Attenuation d. Duty cycle e. Intensity “Figure 7-10. Ultrasound Duty Cycle. The amount of time that the ultrasonic energy is produced. (Starkey. Pg. 177) 84. A moist heat pack offers what type of thermotherapy? a. Superficial b. Deep c. Cutaneous d. Surface e. None of the above “Moist heat packs are a superficial heat modality, transferring energy to the patient’s skin by way of conduction, with moisture assisting the transfer of energy. (Starkey. Pg. 150) 85. Convential TENS useas a frequency in the pulses per second range with a phase duration of useconds. a. 50 to 100, 250 b. 50 to 100, 2 to 50 c. 2 to 4, 150 d. 100, 20 to 30 e. 10, 50 “Conventional TENS treatment, applied with a high pulse frequency (60 to 100pps), short pulse duration (less than 100 usec, yielding a phase duration of approxamitely 50 usec), and sensorylevel intensity that stimulates A-beta fibers, activates the pain-modulating gate at the spinal-cord level.” (Starkey. Pg. 273) 86. What is one of the most serious adverse reactions during iontophoresis treatment? a. Galvanic burns b. Anaphylactic shock c. Dermatitis d. Histamine reaction e. None of the above “Burns of severe skin irritation are problems inherent to the application of a DC current on the human body. Either of these negative reactions is related to the hydrogen and hydroxide ions generated by the current.” (Starkey. Pg. 287) 87. Paraffin bath therapy is commonly used on the hands and feet as a method of superficial heating. To keep the paraffin mixture in a molten state, the temperature should be maintained between: a. 100F to 115F b. 80F to 105F c. 126F to 130F (book answer) d. 118F to 125F (modalites book answer) e. 140F to 150F “Melted parrafin is kept at a aconstant temperature of 118F to 125F for upper extremity treatments. Temperatures for treatments given to the lower extremity are decreased to 113F and 121F.” (Starkey. Pg. 153) 88. The theraputic conversion of electrical energy into high frequency sound energy above the audible range to create heat in the tissues is the definition of which modality? a. Diathermy b. Ultrasound c. Electric stimulation d. TENS e. Interferential current “The human ear is capable of detecting sound waves ranging from 16,000 to 20,000 hertz. Ultrasound has a frequency above this range.” (Starkey. Pg. 168) 89. Ultrasound waves are reflected by and absorbed by . a. Bone, skin b. Skin, connective tissue c. Skin, blood d. Bone, muscle e. Nerve, muscle “Longitudinal waves of ultrasound pass through soft tissue until it strikes bone, where some of the energy is reflected and the rest is converted into transverse waves.” (Starkey. Pg. 176) 90. Which of the following are contraindications to massage? I. Inflammation II. Pregnancy III. Hemorrhage IV. Infection V. Phlebitis a. I, II, III, IV b. I, III, IV, V c. II, III, IV d. II, III, IV, V e. All of the above “Contraindications: areas of active inflammation, sites where fractures have failed to heal, skin conditions in area to be treated, open wounds, infection causing lymphangitis, phlebitis, thrombophlebitis, or hematoma, varicose veins, arteriosclerois, cellulitis, abscess or other forms of infection, uncontrolled high blood pressure.” (Starkey. Pg. 353) 91. Which of the following is not an indication for diathermy? a. To increase local circulation b. Reduction of spasms c. Pain relief d. Cardiac abnormalities e. Osteoarthritis “Indications: acute and chronic pain, subacure and chronic inflammatory conditions in deep tissue layers, chronic inflammatory conditions, range-of-motion restrictions, muscle spasm, edema reduction, over fracture sites, hematomas and contusions, sinsusitis,venuous stasis ulcers.” (Starkey. Pg. 211) 92. Which of the follwoing is not a contraindication or precaution for the use of ultrasound? a. Scarring b. Acutre hemorrage c. Anesthesia d. Treating over the endocrine gland e. Open wounds “Indications: chronic inflammatory conditions, acute inflammatory conditions, pain reduction, joint contratures, muscle spasm, neuroma, scar tissue, sympathetic nervous system disorders, trigger points, warts, spasticity.” (Starkey. Pg. 196) 93. Which physical law is applied with the use of an infrared lamp? a. Joule’s law b. Inverse square law c. Wolff’s law d. Ohm’s law e. Newton’s law 94. and are 2 means that deliver medications via sound waves and electricity. a. Ultrasound, iontophoresis b. Ultrasound, phonophoresis c. Micromassage, phonophoresis d. Phonophoresis, iontophoresis e. High-volt electric stimulation, iontophoresis “Phonophoresis describes the use of theraputic ultrasound to assist in the diffusion of medication throught the skin.” (Starkey. Pg. 185) “Iontophoresis is the introduction of ionized medications into the subcutaneous tissues using a low-voltage DC.” (Starkey. Pg. 285) 95. What is a primary indication for cervical traction? a. Muscle spasm b. Hemorrhage c. Muscle weakness d. Vertigo e. None of the above “Traction may be used to alleviate cervical muscle spasm by reducing the pressure on the cervical nerve roots or stretching the muscle in an effort to interrupt the pain-spasm-pain cycle.” (Starkey. Pg. 328) 96. The athletic trainer of a collegiate women’s swimming and diving team suspects one of his patients might have a severe eating disorder. After lengthy discussion with both the coach and the patient, the athletic trainer decides it would be best for the paitent if she is referred for professional help. To which of the following iprofessionals should the patient be initially referred? a. An endocrinologist b. A chiropractor c. A registered dietitian d. A registered nurse e. A psychologist “Athletes with disordered eating should be referred to a mental health practitioner for evaluation, diagnosis, and recommendations for treatment.” (Prentice. Pg. 152) 97. One of your male patients notices a tingly sensation is his urethra followed by a discharge of greenish-yellow pus from his penis. He is also complaining of pain during urination. You suspect which sexually transmitted disease and recommend which of the following actions? a. Syphilis; have the patient take Zovirax for 7 to 10 days b. Trichomoniasis; have the patient drink acidic fluids, call his family physician, and have the patient refrain from all sexual contact c. Genital candidiasis; have the patient apply a furnicide to his penis d. Gonorrhea; refer the patient to a physician and have him refrain from all sexual contact e. Genital herpes; have the patient take Diflucan “Bacteria that cause gonorrhea incubate for 1 to 3 weeks, then induce purulent urethral discharge and painful dysuria. Sexual contact with others must be strictly avoided until the infection is eleminated.” (O’Connor, Fincher. Pg. 260) 98. During the rehabilitation of a knee injury, the athletic trainer decides the use of neuromuscluar stimulation is indicated. As the athletic trainer is applying the electrodes to the patient’s thigh, the patient says he has never had electric stimulation and is scared of electricity. Which of the following would be an appropriate response by the athletic trainer? a. Tell him he is being childish b. Demonstrate how it works c. Teach him about the general principles of electric stimulation d. Tell a joke about electricty to relax him e. Do not use an electrotheraputic modality on the patient 99. A cross-country runner comes to you because he would like to begin a strength-training program for general body development. He informs you that he “has never really lifted weights before.” How would you instruct him regarding his breathing pattern during a lift? a. Have the athlete inhale deeply at the beginnning of the lift and then forcefully exhale at the end of the lift b. Have the athlete hold his breath during the lift c. Have the athlete inhale during the lift and hold his breath at the end of the lift d. Have the athlete breathe in, blow out, and breathe in again at the end of the lift e. Breathe normally “ 100. What should the athletic trainer do when teaching a patient how to properly use crutches? a. Make sure the patient’s weight is fully supported on his or her hands and armpits b. Caution the patient not to lean on the crutches so that his or her weight is on the crutches’ axiallary pads c. Teach him or her how to use a cane first d. Teach the patient a 4-point gait e. Teach the patient a 5-point gait “If the crutch or cane is not properly fitting, the patient may experience discomfort in the axilla from excessive pressure as well as pain in the low back.” (Prentice. Pg. 339) 101. You suspect one of your soccer players is experiencing “training staleness”. Which of the following should you access when developing a counseling approach with the patient? a. The level of the patinet’s ability to play the sport b. The relationship between the patient and his family c. The patient’s training schedule and diet d. The patient’s competition schedule e. The relationship beteen the patient and coach “Engaging in proper and efficient resistance training, eating a proper diet, and getting appropriate rest can minimize the potential negative effects of overtraining.” (Prentice. Pg. 101) 102. When rehabilitating an athlete following a ligamentous wrist injury, once the ligament has healed enough where active motion can be intiated, it is important to educate the athlete to exercise only: a. Isometrically b. In water c. While using a prophylatic brace d. First thing in the morning e. In a pain-free range “Following decrease in pain and edema, and return of ROM, strengthening should be performed to all wrist motions and, if necessary, to grip strenght and entrie arm.” (Prenctice. Pg. 564) 103. One of your patients has been diagonosed with Sinding-Larsen-Johansson disease. Which of the following is not appropriate when advising the patient in regard to minimizing symptoms? a. To increase the strength of the vastus medialis obliquus muscle with isotonic quadriceps strengthening exercises b. Use ice packs frequently to minimize pain and swelling c. Avoid stressful activities, such as running, for approxamitely 6 months d. Avoid deep squatting e. All of the above “Quadricpes stretching is emphasized, along with palliative treatments such as ice and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications.” (Starkey, Brown. Pg. 407) 104. When counseling a patient about the proper way to self-administer a medication, it is important that the athletic trainer make the patient aware of what 2 factors? a. Any side effects and, in detail, how the drug works on the body b. If the drug may be addictive and how long the effects will last c. If the drug may cause depression and, in detail, how the drug works on the body d. When to take the medication and what foods/drugs not mix with it e. B and C 105. An athlete experiences a catastrophic injury in which she is permanently unable to return to playing the only sport with which she is familiar. What would be the athletic trainer’s appropriate response when discussing the injury with the athlete? a. Tell her it is not appropriate to deny her condition and that it is best to accept her limitations b. Tell her it is OK for ther to feel a variety of emotions and to openly express her needs and concerns c. Tell her to speak to her coach about her future in athleteics d. Tell her to seek psychological counseling until she is no longer angry about her injury e. Tell her it happens all the time and eventually she will get used to her situation 106. When advising a patient about his year-long strength-training program, the athletic trainer should have the patient limit his heavy lifting workouts to which periods? a. In-season and postseason b. Preseason and in-season c. Postseason and off-season d. Off-season and preseason e. None of the above “Table 4-4” (Prentice. Pg. 124) 107. A swimmer reports to the athlete training facility complaining of symptoms related to Scheuermann’s disease. Which type of exercises are beneficial in trying to diminish the symptoms during early stages of the disease? a. Cervical range of motion exercises b. Extension and postural exercises c. Williams’ flexion exercises d. Hughston exercises e. Deep breathing exercises “Generally self-limiting, patients with flexible curves are managed with stretching exercises and strenghtening of the trunk extensors and core stabilizers.” (Starkey, Brown. Pg. 385) 108. When rehabiliting an athlete following a lumbar strain, the athlete trainer should emphasize the significance of having the athlete improve flexibility of all of the following structures except: a. The abdominals b. The iliopsoas c. The paraspinals d. The hamstrings e. The hip extensors “In the athletic trainer’s evaluation of the patient with back pain, the following muscle groups should be assessed for flexibility: hip flexors, hamstrings, low back extensors, lumbar rotators, lumbar lateral flexors, hip adductors, hip abductors, hip rotators.” (Prentice. Pg. 826) 109. One of your basketball players often complians about localized lumbar “backaches”. After performing your evaluation on this patient, it appears his primary problem is postural. All of the following are actions that the patient can take to prevent low back pain except: a. When standing for long periods of time, rest one foot on a stool if it is available b. Avoid sleeping in a side-lying postion with the knees slightly bent c. Carry objects at waist level when possible d. Sit on chairs with a firm seat and straight back e. Keep his abdominals strong 110. Which of the following individuals should the athletic trainer advise and consult with when developing a reconditioning program for a patient following a musculoskeletal injury while playing football? a. The team physician b. The school nurse c. The head football coach d. The patient’s parents if he is a minor e. The team strength and conditioning coach “Athletic trainers should routinely consult with these individuals and advise them about injuries to a particular athlete and exercises that should be avoided or modified relative to a specific injury.” (Prentice. Pg. 31) 111. and are important qualities that an athletic trainer must possess when counseling a patient during a time of distress. a. Honest, respect b. Sympathy, pity c. Confidence, logic d. Objectivity, decisiveness e. Logic, detachment 112. If the patient complains of a burning sensation during an ultrasound treatment, all of the following may be the source of the problem except: a. The intensity is too high b. Not enough ultrasound medium is being used c. Too much ultrasound gel is being used d. The movement of the transducer head is too slow e. B and D “ 113. Pain occurring at a site distant to damage tissue that does not follow the course of a peripheral nerve describes what type of pain? a. Muscular b. Referred c. Radicular d. Visceral e. Parasympathtic “Pain that is felt at a point of the body other than its actual origin is known as referred pain.” (Prentice. Pg. 263) 114. Which of the following is not a contraindication to the use of diathermy? a. Acure inflammation and joint effusion b. Muscle spasm c. Pregnancy d. Open wounds e. C and D “Contraindications: cardiac pacemakers, metal implants or metals, plastic implants or bone cement, ischemic areas, acute injury, peripheral vascular disease, area with active DVT, pregnancy, fever, cancer, open wounds.” (Starkey. Pg. 211-212) 115. What occurs during a joint mobilization technique when a convex surface moves on a concave surface? a. Roll and glide occur in opposite directions b. Glide and spin occur in opposite directions c. A shearing force occurs at the joint surface d. Roll and glide occur in the same direction e. Straight glide in the same direction “Conversely, if the convex surface is moving on a stationary concave surface, gliding will occur in an opposite direction to rolling.” (Prentice. pg..342) 116. Contraindications to cervical traction include all of the following except: a. A positive vertebral test b. A positive alar ligament test c. Disc herniation d. Increased radicular symptoms with treatment e. Nystagmus “Contraindications: acute injury, unstable spine, diseases affecting the vertebrae or spinal cord, vertebral fractures, extruded disk fragmentation, spinal cord compression, postive vertebral artery test, osteoporosis, rheumatoid arthritis, conditions that worsen with or after traction.” (Starkey. Pg. 330) 117. Which of the following is a manual technique in which an injured patient’s muscles are actively contracted against a counterforce in specific position B. Muscle energy technique Prentice (page for 439) “MET manually apply stretching techniques that use principles of neurophysiology to relax overactive myself… PNF contract relax and pulled relax techniques” 118. Delayed onset muscle soreness normally occurs how long after a strenuous exercise session? C. 24-72 hours after exercise Prentice (pg 249) “DOMS becomes most intense after 24 to 48 hours and then gradually subsides” 119. Physiological adaptations of the respiratory system during aerobic endurance training include all the following except A. Reduce submaximal heart rate B. Enhanced oxygen exchange within the lungs C. Decreased submaximal pulmonary ventilation D. Improved circulation throughout the lungs Prentice rehabilitation (pg268-272) “ an increased supply of oxygen… pulmonary function is improved... 120. Which of the following muscles are involved in a seated row exercise. D. Latissimus dorsi teres major middle trapezius rhomboid Prentice (pg. 659t) 121. Which of the following muscles are the primary muscles involved in performing a resisted wrist curl palms up D. Flexor carpi radialis, flexor carpi ulnaris Starkey (pg. 756t) 122. Which of the following structures is responsible for relating information regarding muscle dynamics to the conscious and subconscious part of the central nervous system E. Proprioceptors Starchy pg. 941 “What are the several receptors each of which response to stimuli elicited from within the body itself” 123. Which of the following is the most effective motivator for compliance to rehabilitation of an athletic injury? E. Goal setting Prentice (pg. 296) “ Goal Setting has been shown to be in effective motivated for compliance with a rehabilitation of an athletic injury” 124. Which of the following types of exercise can produce a spike in systolic blood pressure that can result in a potentially life-threatening cardiovascular accident A. Isometric Prentice (pg. 104) “Disadvantage of isometric exercise is that they tend to produce a spike in blood pressure which can result in potentially life-threatening cardiovascular accidents” 125. Which of the following is an example of muscle spindle activity C. Knee jerk reflex Prentice rehab (pg. 76) “Stretch reflex response” 126. When the length of a muscle prevents full range of motion at the joint or joints over the muscle crosses it is known as what A. Passive insufficiency Starkey page 116 “passive insufficiency occurs when the length limits of a musculotendinous unit or reach and further movement results in passive joint movement or restriction of joint movement“ 127. All of the following principles must be considered before the athletic trainer begins in activity designed to improve balance except A. Multiple planes of motion must be stressed B. The activities must progress to sport specific activities C. The activities should incorporate a unisensory “approach D. The exercises must be safe but challenging Prentice Rehabilitation (pg. 196) “BE safe yet challenging….Progress toward sport specific exercises” 128. Which of the following positions must be avoided when rehabilitating an athlete with posterior instability the glenohumeral joint C. Internal rotation with horizontal adduction and flexion 129. When developing a functional progression for an athlete who is undergoing a rehabilitation program all the following factors need to be considered except A. The physicians expectations for the athletes return to activity B. The athletes expectations for his or her return to the activity C. The severity of the athletes disability D. The length of the rehabilitation program E. The athletes position in the sport Starkey pg. 357 “ Decisions about when a patient is ready to return to full activity found injury should be based to a large extent on performance… Pain free“ 130. Upper extremity closed kinetic chain exercises are used primarily for strengthening and improving proprioception which of the following structures A. Muscles that stabilize the shoulder girdle Prentice p.g. 434 “In the upper extremity, the hand as a weight bearing surface transmits forces to the wrist forearm, elbow, upper arm, and shoulder girdle.” 131. Hans Selye's phenomenon of the General adaptation syndrome which occurs when an individual response to a stressful situation includes three stages of the stress response A. The alarm stage, resistance stage, exhaustion Staley (pg. 409) “The three stages of this response are alarm resistance and exhaustion” 132. What is the temperature range of an ice bath D. 50°F to 60°F “ Prentice “ Depending on the body part to be immersed, a variety containers or basins can be used. Water and ice crushed are mixed together to reach a temperature of 50- 60 F (10-15) C.” 133. Which of the following actions may help to decrease skin electrode resistance when performing an electric therapy treatment A. Moist and electrodes with water (Couldn’t find it in the book but every preceptor has a told me this if that counts) “ 134. Which of the following acoustical interfaces is most reflective of ultrasound energy D. Soft tissue air O’Connor (pg. 177) “the amount of reflection depends on the degree of change in density at the junction between the two tissues. The interface between soft tissue and bone is highly reflective” 135. Which of the following electric placement techniques is most commonly use when treating an individual with brief intense TENS B. Dermatome placement Starchy (pg. 274) “direct placement, contiguous placement, stimulation points, and dermatome placement” 136. It is important to set specific short and long-term goals when developing a treatment program goals serve all the following purposes except A. Ensure full reimbursement from a third party payer B. Identify outcomes C. Measure the effectiveness of the treatment protocol D. Established timeliness of the treatment program E. Allow the athlete to be part of the treatment Prentice (p.g.13.) “ The athletic trainer is most directly responsible for all phases of health care, including preventing injuries from occurring, providing initial first aid and injury management, evaluating injuries, and designing and supervising a timely and effective program of rehabilitation that can facilitate the safe and expeditious return to activity.” 137. When when using shortwave diathermy which of the following object should not be located within treatment towels E. Metal stools Starkey (p.g.214. 10-3T) - “ In many cases there must be no metal within the immediate treatment area. The presence of metal will collect and concentrate the energy from the treatment in the same manner that an antenna collects radiowaves. “Keep the patient out of reach of any metal objects that can serve as a ground.” 138. Blank and blank are two medications that can be combined when utilizing Iontophoresis B. Dexamethasone, lidocaine Starkey(p.g. 288 13-3T) “ When an anti-inflammatory or anesthetic mixture is used (e.g., dexamethasone and lidocaine) the onset of relief may take 24-48 hours, although immediate relief is sometimes reported.” 139. How often shouldn’t ultrasound unit be calibrated to ensure the safe application of ultrasound E. At least once a year Starkey (pg. 199) “Federal regulations require that therapeutic ultrasound units be calibrated annually” 140. A patient presents to the outlet letting the training facility complaining of “sore spot“ on the back of his neck. It appears as a dark red, hard area, which later developed as a lesion discharging yellow – red purse from numerous areas. The athletic trainer suspects the patient has what type of infection E. BacterialO-Connor (p.g. 332) “Both types of infections can present with small pimples like lesion, pustules, or boils.Both staph and CA- MRSA infection can quickly progress to a much larger inflamed, painful, indurated lesion.” 141. Herpes simplex labialis is caused by which of the following A. Virus O’Connor (p.g 335) “Herpes labialis is caused by HSV-1 and can present as a single vesicle or a cluster of vesicles on the lips.” 142. Pediculosis is most effectively treated with which of the following E. Parasiticide O’Connor (pg. 343) “Treatment requires 7 days of permethrin lotion and lindane shampoo” 143. Which of the following make her as a result of puncture wound that has not been properly treated A. A tetanus infection Starchy (pg. 891) “ the bacteria usually enters the blood through a deep laceration or puncture wound” 144. How quickly may the adaptations in skeletal muscle reverse strength training is discontinued or interrupted during rehabilitation C. 48 hours 145. Circuit training is an Effective training technique if the athletic trainer and desires to improve and B. Strength, flexibility Prentice (p.g. 109) “ Circuit training is definitely an effective technique for improving strength and flexibility.” 146. The athletic trainer should look for all of the following features when purchasing a stationary bicycle except A. A comfortable seat B. And easily modified workload C. Good construction D. An onboard computer for easy programming E. Adjustable to fit all athletes Prentice (p.g.98 4-2T) 147. All the following are contraindications for the use of aquatic therapy A. And excessive fear of the water B. An open wound C. An athlete he was unable to tread water D. Urinary tract infection E. A skin infection Prentice (p.g. 435- 438) 148. Which of the following medications is not a medication that could predispose an athlete to help heat illness D. NSAIDs O’ Conor (pg. 287-288) “ First, a period of acclimatization should be allowed, during which the cardiovascular system and sweating mechanism can adapt…… An athlete who has lost 3% or more of his or her body weight during an exercise session or across several sessions in heat should be held from subsequent practices until body weight is restored.” 149. 149. How long does it take for a patient’s heart rate to plateau at a given level during a cardiorespiratory training session E. 2 to 3 minutes Prentice (pg. 92) “ heart rate shows a gradual adaptation to increase workload by increasing proportionally to the intensity of exercise and will plateau at a given level after about 2 to 3 minutes“ 150. What is the efferent response to sensory information called B. Neuromuscular control Starkey (pg. 76) - 151. What type of fracture fails to heal spontaneously within a normal time frame D. Nonunion Starkey (pg. 93) “ Fractures that fail to heal within 9 months of the expected time required for example a fracture that is expected to heal in 2 months that has not yet healed in 11 months are termed nonuninon fractures.” 152. What is not a thermal effect of ultrasound A. Increased blood flow B. Secretion of chemtactics C. Reduction of muscle spasm D. Edema reduction E. Muscular heating Starkey (pg. 180T) 153. Which of the following modalities results in the movement of ions into the body through the use of electrical current A. Iontophoresis Starky (pg. 287) “deliver low voltage… the applied current must be sufficient to overcome the sin/electrode 154. Blank is a method of massage that involves the lifting and needing other skin, subcutaneous tissue, and muscle with the finger or hand E. Petrissage Starkey (pg. 342) “ Petrissage is the lifting, kneading, and rolling of the skin, subcutaneous tissue, and muscle with the fingers or hand” 155. Which of the following is a cardinal sign of inflammation A. Loss of functionPrentice (pg. 266) “Signs of inflammation Redness, Swelling, Tenderness, increased temperature, loss of function” 156. What is a vascular reaction to cold that results in a white, red, or blue discoloration of the extremities? A. Neurapraxia B. Analgesia C. Raynaud’s phenomenon D. Hypothermia E. Cyanosis Therapeutic Modalities, p. 112 “Results in white, red, or blue discoloration of the extremities.” 157. All of the following are indications for the use of a warm whirlpool except: A. Cleaning large, open wounds B. Relieving pain C. Initial edema reduction D. Increasing range of motion E. Reflexation Therapeutic Modalities, p. 148 “Decrease range of motion” 158. The most common form of hyperthyroidism identified by tremors, weakness, difficult in swallowing/speaking, and facial/eye tics is known as: A. Graves’ disease B. Legg-calve-perthes disease C. Paget’s disease D. Reye’s syndrome E. Sarcoidosis Clinical Pathologies for ATs, p. 284 “Graves’ disease is the most common form of hyperthyroidism [and] causes tremors, weakness, difficulty swallowing or speaking, fatigue, and facial or eye motor disorders.” 159. What is air hunger marked by labored or difficulty breathing called? A. Dysuria B. Dystrophy C. Diaphoresis D. Dysphagia E. Dyspnea Clinical Pathologies for ATs, p. 128 “Shortness of breath” 160. A stretch injury to a nerve resulting in transient symptoms of paresthesia and weakness is known as what? A. Neurotmesis B. Neuroapraxia C. Neurofibromatosis D. Nerve gliding E. Myopraxia Principles of AT, p. 260 “Interruption in conduction of an impulse down the nerve fiber” 161. All of the following muscles form the pes anserinus muscle group except: A. Semimembranosus B. Semitendinosus C. Gracilis D. Sartorius E. B and D Principles of AT, p. 609 “The pes anserinus is where the sartorius, gracilis, and semitendinosus muscles join to the tibia.” 162. What is the internal reaction or resistance of tissue to an external load called? A. Mechanical failure B. Strain C. Stress D. Yield point E. Threshold Principles of AT, p. 245 “The internal resistance of the tissues to an external load is called stress” 163. An involuntary muscle contraction characterized by alternate contraction and relaxation is rapid succession is known as which of the following? A. Tonic contraction B. Alternating contraction C. Eccentric contraction D. Clonic contraction E. Phasic contraction Principles of AT, p. 249 “Alternating involuntary muscle contraction and relaxing in quick succession.” 164. Which of the following is a term that refers to a group of techniques used for the purpose of relieving soft tissue from the abnormal grip of tight fascia? A. Glides B. Traction C. Myofascial release D. Therapeutic massage E. Joint mobilizations Principles of AT, p. 444 “Used to relieve soft tissue from the abnormal grip of tight fascia” 165. The rate at which a drug disappears from the body through metabolism, excretion, or both is known as which of the following? A. Biotransformation B. Half-life C. Efficacy D. Bioavailability E. Expiration rate Principles of Pharmacology for ATs, p. 18 “The half-life (t1⁄2) of a drug is the time required for the amount of drug in the blood to be reduced by one-half.” 166. A type of training that employs a series of stations that consist of various combinations of weight training, flexibility, calisthenics, and brief aerobic exercise is known as which of the following? A. Isokinetic training B. Circuit training C. Plyometrics D. Progressive resistance exercise E. Specificity training Principles of AT, p. 109 “Combinations of weight training, flexibility, calisthenics, and brief aerobic exercise” 167. Diaphoresis is also known as which of the following? A. Rapid heart beat B. Body odor C. Bad breath D. Slow heartbeat E. Sweating Clinical Pathologies for ATs, p. 30 “Diaphoresis (sweating)” 168. Joint mechanoreceptors are found in all of the following structures except: A. Ligaments B. The brain C. Menisci D. Fat pads E. Musculotendinous junction Principles of AT, p. 425 “Found in ligaments, capsules, menisci, labria, and